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Level Two > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

size cut off for lymph node observation v. CBC/viral titer/inflamm markers

A

<2cm mobile = observe

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2
Q

cause of malignant otitis externa (granulation tissue in canal, drainage, facial nerve damage, ear pain) in a DM2 pt

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

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3
Q

2MCC of brain abscess in non -IC

what preceeds the formaiton?

A

viridans strep and staph aureus.

ENT infection preceeds.

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4
Q

Name 4 causes of ring enhancing lesions in the brain

A

EBV = primary CNS lymphoma
Toxo
Nocardia
Viridans strep (and staph?)

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5
Q

Bug in oral cavity assoc with endocarditis

A

viridans strep (mutans, sanguinis)

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6
Q

saprophyticus v epidermidis

locations they like

A

sapro = uti

epidermidis = prosthetic valve, implanted devices, IV catheters

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7
Q

IV drug users that get IE - bug

A

staph aureus

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8
Q

Varicella post exposure ppx: If the person has NOT had 2 prior vax or exposure, do what?

A

if immunocompetent = varicella vaccine

if immunocompromised = VZIG

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9
Q

Fever pharyngitis:

  1. OLDER (3-10y) and has GRAY vesicles/ulcers on POSTERIOR oropharynx [can be hand foot and mouth disease of vesicles erupt on hand/foot).
  2. YOUNGER (6m-5y) and has erythematous giniv with culsters of small vesicles on ANTERIOR oropharynx.
A
  1. herpangina (coxsackie A)

2. herpetic gingivostomatosis

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10
Q

valve in IE v. RF

A

IE = MR and MVP

rheumatic fever = MS

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11
Q 
C v. G: 
Which is mucopurulent?
Which shows on Gram stain? 
Which do not show on gram stain?
Which is MC in males? 
Treatment of each?
A

Which is mucopurulent? BOTH
Which shows on Gram stain? GONO = G negative
Which do not show on gram stain? CHLAM
Which is MC in males?
CHLAM
Treatment of each? Chlam = doxy or azithro; Gono = ceftriax

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12
Q

midwest, mostly mild pulmonary or in IC disseminated disease.
possible hx of sarcoid + noncaseating granulomas + Mississippi + TB-mimicking dz + hilar LAD + deterioration following HD-CS

A

histo

hilar LAD MC in histo than blasto

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13
Q

HACEK orgs

A 
Haemophilus 
Aggregatibacter actinomycetamcomitans
Cardiobacterium hominis 
Eikenella (oral mucosa) 
Kingella
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14
Q

barking cough and inspiratory stridor

tx?

A

croup

if NO STRIDOR at rest = supportive, humidified air or CS

if STRIDOR AT REST = racemic epi

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15
Q
  1. BLOODY diarrhea CD4<50 + fever
  2. watery diarrhea CD4<50 + HIGH fever
  3. watery diarrhea CD4 <100 and no fever
  4. watery diarrhea CD4<180 + fever
A
  1. CMV
  2. MAC
  3. micro/isosporidium
  4. crypto
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16
Q

GI + hepatic involvement + rural travel. You find a single subscapular cyst in the RIGHT hepatic lobe.

A

entamoeba histolytica

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17
Q

treat strep mutans or sanguinis

A

IV ceftriaxone or penG

gram + alpha hemolytic

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18
Q

five criteria for ppx to lyme disease

A
  1. Attached tick is adult or nymph ixodes (deer tick)
  2. Tick attached for MORE THAN 36hrs or engorged.
  3. PPx started within 72 hrs of tick removal.
  4. Local borrelia infection rate is 20% or greater in regioN
  5. No CI to doxy (>8, not pregnant, not breastfeeding) –> azithro
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19
Q

anaplasmosis, babesiosis, borrelia - which is immediately transmitted, which takes a longer time?

A

anaplasmosis and babesiosis immediate.

borrelia is in teh gut of the tick, os takes 48-72hrs before transmission.

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20
Q

presents 1-4 weeks after GI or GU infection with asymmetric oligoarthritis, conjunctivitis, oral lesions =

A

reactive arthritis

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21
Q

Tenosynovitis, polyarthralgia, dermatitis (pustular or vesculopustular lesions) =

A

disseminated gonococcemia

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22
Q

Fever, pharyngitis, cervicla LAD, atypical lymphocytosis, SM, generalized maculopapular/urutcarial/petechial rash =

A

mono

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23
Q

Flu-like, symmetric polyarthralgia, macular or maculopapular rash on limbs and trunk, peripheral edema, cervical LAD =

A

chikungunya fever (mosquitoes)

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24
Q

after broth to HIV+ mom, do what for baby?

A

zidovudine for 6 weeks

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25
Q

Measles v. Rubella: >104 fever, cephalocaudal spread of rash over DAYS, cervical LAD.

A

measles

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26
Q

Measles v. Rubella: low grade fever, cephalocaudal spread of rash WITHIN 24 HOURS and ARTHRITIS/polyarthralgia.

A

rubella

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27
Q

MCC of osteomyelitis in KIDS = ?
MCC of osteomyelitis in prosthetics = ?
MCC of osteomyelitis in SICKLE CELL = ?

staph epidermidis v.
Staph aureus.
salmonella

A

MCC of osteomyelitis in KIDS = staph aureus
MCC of osteomyelitis in prosthetics = staph epidermidis
MCC of osteomyelitis in SICKLE CELL = salmonella

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28
Q

tick bite.

leukopenia and thrombocytopenia + elevated liver enzymes = ?dx and tx

A

erlichiosis

doxy

29
Q

imaging: well defined enhancing focal lesion in HIV+ pt = dz and bug

A

Primary CNS lymphoma dt EBV

30
Q

imaging: multiple non enhancing brain lesions with no mass effect in HIV+ pt = dz and bug

A

PML dt JC virus reactivaiton

31
Q

antifungal for

aspergillosis.

A

caspofungin

32
Q

antifungal for histo

A

amphoB

33
Q

antifungal for crypto

A

flucytosine

34
Q

dx of bug and tx:
whiff test clue

green

pseudohyphae

A

whiff test clue = gardnerella (MTZ)

green = trich (MTZ + treat partner)

pseudohyphae = candida (fluconazole)

35
Q

FEVER + LEUKOCYTOSIS + LUQ P AIN following an infection.

A

splenic abscess (i.e. following infective endocarditis

36
Q

immigrant with Anesthetic skin lesion with raised borders + nodular, painful nearby nerves with loss of sensory/motor function = dx and test and tx

A

Dx: leprosy
Test: full thickness bx
tx: dapsone + rifampin

37
Q

midwest/upper midwest region farmer with skin ulcerated warty-like lesions on neck and back an dry cough.

A

blasto

38
Q

SW has erythema nodosum and erythema multiforme. MC presents with pulmonary infection.

A

coccidiomycosis

39
Q

Dx of…

1) PERSISTENT sx ten or more days without improvement.
(2) WORSENING sx for five or more days after initial improving viral URI.
3) SEVERE sx for three or more days with purulent sinus discharge, fever >102F, face pain.

A

acute bacterial rhinosinusitis

40
Q

tx: MCC of mengingitis, presents with neutrophilic leukocytosis. Treat with 3G ceph (ceftriaxone), vanc, dexamethasone.

A

ceftriaxone or 3g ceph, Vanc, Dexamethasone.

41
Q

strep pneumo meningitis in a person >50y or immunocomp. add ampicillin to cover for…

A

listeria

42
Q

hgih pitched sounds in a newborn =

A

heroin

43
Q

MCC of ul cervical LAD in kids

A

staph aureus

44
Q

precocious puberty, cafe au lait spots, multiple bone defects (polyostotic fibrous dysplasia)

A

mccune albright

45
Q

Cafe au-lait spots (>5) + neurfibromas + osseous lesion + freckling axilla + lisch noduels (iris hamartomas)

A

neurofibromatosis (von reckling)

46
Q

GI tract polyposis + mucocutaneous pigmentaiton + possible estrogen-secreting tumor (=precocious puberty)

A

peutz-jehers

47
Q

Sporadic phakomatosis = Mental retardation + seizures + visual impairment + port wine stain over trigeminal nerve A

A

sturge weber

48
Q

MCC of pna in CF - define

A

n CYSTIC FIBROSIS STAPH AUREUS is the MCC of pneumonia until

TWENTY YEARS OLD. Then is SWTICHES to PSEUDOMONAS as the MCC of pneumonia

49
Q

fEbrile neutropenia (ANC<1500 with fever) = cover for…

A

pseudomonas

50
Q

Locations of chloroquine resistant malaria =

A

central/south america, africa (southern), ME, china

Use mefloquine or atovaquine.

51
Q

wjere are the only places you can use chloroquine for malaria?

A

Can use chloroquine only in Crribean and Central America.

52
Q

aspiration pna - use what?

A

clindamycin

53
Q

newborn ophtho conjunctivitis: <24hrs v. 2-5d v. 5-14d

A

<24hrs = chemical (eye lubricant);

2-5d = gonococcal (IM cephalosporin)

5-14d = chlamydial (PO macrolide -erythromycin).

54
Q

a 10 week gestation patient has asx bacteriuria (>100,000 cfu) (e coli). next step?

A

amox-clav

cipor CI in preg (all FQ’s are)

55
Q

Foot infections caused by P AD or DM or neuropathy are POLYMICROBIAL or MONOMICROBIAL and spread HOW?

A

POLY

CONTIGUOUS

56
Q

DDX for bloody diarrhea:

Q: if no recent travel, suspect which?

A

e coli, shigella, campy.

e coli.
(MCC of bloody diarrhea).

57
Q

CONGENITAL INFECTION: cataracts, PDA (Left 2nd ICS), senosrineurla hearing loss.

A

ongenital rubella syndrome (german measles) =

58
Q

CONGENITAL INFECTION: chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, diffuse intracranial Ca.

A

Congenital toxo presents

59
Q

CONGENITAL INFECTION: - HSM, nasal discharge, osteo destruction, MACULOP APULAR RAHS.

A

Con syphilis

60
Q

CONGENITAL INFECTION:

chorioretinitis and periventricular calcifications.

A

Cong CMV -

61
Q

CONGENITAL INFECTION: hypoplastic limbs, cataracts, skin lesions.

A

Congenital varicella -

62
Q

HACEK IE - TX HOW

A

amp-sulbactam

63
Q

Cellulitis for MRSA or ppx for dental procedures in IE

high risk = tx?

A

clinda.

64
Q

Staph aureus endocarditis = tx?

A

vanc.

65
Q

tx for nocardia

A

TMP-SMX

66
Q

tx and ppx for PCP

A

TMP-SMX

67
Q

increased LDH (intravascualr hemolysis) and anemia + tick bite = ?

A

BABESIOSIS. Tx with ATOVAQUONE+AZITHRO OR QUINIDINE + CLINDA

68
Q

infant with meningococcemia has large purpruic lesions on flanks and then sudden vasomoto
collapse. What is the cause?

A

A: Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

Level Two (15 decks)

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