Infectious disease Flashcards
The color of blood observed in nitrate poisoning is: a. bright red. b. cherry red. c. slight brown. d. chocolate brown. e. dark, unoxygenated.
D
The federal regulatory activities pertaining to animal drugs, medicated feeds and feed safety are performed under the provision of: a. The Virus Serum and Toxin Act of 1913. b. The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. c. The Wholesome Meat & Poultry Inspection Act. d. The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act. e. The Agriculture Marketing Agreement Act.
B
The regulatory control of animal biologics is vested in: a. USPHS. b. HHS. c. FDA. d. USDA. e. NIH.
D
Which one of the following types of biologics is used to confer passive immunity? a. Toxoid. b. Bacterin. c. Antitoxin. d. Vaccine. e. Bacterin-toxoid.
C
The duration of the depressant effect of pentobarbital sodium is prolonged by pretreatment with chloramphenicol. The mechanism of this effect is: a. inhibition of the microsomal drug metabolizing system by chloramphenicol. b. neuromuscular blocking effect of chloramphenicol. c. adrenergic blockade. d. competitive inhibition of pentobarbital antagonists. e. cholinergic blockade.
A
Mass immunization of the animal population as a preventive technique provides: a. the ability of the resistant individual to move freely, always carrying his protection with him. b. lifetime protection against the disease organism. c. perfect protection as afforded by all immunizing agents. d. practically no problems of side reactions from the immunizing agent. e. little or no possibility of the spread of the live viruses or other diseases.
A
The oldest tool of preventive Medicine is: a.Immunization b. Chemoprophylaxis c. Quarantine d. Education e. Environmental hygiene
C
The definitive host for the adult stage of Taenia saginata is: a.humans b.cattle c.swine d.sheep e.dogs
A
Correct and early diagnosis of Mucosal Disease is important because: a.we have none in this country. b.it closely resembles Rinderpest and Contagious Pleuropneumonia. c.affected animals should be destroyed at once. d.disease spreads to all species of animals. e.disease is contagious to humans.
B
The most frequently reported zoonotic disease in the United States is: a.Tuberculosis. b.Brucellosis. c.Salmonellosis. d.Anthrax. e.Pasteurellosis.
C
Leptospirosis in cattle: a.lends itself to an eradication program because the vaccine is very effective. b.is a reportable disease and federal indemnity is available in local control programs. c.usually disappears entirely from a herd following an acute outbreak. d.may spread from reservoirs in domestic or wild animals and is not easily eradicated. e.has been eradicated.
D
The market cattle identification program is most valuable for: a. eliminating the need for health certificates. b. indicating which herds of cattle are likely to be affected with brucellosis or tuberculosis. c. determining the incidence of brucellosis and tuberculosis within a given marketing area. d. removing infected animals from interstate commerce. e. leptospirosis survey.
B
Pseudorabies virus can naturally or experimentally infect: a. swine only. b. cattle and sheep only. c. most animals and birds but not man. d. all mammals and some birds. e. all vertebrates.
C
The serum neutralization test is currently used for diagnosis of Aujesky’s Disease. The chief disadvantage is: a. too time consuming and expensive. b. lacks sensitivity. c. does not detect early infections. d. too many other diseases cross-react. e. lacks reliability.
A
Which of the following disinfectants would be the one choice to destroy the viruses of Newcastle’s Disease, African Swine Fever, Duck Virus Enteritis, Fowl Plague and Hog Cholera? a. Acetic acid. b. Sodium hydroxide. c. Ortho-phenylphenol. d. Isopropyl alcohol. e. Calcium hypochlorite.
C
The causative agent of which of the following diseases is prohibited entry into the United States by law? a. Contagious pleuropneumonia. b. Rinderpest. c. Foot and Mouth Disease. d. African Swine Fever. e. African Horse Sickness.
C
Successful tracebacks to herds of origin of tuberculosis cattle found on regular kill are most dependent on: a. extent of lesions found in the animal. b. quality of the specimens submitted to laboratory. c. collection submission of all man made identification. d. which field veterinary medical officer investigates the case. e. state in which cow was slaughtered.
C
Tissues for histopathologic examination for tuberculosis should be submitted to the laboratory: a. on dry ice. b. in chloramine-T solution. c. in 10 percent formalin solution. d. in saturated sodium borate solution. e. in isopropyl alcohol.
C
When an M. bovis herd is located, the herds of origin of lesion animals should be tuberculin tested using the: a. single caudal test - 0.1 ml b. single caudal test - 0.2 ml c. single cervical test - 0.2 ml d. comparative cervical test e. single cervical test - 0.1 ml
A
A large tuberculin reaction is an indication of: a. M. bovis infection. b. sensitivity. c. M. avium complicating infection. d. a poor injection. e. Johnne’s Disease.
B
The most effective way of eliminating brucellosis infection from a commercial swine herd is by: a. dividing the herd into isolated units and testing each at 60 day intervals and removing the reactors. b. depopulating the herd and restocking with swine from brucellosis free herds. c. moving the herd to new ground and preventing access to buildings until they have been thoroughly disinfected. d. selecting only gilts for breeding and disposing all sows to slaughter. e. adding a high level of chlortetracycline to the feed of infected sows for three weeks before they are bred to SPF boars.
B
The most important routes of brucellosis exposure in swine are: a. oral and venereal. b. ocular and inhalation. c. cutaneous and intrathecal. d. ocular and oral. e. streak canal and cutaneous.
A
Most brucellosis diagnoses in the United States are based on: a. recovery of the brucella organism. b. serological tests based on the presence of agglutinins against brucella. c. serological tests based on complement fixing antibodies against brucella. d. serological tests based on antiglobulin serological tests against brucella. e. clinical evidence such as abortion, retained placenta, metritis, mastitis, arthritis and sterility.
B
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the relationship between brucella infection and abortion in cattle? a. Cattle that abort once can be expected to abort in succeeding pregnancies. b. Abortion is seldom observed in infected herds maintained as a closed unit. c. Up to 20% of pregnant, non-vaccinated, infected cattle never abort. d. Animals introduced into an infected herd are quite resistant for the first year. e. Possibly 80% of pregnant, non-vaccinated, infected cattle never abort.
C
Strain 19 vaccinated cattle that become infected under the same conditions of exposure as non-vaccinated cattle: a. reveal the same incubation period as non-vaccinated cattle. b. will reveal shorter incubation periods than non-vaccinated cattle. c. have a higher abortion rate than non-vaccinated cattle. d. have a longer incubation than non-vaccinated cattle. e. will never abort.
D
The brucellosis ring test: a. is the primary test for screening market cattle samples. b. will detect infected cows earlier than blood tests. c. should be adjusted to compensate for different herd size. d. has never been used in the United States. e. is accurate regardless of condition of samples.
C
Calfhood vaccination with strain 19 is approximately % effective. a. 100 b. 40 c. 25 d. 60 e. 0
D
Brucellosis in cattle is transmitted: a. as an aerosol. b. by direct contact between a susceptible and infected animal. c. only by contaminated feed and water. d. by passage through an intermediate host, most species of ticks. e. by sexual contact as a venereal disease.
B
Though anaplasmosis occurs in all states other than Alaska and Hawaii, the prevalence is higher in: a. lower Mississippi delta. b. New England. c. Great Lakes states. d. Pacific Northwest. e. Atlantic coast states.
A
Streptococcus agalactiae causes what percent of all mastitis in the United States? a. 5 b. 25 c. 45 d. 65 e. 85
C
Which of the following diseases of livestock or poultry has never occurred in the United States? a. Foot and mouth. b. Hog cholera. c. Rinderpest. d. Fowl plague. e. Scrapie.
C
Aujesky’s disease is caused by which of the following: a. myxovirus. b. paramyxovirus. c. herpesvirus. d. adenovirus. e. enterovirus.
C
Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is caused by which of the following? a. virus. b. rickettsia. c. mycoplasma. d. protozoa. e. helminth.
C
Which of the following is most likely to produce infection on man? a. Sheep Pox. b. Rift Valley Fever. c. Foot and Mouth Disease. d. Newcastle Disease. e. Fowl Plague.
B
Adrenergic drugs are commonly referred to as: a. sympatholytic agents. b. sympathomimetic agents. c. adrenolytic agents. d. blocking agents. e. antagonist agents.
B
The antibacterial action of penicillin is highest: a. when administered concomitantly with a bacteriostatic drug. b. during the period of greatest bacterial multiplication. c. against bacteria in the resting phase d. after metabolic activation. e. when formulated with dihydrostreptomycin.
B
The mechanism of action of sulfonamide drugs is: a. competitive inhibition of PABA. b. noncompetitive inhibition of PABA. c. folic acid mediated. d. stimulation of PABA metabolism. e. host cell mediated.
A
Four types of syndromes are commonly mentioned with regard to sulfonamide toxicity: which of the following is NOT associated with one of these syndromes? a. Crystalluria. b. Drug shock. c. Aciduria. d. Renal tubular obstruction. e. Hypersensitivity.
C
Which of the following mycotoxins is associated with prolonged estrus and vulvovaginitis? a. Slaframine. b. Aflatoxin B1. c. Aflatoxin G1. d. Rubratoxin. e. Zearalenone.
E
Diphenylamine blue is a sensitive and reliable field test for: a. arsenic. b. nitrate/nitrite. c. cyanide. d. lead. e. strychnine.
B
The poisonous plant whose toxic factors inactivate thiamine in the horse and depress bone marrow function in the cow is: a. Pigweed. b. Lupine. c. Bracken Fern. d. Senecio. e. Dogbane.
C
The specific mechanism of action of chlorinated hydrocarbon insecticides is: a. tie up of sulfhydryl enzymes. b. inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. c. inhibition of pseudocholinesterase. d. unknown. e. increased epinephrine production.
D
What drug(s) can a licensed veterinarian order/prescribe for use in animal feeds for treating food producing animals? a. None. b. Any approved new animal drug premix for use in animal feeds. c. Any drug premix which has been approved for food animal use which the veterinarian may legally obtain. d. Penicillin and streptomycin only. e. Any drug approved for veterinary use.
C
If a feed manufacture holds approved medicated feed applications (Form FD 1800) for two different drugs for the same species of animal, the manufacturer can: a. make a drug combination product providing he does not change the approved concentration of the drugs. b. only make the two separate feeds as approved by the application. c. manufacture the drugs in either separate or combination forms depending on the demand by the customers. d. request approval from the food and drug administration for permission to make a combination feed to reduce feed inventory and record keeping. e. None of the above.
B
The sponsor of an investigational new animal drug (INAD) shall assure himself that the new animal drug is shipped only to clinical investigators who are: a. affiliated with recognized colleges, universities or other institutions specializing in new animal research. b. qualified by scientific training and/or experience to evaluate the safety and/or effectiveness of the new animal drug. c. Qualified by possession of a degree in veterinary medicine from a recognized institution. d. qualified by membership in at least one board certified medical speciality. e. qualified by approval of the National Academy of Sciences/National Research Council.
B
A shipment or other delivery of a new animal drug or animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug intended solely for tests in vitro or in animals used only for laboratory research purposes shall be exempt from section 512 (a) and (m) of the act if it is labeled as follows: a. “Caution: for use only by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.” b. “Caution: contains a new animal drug for investigational use only in laboratory research animals or for tests in vitro. Not for use in humans.” c. “Caution: contains a new animal drug for investigational use in all food-producing animals. Not for use in humans.” d. “Caution: for veterinary research only. Follow label directions carefully. Not for use in humans.” e. “Caution: for veterinary clinical trials only. Use only for species as stated on the labeling. Not for use in humans.”
B
The toxic principles of Pigweed and Lamb quarter are respectively: a. nitrate and alkaloid. b. alkaloid and oxalate. c. oxalate and nitrate. d. cyanide and oxalate. e. cyanide and nitrate.
C
Molybdenosis is the result of excess molybdenum in the feed. There is a triad of feed constituents which is important to determining the response of cattle to excess molybdenum. These include molybdenum: a. zinc and inorganic sulfate. b. copper and inorganic sulfate. c. copper and organic sulfate. d. zinc and organic sulfate. e. zinc and inorganic copper.
B
The federal agency having regulatory jurisdiction over the marketing of animal drugs can utilize the regulatory tools of: a. only by injunctions, written warnings and recalls. b. only seizures and injunctions. c. only prosecutions through the courts. d. only by recalls from market channels of improper products. e. injunctions, seizures, prosecution through the courts, written warnings, and recalls.
E
One of the following need NOT appear on the label of a federally licensed veterinary biologic: a. True name of the product. b. License number of the producer or permit number of the importer. c. Name of the distributor. d. Name and address number of the producer or permittee. e. Serial number.
C
Which agency is responsible for testing licensed veterinary biologics? a. National Bureau of Standards. b. Veterinary Services Laboratories. c. Centers for Disease Control. d. Agriculture Research Service. e. National Institutes of Health.
B
Food producing animals which have been administered experimental biologic products must be: a. destroyed and sent to a rendering plant. b. buried. c. held at least 14 days and are subject to the federal meat inspection regulations. d. not used for human food. e. sent to a licensed establishment for evaluation.
C
Veterinary biological products presented for importation without a permit are: a. tested before released. b. held until a permit is issued. c. returned to the country of origin or are destroyed. d. used in experimental field trials. e. sent to a licensed establishment for evaluation
C
Potency test of a licensed veterinary biological product containing more than one immunogenic fraction: a. may be conducted on the weakest fraction. b. is conducted using the same animals for each fraction for all products. c. must be evaluated for each fraction. d. are done in vitro. e. are done in vivo.
C
The master seed lot concept permits: a. tests of each serial in vivo only. b. tests of each serial in vitro only. c. virus titrations in lieu of host animal tests for immunogenicity of each serial. d. exemption from serial potency testing. e. tests of every fifth serial for host animal potency.
Ingredients used in licensed veterinary biological products: a. must be sterilized before use. b. are all subject to pasteurization. c. must meet accepted standards of purity and quality. d. must be derived from animal sources. e. are evaluated by testing final products.
CC
USDA licensed virus vaccines and inactivated bacterial products: a. must use formalin as the inactivating agent. b. are exempt from purity tests. c. must be tested to assure inactivation. d. must contain preservatives. e. cannot be used as diluents for live virus vaccines.
C
Preservatives in licensed veterinary biologic products: a. are limited to phenolic compounds. b. are limited to mercurial compounds. c. may consist of permitted combinations and antibiotics. d. may include sulfonamides and corticosteroids. e. are limited to multiple dose containers.
C
Expiration dates of licensed veterinary products: a. have no relation to potency of the product. b. are determined by market demand. c. are based on statistically acceptable stability records. d. are computed from time of first sale. e. are based on potency level at release.
C
Which of the following conditions may be cause for the Secretary of Agriculture to informally suspend, without hearing, a U.S. Biologics Establishment License or a U.S. Biologics Product License? a. The license is used to facilitate or effect the preparation, sale, barter, or shipment contrary to the virus-serum-toxin act, of worthless, contaminated, or harmful biologicals. b. The licensee or permittee has violated or failed to comply with any provision of the virus-serum-toxin act or the Code of Federal Regulations. c. The product is so labeled or advertised as to mislead or deceive the purchaser. d. The methods of preparation of the product are faulty, or the product contains impurities or lacks potency. e. In the case of willfulness or where the public health interest or safety so require.
E
Which one of the following special directions for handling and use of desiccated modified live vaccines does NOT apply? a. Store under refrigeration. b. Shake well after rehydration. c. Use immediately after rehydration. d. Rehydrate only with potable water. e. Avoid use of chemically sterilized syringes.
D
Monkey B virus infection in man, causes: a. shingles b. Whartins papilliform eruptions. c. Koplik’s spots. d. ascending myelitis. e. myositis.
D
Which of the following statements concerning sporotrichosis is correct? a. Sporotrichum schenckii is the cause of disease of cattle known as Epizootic Lymphangitis. b. Human sporotrichosis has never resulted from contact with infected animals. c. Sporotrichum schenckii exist in nature where it has been isolated from soil, wood and plants. d. sporotrichosis occurs mostly in large cities. e. sporotrichosis occurs only in the United States
C
In nature the reservoir of Eastern Encephalitis virus is: a. horses. b. ticks. c. wild and domestic birds. d. wild rodents.
C
Medication at intervals of NOT less than 80 or 90 days to control Fasciola hepatica infection in cattle and sheep by the use of anthelmentics is recommended because: a. of the danger of developing drug resistance. b. the available drugs have limited effectiveness and more frequent treatment intervals would be economically impractical. c. it requires this time interval for the development and reingestion by the host of the encysted metacercariae following the elimination of the eggs from the host. d. of the toxicity of the drugs used to destroy mature flukes in the bile ducts. e. It requires this period of time for the flukes to become mature and enter the bile ducts where the drug can reach and destroy them.
E
A diagnosis of Foot and Mouth Disease in a feed lot would require quarantine of: a. only the infected cattle. b. all animals, animal products, and feed on the premises and all adjoining farms. c. all livestock until they have been examined and slaughtered. d. only the cattle clinically diagnosed as having the disease. e. No action needs to be taken because all cattle are held for slaughter.
B
The etiologic agent associated with Marek’s Disease of chickens is: a. a rickettsial agent. b. a chlamydial agent. c. Herpesvirus. d. Mycoplasma. e. Salmonella pullorum.
C
Of practical importance in the containment of Bacillus anthracis and prevention of further spread is the physiological characteristic of: a. demand for gaseous oxygen in order to sporulate. b. ability to grow under strict anaerobic conditions. c. ability to form capsules. d. chain formation in the blood stream. e. swarming colonies on chocolate agar.
A