Infectious Disease 2 Flashcards
Human Brucellosis is best treated with:
A. Tetracycline and rifampin
B. Penicillin for 21 days
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Sulfamethazine
E. Cutaneous antigen and levamisole
A. Tetracycline and rifampin
Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding arthropod-borne viruses in the Family Togaviridae Genus Alphavirus?
A. Eastern Equine Encephalitis (EEE) virus infections occur mostly in U.S. states east of the Mississippi River, the Caribbean, and South America and can have human case fatalities of up to 50%
B. Western Equine Encephalitis (WEE) virus is distributed throughout western North America, Uruguay, and Argentina – and in humans, usually has higher morbidity and lower case-fatality rates than EEE
C. Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis (VEE) virus occurs mostly in northeastern South America, and is different from EEE and WEE in that non-immune equids are the principal source of virus for arthropod vectors in epizootics and epidemics
D. All of the above statements are true
E. None of the above statements are true
The primary mode of transmission of Melioidosis is:
A. Animal to man
B. Man to animal
C. Contact with contaminated soil or water
D. Contact with infected zoo animals
E. Contamination of food by rodents
C. Contact with contaminated soil or water
Immunological tolerance, where a viral antigen causes no immune response in the host, but in which infective viral particles are always present, is of importance in which disease:
a. Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis
b. Q-Fever
c. St. Louis Encephalitis
d. Cat Scratch Disease
e. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Which of the following is the reservoir for the Sin Nombre virus found in the southwestern United States?
a. Texas Lone Star tick
b. Brown dog tick
c. Cotton rat
d. Chipmunk
e. Deer mouse
c. Cotton rat
Which of the following is NOT transmitted by ticks?
a. Louping Ill
b. Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic fever
c. Far Eastern (Russian Spring and Summer Encephalitis) virus
d. Ross River virus
e. Colorado Tick fever
d. Ross River virus
Which one of the following statements most accurately reflects current thinking concerning the control of human and equine infection with Eastern Encephalitis?
a. Vaccination of horses is the best way to control the disease in man because the horse is the usual source of infection for humans
b. Insect control will usually reduce the infection rate in man because it eliminates horse-to-man transmission
c. In order to control the disease in horses, human infections must be reduced because man is usually the principle source of infection for horses
d. Both horses and humans acquire the infection from insects and do not usually serve as sources of infection for each other. Therefore, human vaccination only reduces the incidence in man and equine vaccination protects only horses
e. Reduction of the disease in man reduces the incidence in horses and reduction in horses reduces the incidence in man because both species can serve as immediate sources of infection for the other
d. Both horses and humans acquire the infection from insects and do not usually serve as sources of infection for each other. Therefore, human vaccination only reduces the incidence in man and equine vaccination protects only horses
The occurrence of African Horse Sickness in foreign countries has usually been controlled through extensive:
a. Test and slaughter methods
b. Quarantine, vaccination and vector control
c. Chemotherapeutic agents
d. Cleaning and disinfection programs
e. Elimination of reservoir host(s)
b. Quarantine, vaccination and vector control
- Live-attenuated virus vaccines are available for immunization of equids against AHS.
- These are typically based on cell culture–attenuated viruses and generally provide good, but not absolute,
- Annual revaccination is recommended in regions where these vaccines are used
- Potential reversion to virulence, capacity for transmission by vector Culicoides midges
Human autoinfection is a serious concern with which parasite listed below?
a. Taenia saginata
b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Taenia solium
e. Anasakis spp.
d. Taenia solium
- The definitive host, human, can get infected with the same tapeworm over and over again.
- This retro-peristalsis reverses the direction of the stool and the gravid proglottids are carried back to the stomach.
- The larvae hatch and cause cysticercosis.
- Another way to autoinfect oneself with cysticerci is to scratch the anus and then put fingers into the mouth.
Which of the following is NOT a reason that Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) has been potentially linked to human disease?
a. BSE provides a plausible interpretation of findings related to a form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease with a unique age-specific incidence.
b. The increased incidence of BSE in UK cattle has paralleled a large increase in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in the human population in the U.K.
c. Exposure of the UK human population to the BSE agent was likely to have been highest in the 1980’s, consistent with the incubation period for spongiform disease in humans,
d. An apparent excess of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease occurred among cattle farmers in the U.K.
e. Recent cases of a variant form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease have a common neuropathological pattern, suggesting infection by a common strain of the causative agent.
d. An apparent excess of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease occurred among cattle farmers in the U.K.
When considering the diagnosis of adult, or enzootic, bovine lymphosarcoma (BLV), which of the following statements is correct?
a. Rectal palpation of the abdominal cavity is a useful diagnostic procedure in cases lacking peripheral lymph node enlargement.
b. On the hemogram, lymphocytosis is commonly observed.
c. Approximately 20 % of the cases are serologically negative for BLV on the AGID test.
d. Cytology of aspirates of tumors is a reliable diagnostic tool.
e. Adult cattle with enzootic leukosis usually present between 2 and 4 years of age.
a. Rectal palpation of the abdominal cavity is a useful diagnostic procedure in cases lacking peripheral lymph node enlargement.
- lymphocytosis in approximately 30%
- Lymphoma (lymphosarcoma) in approximately 3% of BLV cattle at least six years-of-age. termed the “enzootic”, “endemic”, or “adult”
- Poor reproductive performance and palpable enlargement of the uterine wall or intra-pelvic lymph nodes are also indicators
You are called on a cool day in June to a client’s dairy in the central California valley because the herd’s milk production has dropped dramatically in the last 2 days and many cows are slobbering, have elevated temperatures, and are not eating well. You select 5 cows to examine closely and find fevers of 104-106 degrees F and several lingual erosions. The farmer’s ranch horse has identical clinical signs. Your presumptive diagnosis is:
a. Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD)
b. Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD)
c. Vesicular Stomatitis (VS)
d. Malignant Catarrhal Fever (MCF)
e. Bovine papular stomatitis (BPS)
c. Vesicular Stomatitis (VS)
- Vesicular stomatitis is seen sporadically in the USA.
- Vesicular stomatitis viruses are endemic in South America, Central America, and parts of Mexico
- The virus can be transmitted through direct contact with infected animals with clinical disease (those with lesions) or by blood-feeding insects.
- vesicular stomatitis is a reportable disease
- Diagnosis is based on signs and either antibody detection through serologic tests, viral detection through isolation, or detection by molecular techniques.
Which of the following Brucella sp. is not zoonotic?
a. Brucella melitensis
b. Brucella abortus
c. Brucella canis
d. Brucella ovis
e. Brucella suis
d. Brucella ovis
Brucella ovis - economically important cause of epididymitis, orchitis and
impaired fertility in rams. Occasionally associated with abortion in ewes, and can cause
increased perinatal mortality in lambs.
Which of the following statements concerning Salmonella enterica serotype Typhimurium multiple drug resistant definitive type 104 (mrDT104) is most correct?
a. Molecular studies have shown that resistance genes are chromosomally encoded.
b. A clonal strain of mrDT104 is resistant to at least 5 antimicrobials and is referred to as R-type ACSSuT.
c. In humans, the case-fatality rate for mrDT104 R-type ACSSuT is the same as for non-typhoid Salmonella infections other than mrDT104 R-type ACSSuT.
d. A and B are true.
e. B and C are true.
d. A and B are true.
- Salmonella typhimurium DT104 first emerged in the UK in the 1980’s and is associated with an increase in morbidity and mortality in both humans and animals.
- characterized by resistance to 5 antimicrobials and has a tendency to acquire additional resistance attributes.
- Results of molecular studies have documented that resistance genes in mrDT104 are chromosomally encoded.
In 1999, the APHIS/USDA provided an indemnity to U.S. swine producers for the voluntary depopulation of herds of swine known to be infected with pseudorabies. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Pseudorabies or Aujesky’s Disease is caused by a herpes virus.
b. The eradication program asks producers to wean young pigs in the herd at 2-3 weeks of age and segregate them from the rest of the herd.
c. In 1999, only 1000 infected herds remained in the U.S.
d. As part of the program, once infected swine have been removed from a premises, additional swine may be moved onto those premises for at least 30 days following cleaning and disinfection of the premises have been done.
e. The virus produces the highest mortality in older swine.
e. The virus produces the highest mortality in older swine.
- It existed in the United States for at least 150 years
- pseudorabies virus in the herpes family
- The virus has the ability to produce latent or clinically inapparent infections.
- commercial production swine in the United States are free of pseudorabies
“Diseases Affecting Bovine Mucosa (DABM),” designating the collection of infections that cause crusting of the muzzle and ulceration, erosion, vesiculation, necrosis, or hemorrhage in the bovine alimentary tract, include the following EXCEPT:
a. Rinderpest
b. Bluetongue
c. Malignant Catarrhal Fever
d. Rift Valley Fever
e. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
d. Rift Valley Fever
- Zoonotic - is an acute, fever-causing viral disease most commonly observed in domesticated animals
- Bunyaviridae
- found eastern and southern Africa where sheep and cattle are raised, but the virus exists in most of sub-Saharan Africa, including west Africa and Madagascar.
Following bovine diseases are usually associated with skin lesions on the teats EXCEPT:
a. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
b. Herpes Mammilitis
c. Foot and Mouth Disease
d. Malignant Catarrhal Fever
e. Lumpy Skin Disease
a. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
Classical Swine Fever (Hog Cholera) is clinically indistinguishable in swine by another viral contagious febrile disease. Which of the following is the correct answer?
a. Erysipelas
b. Nipah Virus
c. African Swine Fever
d. Foot and Mouth Disease
c. African Swine Fever
Which of the following parasite produces the most virulent larva migrans?
a. Toxocara canis
b. Toxocara cati
c. Ancylostoma braziliense
d. Strongyloides stercoralis
e. Baylisascaris procyonis
More than 100 years of work has failed to produce either a cure or a reliable vaccine for which of the following diseases:
a. Anthrax
b. Brucellosis
c. Paratuberculosis (Johne’s)
d. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
e. Rabies
c. Paratuberculosis (Johne’s)
The Primary Reservoir for visceral Leishmaniasis is/are:
- rodents
- humans
- canids
- a and c
- b and c
b and c
Confirmatory tests for Francisella tularensis (tularemia) include fluorescent antibody tests and agglutination testing of paired sera. Tularemia demonstrates cross-reactivity with which one of the below listed agents?
- Rickettsia spp
- Brucella
- Hantavirus spp
- Streptococcus spp
- None of the above
B. Brucella
The phenomenal disease condition affecting man and animal known in the US as tick paralysis is usually associated with just one species of tick which is:
a. Ixodes cookie
b. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
c. Argas persicus
d. Dermacentor andersoni
e. Haemaphysalis leporis-palustris
d. Dermacentor andersoni
The first disease to be recognized as transmitted by an arthropod was:
a. anaplasmosis
b. trypanosomiasis
c. Texas fever
d. Yellow fever
e. Malaria
Texas fever
Causative agent of equine piroplasmosis is:
a. Trypanosoma equiperdum
b. Theileria parva
c. Babesia caballi (equi)
d. Trypanosoma evansi
e. Theirleria lawrenci
Babesia caballi (equi)
Wuncheria bancrofti is endemic in most of the warm regions of the world and is the causative agent of what disease?
a. black water fever
b. filariasis
c. fasciolopsiasis
d. cytomegalic inclusion
e. guinea worm infection
filariasis
Psorophora bos has been reported only from:
a. Canada
b. United States
c. Mexico
d. Australia
e. Israel
United States
- Fowl plaque is caused by:
a. a type B influenza virus picornavirus
b. a type A influenza orthomyxovirus
c. an arborvirus
d. Yersinia multocida
e. Yersinia pestis
a type A influenza orthomyxovirus
In strongyloidiasis, the parasite Strongyloides stercoralis may undergo the heterogonic cycle when environmental conditions are favorable. The term heterogonic refers to:
a. direct development to 3rd states infective larvae
b. development of free living males and females which subsequently produce infective larvae
c. larval development to nymphal stage on skin of host
d. development of miracidium into sprocyst in snail
e. activation of embryo by action of digestive enzymes
development of free living males and females which subsequently produce infective larvae
The base of the insecticide commonly used for destruction of mites which cause scabies on domestic animals:
a. pyrethrum
b. rotenone
c. benzene hexachloride
d. carbon tetrachloride
e. carbon disulfide
rotenone
- A general measure which is customarily recommended as being the most effective method for the prevention of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever in the US is:
a. eradication of ticks
b. burning over of tick infested areas
c. personal care in avoiding tick infested areas
d. dipping of domestic stock
e. poisoning of rodents
personal care in avoiding tick infested areas
- “Creeping eruption” or “larval migrans” results most frequently form the presence in the epidermis of man of larvae of the:
a. tropical warble fly (Dermatobia hominis)
b. strongyloid threadworm (Strongyloides stercoralis)
c. ox warble fly (Hypoderma lineate)
d. dog hookworm (Ancylostoma caninum)
e. dog and cat hook worm (Ancylostoma brazilinse)
dog and cat hook worm (Ancylostoma brazilinse)
Which one of the following parasites is correctly paired with the pathological manifestation it causes?
a. Fasciola hepatica – enchanced production of toxins of Clostridium novvi, causing Black Disease
b. Ascaris lumbricoides – extraction of blood from the host
c. Haemonchus contortus – choledochitis
d. Multiceps multiceps – nodular formation in cecum and colon
e. Oesophagostomum columbianum - aneurysms in anterior mesenteric artery
Multiceps multiceps – nodular formation in cecum and colon
- A relatively mild disease of man, which resembles chicken pox, but which is acquired from contact with mice and rodent mite vectors is:
a. Chagas’ disease
b. Rickettsial pox
c. Rubella
d. Toxoplasmosis
e. Q-fever
Rickettsial pox
- Myxomytosis in rabbits is:
a. transmissible by ectoparasites
b. a result of thyroid malfunction
c. caused by virus antigenically related to small pox
d. uniformly fatal
e. found mainly in Uruguay
caused by virus antigenically related to small pox
- In which one of the following epidemiological combinations have rickettsial agents of animals and man been found?
a. rat – flea –murine typhus
b. rat –flea – Q-fever
c. rat – louse – scrub typhus
d. cow- flea – Rocky Spotted Mountain Fever
e. mouse – tick – rickettsial pox
rat – flea –murine typhus
Dourine is caused by a species of trypanosome called:
a. Trypansoma equinum
b. Trypansoma eqiperdum
c. Trypansoma vivax
d. Trypansoma congolense
e. Trypansoma evansi
Trypansoma eqiperdum
Suckling mice are the best choice for isolating viruses of which of the following groups?
a. paramyxoviruses
b. arenaviruses
c. poxviruses
d. rotaviruses
e. togaviruses
arenaviruses
Intracellular virus:
a. can only be neutralized by 19S antibody
b. can be inactivated by phagocytised anti-DNA antibody
c. can have its phenotypic markers altered significantly by IG D
d. can readily be absorbed by non-neutralizing IG E
e. cannot be influenced by specific antibody
cannot be influenced by specific antibody
A positive serum neutralization test would indicate that the animal had:
a. the disease a the time the specimen was taken
b. previously shown symptoms of the disease
c. been vaccinated at least 5 years ago
d. not had the disease at any time in the past
e. been infected with the specific disease entity
been infected with the specific disease entity
- Tissue culture techniques are extremely useful in the isolation of viral agents from
field cases because:
a. they permit identification of the virus by the type of cytopathogenic effect
produced
b. the type of inclusion body produced is of diagnostic value
c. they provide readily available homologous and heterlogous hosts, devoid of antibody, for growth of the virus
d. tissue cultures are more resistant to non-specific toxic reactions than intact animals
e. they permit the selective growth of one viral agent at a time
they permit identification of the virus by the type of cytopathogenic effect
produced
Which of the following groups consists wholly of virus-induced diseases?
a. Q-fever (man); cowpox, distemper (feline); ecthyma (sheep); rabies
b. ecthyma (sheep); infectious hepatitis (dog); cowpox, bluetongue; rabies
c. atrophic rhinitis (swine); Q-fever; distemper (dog); rabies; vesicular exanthema
d. bluetongue (sheep); fowlpox; rabies; erysipelas (swine); leptospirosis
e. leptospirosis; infectious anemia (horses); distemper (dog); bluetongue; Q-fever (man)
ecthyma (sheep); infectious hepatitis (dog); cowpox, bluetongue; rabies
- Vesicular exanthema has been diagnosed in a group of 150 market-weight hogs.
The entire herd has been placed under written quarantine. The quarantine may be
lifted when:
a. symptoms have not been observed for 30 days
b. all hogs have been given antivesicular exanthema antiserum
c. grain-fed hogs are added to the herd and the disease is not transmitted
d. all hogs have received cooked garbage or grain exclusively, and 30 days have elapsed since the last symptoms were observed
e. all hogs have been slaughtered, the meat has been specially processed, and the premises have been cleaned and disinfected
all hogs have been slaughtered, the meat has been specially processed, and the premises have been cleaned and disinfected