Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Med Finals - Medicine > Infectious disease > Flashcards

Infectious disease Flashcards

1
Q

What are the categories bacteria can fall in to

A

Aerobic and anaerobic
Gram positive and negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

A

Aerobic bacteria require oxygen to respire. Anaerobic do not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define gram positive and gram negative bacteria

A

Gram positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall that stains with crystal violet stain.
Gram negative bacteria do not have this thick wall and don’t satin violet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Examples of gram positive cocci

A

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Enterococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Examples of gram positive rods

A

Corney Mike’s list of basic cars
Corneybacteria
Mycobateria
Listeria
Bacillus
Nocardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Examples of Gram positive anaerobes

A

CLAP
Clostridium
Lactobacillus
Actinomyces
Propionibacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Examples of gram negative bacteria

A

Most of them
Neisseria meningitis
Neidderia gonorrhoea
Haemophilia influenza
E. coli
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Moraxella catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define atypical bacterria

A

Bacteria that cannot be cultures or detected using gram staining.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Examples of atypical bacteria

A

Legions of psittaci MCQs
Legionella pneuophila
Chlamydia psittaci
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Chlamydydophila pneumoniae
Q fever (coxiella burneti)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define MRSA

A

Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus
Bacteria that have become resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics such as penicillin’s, cephalosporins and carbapenems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Antibiotic treatment options for MRSA

A

Doxy
Clindamycin
Vancomycin
Teicoplanin
Linezolid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define ESBLs

A

Extended spectrum beta lactamase bacteria
Bacteria that have developed resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics as they produce beta-lactamase enzymes that destroy it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Abx options for ESBLs

A

Carbapenems - meropenem or imipenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the main types of antibiotic

A

Bacteriostatic
Bacteriocidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define bacteriostatic

A

Abx that stop the reproduction and growth of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define bacteriocidal

A

Abx that kill the bacteria directly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Examples of antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis

A

Beta-lactams - Penicillin, carbapenems (meropenem), cephaosporins ()
Not beta-lactams - Vancomycin, teicoplanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Examples of antibiotics that inhibit folic acid metabolism

A

Trimethoprim
Sulfamethoxaole
Co-trimoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the action of metronidazole

A

Nucleic acid synthesis inhibition - effective against anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Examples of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis by targeting ribosomes

A

Macrolides - erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin
Clindamycin
Tetracyclines - Doxycycline
Gentamicin
Chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What other classes of abx can penicillin allergic patients not have

A

Cephalosporins
Carbapenems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Common causes of pneimonia

A

Streptococcus pneumonia - 50%
Haemophilus influenzae - 20%

23
Q

Antibiotics of choice in pneumonia

A

Amoxicillin

Erythromycin/clarithromycin
Doxycycline

Atypicals - macrolides (clarithromycin), quinolones (levofloxacin), tetracyclines (doxy)

24
Q

Most common causes of UTI

A

E. coli!

25
Q

Antibiotics of choice in UTI

A

Trimethoprim
Nitrofurantoin

Pivmecilinam
Amoxicillin
Cefalexin

26
Q

Define cellulitis

A

Infection of the skin and soft tissue underneath.

27
Q

Presentation of cellulitis

A

Erythema
Red
Hot
Swollen
Tense
Oedematous
Bullae - fluid filled blisters
Golden yellow crust - can indicate staph aureus

28
Q

Most common causes of cellulitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Group A STREPTOCOCCIS
Group C Sterptococcus
(MRSA)

29
Q

Most common causes of cellulitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Group A STREPTOCOCCIS
Group C Sterptococcus
(MRSA)

30
Q

Antibiotics of choice in cellulitis

A

Flucloxacillin

Clarithromycin
Clindamycin
Co-amoxiclav

31
Q

Who should get influenza vaccine

A

Aged >65
Young children
Pregnant women
Chronic health conditions - asthma, COPD, HF, Diabetes
Healthcare workers and carers

32
Q

Most common cause of bacterial meningitis

A

Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus)
Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)

Neonates - Group B strep

33
Q

Management of bacterial meningitis in the community

A

IM benzylpenicillin
<1 year - 300mg
1-9 years - 600mg
>10 years - 1200mg
Send to hospital!

34
Q

Management of bacterial meningitis in hospital

A

<3 months - cefotaxime plus amoxicillin
>3 months - ceftriaxone

Steroids reduce the frequency of hearing loss - dexamethasone

35
Q

What should close contacts of bacterial meningitis receive

A

Post exposure prophylaxis - prolonged contact within prior 7 days
Single doe ciprofloxacin

36
Q

Most common cause of viral meningitis

A

Herpes simplex virus
Entero virus
Varicella zoster virus

37
Q

What would the CSF sample show in bacterial meningitis

A

Appearance - cloudy
Protein - high
Glucose - low
WCC - High (neuts)
Culture - bacterial growth

38
Q

What would the CSF sample show in viral meningitis

A

Appearance - clear
Protein - mildly raised or normal
Glucose - normal
WCC - high (lymphocytes)
Culture - negative

39
Q

What colour does mycobacterium tuberculosis turn under what stain.

A

Bright red un Zeihl-Neelsen stain

40
Q

What test can be used to identify previous immune response to TB

A

Mantoux test

41
Q

Management of acute pulmonary TB

A

RIPE
Rifampicin - 6 months
Isoniazid - 6 months
Pyrazinamide - 2 months
Ethambutol - 2 months

42
Q

What should be additionally prescribed alongside isoniazid

A

Pyridoxine - vit B6
Causes peripheral neuropathy

43
Q

Side effects of rifampacin

A

Changes colour of secretions red
P450 induce!

44
Q

Side effects of isoniazid

A

Peripheral neuropathy - pyridoxine

45
Q

Side effects of pyrazinamide

A

Hyperuricaemia - gout!

46
Q

Side effects of ethambutol

A

Colour blindness and reduced visual acuity

47
Q

Define HIv

A

Human immunodeficiency virus

48
Q

Define AIDS

A

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

49
Q

Examples of AIDS defining illnesses

A

Associated with end stage HIV - low CD4 count allows atypical infection
Kaposi’s sarcoma
Pneumocystis jirovecii penumonia
Cytomegalovirus infection
Candidiasis
Lymphomas
Tuberculosis

50
Q

Examples of AIDS defining illnesses

A

Associated with end stage HIV - low CD4 count allows atypical infection
Kaposi’s sarcoma
Pneumocystis jirovecii penumonia
Cytomegalovirus infection
Candidiasis
Lymphomas
Tuberculosis

51
Q

Examples of AIDS defining illnesses

A

Associated with end stage HIV - low CD4 count allows atypical infection
Kaposi’s sarcoma
Pneumocystis jirovecii penumonia
Cytomegalovirus infection
Candidiasis
Lymphomas
Tuberculosis

52
Q

Management of HIV

A

Highly active anti-retrovirus therapy (HAART)
Protease inhibitors
Integrase inhibitors
Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Entry inhibitors

53
Q

When can PEP be started

A

Less than 72 hours post exposure

54
Q

Most common cause of malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum - also most sever

Med Finals - Medicine (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions