Infectious Disease 01 Flashcards

1
Q

What does S. aureus secrete that degrades ECM between host cells?

A

hyaluronidase

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2
Q

How do rabies, poliovirus and varicella spread to CNS?

A

by infecting peripheral nerves and then traveling along axons

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3
Q

Name some common respiratory pathogens?

A

influenza, M. tuberculosis

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4
Q

What organisms or defects can cause complement defects?

A

infections by encapsulated bacteria (S. pneumoniae), late MAC components (C5-C9): Neisseria infections

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5
Q

Cystic fibrosis can lead someone to becoming susceptible to infection with which organisms?

A

P. aeruginosa, S. aureus, and Burkholdaria cepacia

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6
Q

Sickle cell disease increases the susceptibility of individuals to infection by what organisms?

A

encapsulated bacterial like S. pneumoniae

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7
Q

Burns can cause a person to become susceptible to infection by what organisms?

A

P. aeurginosa

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8
Q

What are Category A agents?

A
  • highest risk, can be readily disseminated or transmitted from person to person, high mortality with potential for major public health impact
  • Smallpox
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9
Q

What are category B agents? (Give examples)

A

relatively easy to disseminate, moderate morbidity but low mortality

  • Brucella sp., Vibrio cholerae, and ricin toxin from castor beans
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10
Q

How is rubeola spread?

A

through respiratory droplets

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11
Q

Black Measles.

A

in malnourished children with poor medical care, may cause croup, pneumonia, diarrhea and protein-losing enteropathy, keratitis leading to scarring and blindness, encephalitis, and hemorrhagic rashes

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12
Q

Major late complication of measles.

A

SSPE subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis

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13
Q

What is Zika virus transmitted by?

A

Aedes mosquitos, primarily Aedes aegypti

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14
Q

Perinatal transmission of Zika can lead to what?

A

result in fetal death or moderate to severe brain defects in fetus and newborn child

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15
Q

What are common findings in newborn children with Zika infection?

A

microcephaly

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16
Q

Zika virus upon histology.

A

hinning of the brain parenchyma occurred, with microcalcifications and microglial nodules

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17
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Dengue?

A

Clinical manifestations of dengue
1. Breakbone fever: fever with headache, macular rash and severe myalgias
2. Dengue hemorrhagic fever: severe dengue with bleeding, liver failure, reduced consciousness, organ
failure, and plasma leakage leading to shock and respiratory distress

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18
Q

Pathology of Dengue.

A

infection of flavivirus transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes

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19
Q

Epidemiology of Dengue.

A

common in tropical and subtropical regions

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20
Q

What are the 8 types of human herpesviruses?

A

a-group viruses: HSV-1, HSV-2, and VZV
b group lymphocytic viruses: CMV, HHV-6, HHV-7
y-group viruses: EBC and KSHV/HHV-8
Herpesvirus simile (monkey B virus)

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21
Q

A group viruses have what effect?

A

infect epithelial cells and produce latent infection in neurons

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22
Q

How to b-group lymphotrophic virus act?

A

(exanthem subitum /roseola infantum/sixth disease, a benign rash of infants), HHV-7 (no known disease association), infect and produce latent infection in a variety of cell type

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23
Q

How to gamma group herpesviruses act?

A

latent infection mainly in lymphoid cells

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24
Q

Monkey B virus act?

A

Old World monkey virus, resembles HSV-1, fatal neurologic disease in animal handlers, usually from animal bite

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25
HSV-1 is a major cause of what complication? What lobes are of the brain are infected?
- major cause of corneal blindness – major cause of fatal sporadic encephalitis * temporal lobes and orbital gyri of the frontal lobes
26
Genital herpes is mainly caused by what type of herpes simplex virus?
mainly HSV-2
27
What is herpes epithelial keratitis?
virus-induced cytolysis of epithelium
28
What is herpes stromal keratitis?
immunologic run to the HSV infection
29
What is the lesion of chickenpox described as?
macular or vesicular lesion that appears as dewdrops on a rose peatal
30
How does Chickenpox appear on histology?
intraepithelial vesicles with intra-nuclear inclusions in epithelial cells at the base of the vesicles
31
CMV has what type of characteristic histology?
-prominent intranuclear basophilic inclusions Owl's eye appearance basophilic inclusions in cytoplasm
32
Compare and contrast HSV infection histology with CMV.
33
What are some conditions EBV is associated with?
* infectious mononucleosis * Immunodeficiency: B-cell neoplasms, Primary CNS lymphoma in HIV * Burkitt lymphoma: 8;14 chromosomal translocation - * Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Hodgkin lymphoma, and certain other rare non-Hodgkin lymphomas
34
What markers are expressed on EBV?
CD8
35
Lymph nodes are enlarged when a person is infected with EBV because of what reason?
expansion of para- cortical areas due to activation of T cells (immunoblasts)
36
In EBV what is the spleen susceptible to?
rupture
37
What skin lesions is Staph associated with?
impetigo, and scalded- skin syndrome are the major ones furuncles (or boils) carbuncle
38
Toxic shock syndrome is always caused by what organisms?
Staph S. pyogenes
39
What is the morphology of Staph?
pyogenic gram-positive cocci in clusters resembling a bunch of grapes
40
S epidermis is often found in what patients?
in catheterized patients, patients with prosthetic cardiac valves, and drug addicts
41
A chronic suppurative infection of the apocrine glands, mostly in the axilla that can be caused by Staph is called what?
hidradenitis
42
Paronychia
infections of the nail bed
43
Felons
infections on palmer side of fingertips
44
Lung infections
usually arise from a hematogenous source (infected thrombus) or predisposing condition (influenza) extensive necrosis
45
Epidemiology of Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome.
In children with S. aureus infection of the nasopharynx or skin
46
Another name for Scalded-skin Syndrome.
Ritter disease
47
What conditions can S. pyogenes (group A) lead to?
pharyngitis, scarlet fever, erysipelas, impetigo, rheumatic fever, toxic shock syndrome, and glomerulonephritis
48
What conditions can S. pneumonia lead to?
community-acquired pneumonia in older adults and meningitis in children and adults
49
What is the morphology of Diphtheria.
gram-positive rod with clubbed ends
50
What is a characteristic feature of infection by diphtheria and why does it happen?
pseudomembranous colitis a toxin mediated formation of gray pharyngeal membrane that can damage the heart
51
Listeriosis clinical features in pregnant women.
amnionitis resulting in abortion, stillbirth, or neonatal sepsis
52
Clinical features of Listeriosis in neonates and immunosuppressed adults?
disseminated disease (granulomatosis infantiseptica of the newborn) and exudative meningitis
53
What is pathognomonic of infection with Listeriosis?
* Gram-positive, mostly intracellular bacilli in the CSF is virtually diagnostic
54
What is the morphology of Listeriosis?
* Listeria monocytogenes: gram-positive bacillus causing severe food-borne infections in vulnerable hosts
55
What is anthrax caused by? (name of the pathogen)
bacillus anthracis
56
Describe the morpholgy of anthrax.
large, spore forming gram-positive rod- - shaped bacterium found in environment
57
What is the morphology of Nocardia?
aerobic gram-positive bacteria in soil, causing opportunistic infections arranged in branching filaments
58
Nocardia asteroids causes what typically?
respiratory infections
59
What type of stain can you use to ID Nocardia?
Nocardia stain with modified acid-fast stains (Fite-Faraco stain)
59
Who is at risk of becoming infected with Nocardia?
patients with defects in immunity due to prolonged steroid use, HIV infection, or diabetes mellitus
60
Histology of Nocardia?
suppuration with liquefaction, granulation tissue and fibrosis, No granulomas
61
What type of characteristic presentation is there in a patient infected with Nocardia brasiliensis?
skin infections
62
Who is at risk of becoming infected with Nocardia brailiensis?
this who have injuries in which they have been contaminated with soil