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Dermatology Boards > Infectious > Flashcards

Infectious Flashcards

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Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q

HPV

Type of Virus

A

dsDNA

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2
Q

HPV-virulence and growth factors

A

E1-7

E5,6,7 -> amplification

E6: destroys p53 (tumor suppressor)-> proliferation

E7: Binds to RB (stops inhibition of E2F)-> proliferation

L1-L2

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3
Q

Palmo/plantar warts

A

HPV 1, 2, 4, 27, 57

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4
Q

Flat warts

A

HPV- 3, 10, 28, 41

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5
Q

Butcher’s warts

A

HPV- 2, 7

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6
Q

Epidermodysplasia Verruciformis

A

HPV 5, 8 (associated with AK, SCC)

3, 9, 12, 14, 15, 17, 19, 25, 36, 38

Genetic Mutations EVER1 (TMC6) and EVER2 (TMC8)

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7
Q

Syndromes with HPV

A

Warts, Hypogammaglobulinemia, Infections, Myelokathexis (CXCR-4)

Warts, Immunodeficiency, Lymphedema, Dysplasia (anogenital)

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8
Q

Most Common STD

A

genital HPV

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9
Q

High Risk HPV

A

16, 18, 31, 33, 45

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10
Q

HPV Vaccines and Strains

A

Quadrivalent (6,11,16,18)

Nine Valent (6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58)

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11
Q

Epithelioma cuniculatum

A

HPV 2, 11, 16

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12
Q

Oral warts

A

HPV 6, 11

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13
Q

Heck’s disease

A

HPV-13, 32

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14
Q

Human Herpes Virus

A

linear dsDNA

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15
Q

herpetic sycosis

A

hsv folliculitis

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16
Q

HSV Laboratory Detection

A

PCR (most sensitive/specific)

Chowdry A inclusions on histology

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17
Q

HSV treatment

A

Suppressive thearpy if > 6 outbreaks per year

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18
Q

HHV-3

A

Varicella zoster virus

Transmission aerosolized droplets

chickenpox: crops in various stages

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19
Q

Congenital Varicella

A

First 20 weeks of gestation

CNS, ocular and limb abnormalities

VZIG for mom!

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20
Q

disseminated VZV

A

> 20 lesions outside a dermatome

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21
Q

Ramsay Hunt

A

Geniculate ganglion (facial nerve-VII)

tympanic membrane

facial paralysis

loss of taste anterior 2/3 of tongue

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22
Q

Hutchinson’s sign

A

V1 (nasociliary branch of CN-V)

Uveitis, keratitis (2)

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23
Q

Primary Varicella-Rx

A

Within 3 days of lesion onset

iv acyclovir for immunocompromised

oral in healthy children and adults

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24
Q

Varicella Post-Exposure Prophylaxis

A

Vaccination: 72-120 hours after exposure in non-immune immunocompetent

VZIg: within 96 hourse in immunosuppressed, pregnant and neonates

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25
Q

Varicella Zoster- Rx

A

Within 72 hours

decreased PHN in >50 years old w/ Rx

Vaccines also decrease PHN

steroids do not decrease PHN

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26
Q

HHV-4

A

Ebstein-Barr virus

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27
Q

EBV associated diseases

A

Infectious Mononucelosis

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia

Burkitt’s lymphoma?

Post-Transplant Lymphoproliferative Disorder

Extranodal NK cell lymphoma

Hydroavacciniforme

HV associated lymphoma

Gianotti Crosti

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28
Q

HHV-5

A

CMV

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29
Q

CMV-Diagnosis

A

Fibroblast Culture

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30
Q

EBV-Rx

A

None

CMV-Gancyclovir

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31
Q

HHV-6

A

Affects T-Cells

Roseola Infantum

Exanthum Subitum

Sixth Disease

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32
Q

HHV-7

A

a/w pityriasis rosea and some exanthem subitum

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33
Q

HHV-8

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

Multi-centric Castleman

Primary effusion lymphoma

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34
Q

Poxviruses

A

dsDNA

Smallpox (variola) (Orthopox)

Vaccinia (Orthopox)

Monkeypox (Orthopox)

Cowpox (Orthopox)

Orf (Parapox)

Paravaccinia (Parapox)= milker’s nodules

Molluscum (Molluscipox)

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35
Q

Chikungunya

A

ssRNA

Togaviridae

Aedes (vector)

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36
Q

Zika

A

ssRNA

Flaviviridae

Aedes

Timeline to conception for Traveling

Female (2 months)

Male (3 months)

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37
Q

Dengue

A

ssDNA

Flavivirdae

Aedes

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38
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Trichodysplasia spinulosa

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39
Q

CMV and HSV

A

Colonizer of HSV lesions if CD4 < 50

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40
Q

Differential for Molluscum like lesion

A

Cryptococcus

Coccidioides

Histoplasmosis

Penicillium marneffei

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41
Q

HIV

CD4 < 200

A

KS

Eosinophillic folliculitis

Apthae

bacillary angiomatosis

disseminated coccidiomycosis

histoplasmosis

crusted scabies

CD 4< 100

cryptococcus

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42
Q

HIV CD4 < 500

A

psoriasis

herpes zoster

HPV

HSV

staph

candida

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43
Q

HIV CD4 > 500

A

Seborrheic dermatitis

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia

Vaginal candidiasis

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44
Q

Anti-retroviral lipodystrophy

A

protease inhibitors (-navir)

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45
Q

Bullous Impetigo

A

S. Aureus

phage group II (types 55 and 71)

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46
Q

Impetigo

A

S. aureus > Strep pyogenes

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47
Q

Gram negative folliculitis Rx

A

isotretinoin

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48
Q

Abscesses, furuncles, carbuncles

culprit?

A

S. aureus

commonly MRSA

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49
Q

MRSA factoids

A

Resistance mechanism:

mecA gene (encodes PBP2a)

Virulence factor (Panton-Valentine leukocidin)

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50
Q

SSSS

A

phage group II (types 55 and 71)

encodes exfoliatoxin A and B -> cleavage of DSG1

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51
Q

S-TSS

Pathogenesis

A

Syndrome: High fever, rash, hypotension

Blood Cultures often negative

Mortality (3-20%) vs Strep TSS (30-60%)

TSST-1: superantigen (VB region on TCR) which leands to nonspecific T-Cell activation and cytokine storm

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52
Q

Pyomyositis

A

S. Aureus skeletal muscle infection

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53
Q

Ecthyma

A

Strep pyogenes

Punched out ulcers

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54
Q

Group A Strep

A

Strep pyogenes

Strep dysgalactiae

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55
Q

Perianal Strep treatment of choice

A

cefuroxime

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56
Q
A

Blistering distal dactylitis

S. pyogenes > S. aureus

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57
Q

Scarlet fever: TOC

A

penicillin, erythromycin (if pcn allergic)

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58
Q

Strep TSS

A

Primary source=skin infection (eg necrotizing fasciitis)

Strep A, B, C pyrogenic toxins

Superantigens

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59
Q

Meleney’s gangrene

A

postoperative nec fasc: polymicrobial

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60
Q

Erythrasma

A

C. minnitissum

coproporphyrin III (coral)

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61
Q

Trichomycosis axillaris

A

C. tenuis

Rx: shaving or topical erythromyin

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62
Q

C. perfringens

toxins

A

Gram + rod (anaerobic)

a-toxin (lipid cleavage)

perfringolysin (vascular clots)

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63
Q

Actinomycosis

treatment of choice

A

Non-acid fast

penicillin G or ampicillin

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64
Q

Nocardia

Treatment of Choice

A

weakly acid fast

sulfonamides

Mneumonic: SNAP: sulfonamides=nocardia, actinomyces=penicillin

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65
Q

Actinomycotic mycetoma

causes

A

Nocardia most common cause > actinomyces

N brasilienis in mexico and S. America

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66
Q

Anthrax

A

Gram + spore forming rod

Rx for cutaneous anthrax (fluoroquinolones, doxycycline)

Virulence factors:

  • capsule (poly-d-glutamic acid)
  • Lethal toxin (TNF-a, IL-1B)
  • Edema toxin (cAMP-> edema)
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67
Q

Erysipeloid

A

erysipelothrix (gram positive rod)

Fisherman, poultry/fish handlers

Rx: penicillin, cipro (if pcn allergic)

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68
Q

Listeria

A

motile gram + rod

neonatal sepsis

Rx: ampicillin, tmp-sulfa

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69
Q

Green Nails

A

pyocyanin (pseudomonas)

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70
Q

Pseudomonal folliculitis

Treatment

A

spontaneously resolves within weeks

immunocompromosed or generalized (fluoroquinolone)

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71
Q

diagnosis?

A

Pseudomonas Hot Foot Syndrome

Red nodules on weight-bearing areas after wading in pools of water

Rx: spontaneous resolution

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72
Q

B. bacilliformis

A

Cause of Carrions/Oroya fever/verruga peruana

transmission: sandfly (lutzomayia)

Death 2/2 salmonella bacteremia

Rx:

Oroyo fever: chloramphenicol

Verruga Peruana: rifampin/streptomycin

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73
Q

Bartonella culture

A

chocolate agar

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74
Q

Diagnosis?

Rx

A

Bacillary Angiomatosis

B. henslea and B. quintana

HIV, CD4 <200

Rx: Erythromycin

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75
Q

Intracellular gram negative rods

A

Bartonella

Rickettsia

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76
Q

Cat Scratch Disease

A

young people

immunocompetent> immunocompromised

Rx: Spontaneously resolves (aka no rx)

For severe/complicated: doxy + rifampin

Vector: C. felis (cat flea)

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77
Q

B. quintana

Rx

A

Trench fever

Rx: doxycycline + aminoglycoside

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78
Q

Ricketsia rickettsii

A

RMSF

Vector: Dermacentor

Rx: Doxy, even for children

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79
Q

Rickettsia conorii

A

Mediterranean spotted fever

Conor sounds like a european name!!

doxy

if mild, children: azithro, clarithromycin

Vector: Rhipicephalus (brown dog tick)

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80
Q

Rickettsia akari

A

Rickettsiapox

Liponyssoides (house mouse mite)

papulovesicle-> eschar -> papulovesicles with hemorrhagic crusts

Rx: None

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81
Q

Ricketsia prowazeki

A

Epidemic Typhus

Vector: human body louse

Rx: doxy

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82
Q

Ricketsia typhi

A

Endemic typhus (murine)

Rat flea (Xenopsylla cheopis)

Cat flea typhus (C. felis-> same as bartonella henslea)

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83
Q

Orientia tsutsugamushi

A

Scrub typhus

Cigers (thrombiculid mites)

Rx: Doxy

Preg: Azithromycin

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84
Q

Ricketsial Diseases without Eschar

A

Endemic typhus

RMSF

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85
Q

Name?

Disease?

A

Amblyomma (lone star)

Ehrlichia (infects monocytes and macrophages)

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86
Q

Tick?

Disease?

A

Ixodes

Lyme, Anaplasma, Bebesia

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87
Q

Coxiella Burnetii

A

Q fever

Atypical pneumonia or granulomatous hepatitis occurring occasionally.

Chronic Q fever most often manifests as “culture-negative” endocarditis affecting a previously damaged heart valve

aerosols from sheep and cattle

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88
Q

Gram negative diplococcus and coccobacillus

A

Dipococcus

N. meningitidis

Coccobacillus

Brucella

Francisella tularemia

H. influenzae

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89
Q

Meningococcemia

Treatment of Choice

A

1) Penicillin

Prophylaxis for contacts with: azithromycin, cipro, rifampin

Virulence factor: polysaccharide capsule

Endotoxin-> shock and purpura fulminans

In US types B, C, and Y are most common

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90
Q

Malta Fever

A

Brucellosis

Unpasturized milk, inhalation

Rx: Doxy + (streptomycin, rifampin, TMP/SMX, etc)

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91
Q

Glanders

A

Burkholderia mallei

infected horses

1) Localized-> papulopustule
2) Chronic -> soft tissue nodules

Rx: 60-150 day amox/clav, doxy, TMP/SMX

3) Septicemic
4) Pulmonary

Rx: Carbapenem+ cipro or doxy

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92
Q

Meliodosis

A

B. pseudomallei

Contaminated water and soil

Risk factors: DM, alcohol, IVDU

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93
Q

Malakoplakia

A

E. Coli

Histology:

Von Hansemann cells (macrophages)

Michaelis-Gutmann bodies (basophilic inclusions)

Rx: Surgery

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94
Q

Michaelis-Gutmann bodies

A

Malakoplakia

Stain with von Kossa, PAS, Perls, Giemsa

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95
Q

Tularemia

treatment of choice

A

most common is ulceroglandular (transmitted via tick bite)

streptomycin

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96
Q

H influenza in children

A

cellulitis

Rx: ceftriaxone

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97
Q

Diagnosis, Treatment, Etc

A

Rhinoscleroma

Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis

transmitted via inhalation

Mikulicz cells (large vacuolated histiocytes)

Russell bodies

Stain with Warthin-starry and Giemsa

Rx: tetracycline (6 months)

98
Q

Salmonella typhi

treatment

A

cipro? adults

ceftriaxone in children

99
Q

Streptobacillus moniliformis

A

rat-bite fever

fever, migratory polyarthritis, acral rash

Rx: penicillin

100
Q

Gram negative bipolar bacillus

A

yersinia pestis (plague)

Rx: streptomycin or gentamicin

Post-exposure: doxycycline or ciprofloxacin

101
Q

Vibrio vulnificus

A

shellfish

Risk Factors: liver disease, diabetes, ESRD

1) cutaneous
2) septicemia

Rx: doxy+ceftriaxone

102
Q

Bite most likely to get infected

A

human

103
Q

dog bite pathogens

A

pasteurella multocida, pasteurella canis, capnocytophaga canimorsus

104
Q

cat bite pathogens

A

pasteurella multocida

105
Q

human bite

A

eikenella corrodens, S. aureus,

106
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi

A

lyme disease

vector: ixodes

Rx: doxy in adults

amoxicillin in children and pregnancy

107
Q

B. afzelli

A

Vector: ixodes ricinus (europe)

borrelial lymphocytoma

acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans

108
Q

Borellia recurrentis

A

Louse-borne relapsing fever (Africa)

macular petechial rash with paroxsymal fever, flu like

Rx; doxy

109
Q

Borellia duttonii, hermsii

A

Tick-borne relapsing fever

Vector: ornithodoros

like tick-borne, but less severe, fewer relapses

110
Q

Parrot’s pseudoparalysis

A

Early congenital syphillis ( < 2 years old)

snuffles, dactylisits, epiphysitis, hepatitis

111
Q

Higoumenakis syndrome

A

unilateral enlargement of the clavicle in:

Late congenital syphillis > 2 yo

keratitis, optic atrophy, corneal opacities

Vestibulocochlear nerve deafness (VIII)

rhagades

mulberry molars, Hutchinson’s teeth

Clutton’s joints

112
Q

chancre

A

primary syphillis

incubation period (10-90 days)

113
Q

Timing for secondary syphillis

A

3-10 weeks after primary

clears in 3-12 weeks

Signs to remember:

split papules (perleche)

mucous patches of oropharynx

necklace of venus (hypopigmented patches on neck)

114
Q

Argyll-Robertson pupils

A

Tertiary syphillis

gummas, aortitis

tabes dorsalis (destruction of nerves in dorsal collumn of the spine), paresis

115
Q

Treponemal tests

A

FTA- ABS, MHA-TP

most senstive and specific

positive later than non-treponemal (~ 3 weeks after infection)

116
Q

Non-treponemal tests

A

RPR, VDRL

positive within 1-2 weeks

Can be used to monitor therapy

More risk of false positive

117
Q

Tuberculous chancre

A

red painless nodule

spontaneously heals over 3-12 months

key is no immunity to TB

118
Q

Innoculated TB

A

Tuberculosis verruca cutis

verrucous nodule, slowly growing

Most common form of cutaneous TB

Results from innoculation

Previously infected with TB (moderate to high immunity)

119
Q

Diagnosis

Pathogenesis

A

Lupus Vulgaris

Endogenous spread (contiguous, hematogenous, lymphatic)

“apply jelly” on diascopy

moderate to high immunity

120
Q

Diagnosis?

Pathogenesis?

A

Scrofuloderma

Draining sinus tracts and fluctuant nodules, tethered appearance

Contiguous spread

Low immunity

121
Q

Patient with chronic cough productive of bloody sputum

A

Orificial tuberculosis

autoinnoculation of mucosa adjacent to active TB infection

advanced TB with poor cell mediated immunity

122
Q

Miliary Tuberculosis

A

Immunosuppressed

Cutaneous involvement with pinpoint blue-red crusty papules

123
Q

Tuberculous Gumma

A

Hematogenous dissemination

deep nodule that ulcerates

124
Q

Tuberculosis Treatment

A

Rifampin

Isoniazid

Pyrazinamide

Ethambutol

125
Q

Diagnosis?

Rx?

A

Chancroid

H. ducreyi (gram negative coccobacilli)

painful purulent ulcer with ragged borders, kissing ulcers + LAD

Histo: school of fish on giemsa

Rx: azithro?

126
Q

Diagnosis?

Rx?

A

Granuoma Inguinale (Donovanosis)

Klebsiella granulomatis (gram negative rod)

Incubation period is 17 days

Beefy red painless ulcer +/- LAD

Azithromycin wekly for 3 weeks

127
Q

Diagnosis?

Rx?

A

Lymphogranuloma venerum

Chlamydia trachomitis (L1-3)

Stage 1: 3-12 days after exposure, ulcer

Stage 2: buboes and groove sign

Stage 3: proctocolitis

gamma-favre bodies (inclusions in macrophages with giemsa)

Rx: Doxycycline

128
Q

Culture Medium for Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Thayer-Martin Medium

Other things to know, must give dual Rx because of co-infection with chlamydia

If positive chlamydia, but negative for gonorrhea then only treat for chlamydia (azithro/doxy)

129
Q

Cellular immunity in lepromatous leprosy

A

TH2 (aka anti-body mediated, aka CD4> CD8)

130
Q

Immune response in Tuberculoid Leprosy

A

TH-1 (aka cell-mediated, CD8)

destroys nerves with disease (no sensation in plaques)

No bacilli in lesions

131
Q

Type 1 Reversal Reaction

A

Symptoms: ulceration of skin lesions

dangerous neuritis

Highest risk in BL> BB, BT

Can be either downgrading (toward TH2) or upgrading (toward cell mediated immunity)

132
Q

Erythema nodosum leprosum

A

Type II

Th2 mediated immune reaction

immune complexes -> vasculitis, EN like lesions

Highest risk with LL and BL forms

133
Q

Multibacially Leprosy Treatment

A

rifampicin, dapsone, clofazimine

134
Q

Paucibacillary Leprosy treatment

A

rifampicin, dapsone (6 months)

single lesion: rifampicin, ofloxacin, minocycline (1 dose)

135
Q

patient whose hobby is fish

A

Mycobacterium marinum

grows at 31 celsius

Rx: clarithromycin; rifampin/ethambutol, minocycline, TMP-SMX

136
Q

Rapid Growing Mycobacteria

A

M. fortuitum, chelonae, abscessus

137
Q

Slow Growing Mycobacteria

A

M. kansasii, marinum, simiae, avium-intercellulare, ulcerans, bovis

138
Q

Endothrix Tinea Capitis

A

Ringo Gave Yoko Two Squeaky Violins

Trichophyton: rubrum, gourvilli yaounde, tonsurans, soudanese/schoenleinii, violaceum

139
Q

Fluorescent Ectothrix

A

Cats and Dogs Fight and Growl Sometimes

Microsporum canis, audouinii, distortum, ferrugineum, gypseum, T. schoenleinii

140
Q

Number 1 cause tinea capitis US

A

T. tonsurans

141
Q

Number 1 cause tinea capitis world wide

A

M. canis

142
Q

Cause of Favus

A

T. schoenleinii> M gypseum, T. violaceum

yellow cup-shaped crusts (scutula)

143
Q

Kerion

A

M. Canis

T. verrucosum

T. mentag

T. tonsurans

144
Q

Majocchi cause

A

T. rubrum

145
Q

Tinea corporis cause

A

T. rubrum

zoophilic: T. verrucosum, M. canis

146
Q

Tinea barbae

A

T. verrucosum, T. mentag, T. tonsurans, M. canis

147
Q

Tinea faceii

A

M. canis, T. mentag > T. rubrum

148
Q

Tinea cruris

A

T. rubrum > E. floccosum, T. interdigitale

149
Q

tinea pedis

A

T. Rubrum

150
Q

Bullous tinea pedis

A

T. mentag

151
Q

Mocassin Tinea Pedis

A

E. floccosum

152
Q

Onychomycosis

A

T. rubrum

153
Q

Proximal White Onychomycosis Cause

A

T. rubrum

154
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Striate superficial white

Adults (T. mentag)

Children (T. rubrum)

155
Q

Anthropophilic Dermatophytes

A

Trichophyton ( except mentag and verrucosum)

E. floccosum

M. audouinii

M. ferrungineum

156
Q

Zoophilic Dermatophytes

A

M. canis

M. nanum (pigs)

T. verrucosum (cattle)

T. mentag (rodents)

157
Q

KOH

A

breaks down keratin

158
Q

Chlorazol black E

A

chitin stain

159
Q

Calcuofluor white

A

chitin stain (blue or green)

160
Q

GMS

A

fungal stain (black)

161
Q

Rx T. tonsurans

A

terbinafine more effective

162
Q

Microsporum species

A

griseofulvin more effective

163
Q

Culture of Malassezia

A

olive oil

164
Q

Hypopigmentation with malassezia

A

azelaic acid inhibits melanocytes

165
Q

Piedra hortae

A

black piedra

166
Q

Trichosporon asahii

A

white piedra

can disseminate in immunocompromised

Formerly T. beigelii

Other species: T. ovoides, T. inkin, T. cutaneum

167
Q

Hortaea werneckii

A

Tinea nigra

168
Q

Treatment for sporothrix

A

Itraconazole

Amphotericin B if disseminated

169
Q

Sporotrichoid spread

A

No SALT

Nocardia

Sporotrichosis

Atypical Mycobacteria

Leishmaniasis

Tularemia

170
Q

Lacazia

A

species that causes lobomycosis (loboa loboi)

Rx: surgical excision

171
Q

Madurella

Pseudallescheria boydii

Exophiala jeanselmei

Acremonium

A

Causes of Eumycetoma

172
Q

White Grains

A

N. brasiliensis (#1 cause)

N. asteroides

173
Q

Red grains

A

Actinomadura pelletieri

174
Q

Yellow-brown grains

A

Streptomyces somaliensis

175
Q

Fonsecaea pedrosoi

A

Most common cause of Chromoblastomycosis

176
Q

Other causes of chromoblastomycosis

A

fonsecaea

Rhinocladiella

Phialophora

Cladophialophora

Compact – Fonsecaea compacta

Dead – Cladosporium carrionii

Wet – Rhinocladiella aquaspersa

Warty – Phialophora verrucosa

Feet – Fonsecaea pedrosoi

177
Q

Medlar bodies

A

Copper pennies

178
Q

Inhalation of Bird and Bat Feces

A

Histoplasmosis

Ohio and Mississippi River Valley

Rx: Itraconazole, amphotericin B

179
Q

Fungus associated with soil/clearning brush

A

Blastomycosis

Rx Itraconazole/amphotericin B

180
Q

South America

A

Paracoccidiomycosis

Granulomatous Ulcerative and Perioral involvement in 70%

Men>>> Women

Rx: TMP/SMX

Itraconazole

181
Q
A

Coccidioides immitis

large (up to 100 um spherules)

182
Q

Resistant Candida strains

A

C. glabrata, C. krusei

183
Q

Associated with pigeons

A

Cryptococcus

Stains: India ink, PAS, mucicarmine, GMS

184
Q

Septate hyphae with 45 degree angle

A

Aspergillus

A. flavus is more commonly primar cutaneous disease

A. fumigatus is more commonly secondary cutaneous disease

185
Q

Fusarium solani

A

45 degree angle branching

No caspofungins for Rx

186
Q

Penicillium

A

intracellular

similar in appearance to histoplasmosis

bamboo rat exposure

molluscum-like lesions

187
Q

Zygomyces Species

A

Mucorales: Rhizopus, Rhizomucor, Absidia, Mucor

Entomophthorales: Conidiobolus (rare chronic infections in the tropics

188
Q

Phaeohypomycosis

A

diatemaceous (pigmented brown, + fontana-mason)

Most commonly associated with a cystic lesions, subcutaneous, draining

Exophiala (#1 cause)

Wangiella

Alternaria

Phialophora

Curvularia

Rx: Itraconazole

189
Q

Diagnosis

A

Protothecosis

Algae

Clinical presentation can mimic olecranon bursitis

Rx: excision and amphotericin

190
Q

Diagnosis

A

Rhinosporidiosis

protozoa

fish parasite (contaminated water)

friable red-purple, soft, lubulated, mucosal polyps

Rx: excision

191
Q

malathion

A

flammable

192
Q

Diagnosis

A

Tungiasis

Surgical removal/ivermectin

193
Q

Visceral Leishmaniasis, Causes

A

L. donovani

L. infantum

L. chagasi

194
Q

Mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis

A

L. brazilensis (L. amazonensis, L. panamensis, guyanensis)

195
Q

Diffuse Cutaneous Leishmaniasis

A

L. amazonensis

L. aethiophica

196
Q

Rx cutaneous and mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

A

Pentavalent antimony

197
Q

Visceral leishmaniasis

A

Amphotericine B

198
Q

East African Sleeping Sickness

A

T. rhodiense (acute form, severe neuro, fatality hight)

Animal reservoir

Vector: Tsetse fly

chancre-> LAD -> neurochanges

Rx: suramin

199
Q

West African Sleeping Sickness

A

T. brucei gambiense

chronic form, slower progression, less death

Rx: pentamidine

200
Q

Trypanosomar cruzi

A

chagas

reduvid (triatomine)

Romannas sign

Rx: benznidazole, nifurtimox

201
Q

South America

Diagnosis

A

Chiclero’s ulcer

Cutaneous leishmaniasis

L. mexicana

202
Q

Toxoplasmosis Rx

A

sulfadiazine, pyrimethamine

203
Q

Edwardsiella lineata

Linuche unguiculata

A

Sea Anemone and Jellyfish

Seabathers eruption

204
Q

How you acquire dracunculiasis

A

ingesting water infected with the cyclops water flea, copepod stage

205
Q

Hint, It is an amoeba

A

Balamuthia

206
Q

Solenopsis

A

Fire Ants

Toxin: solenopsin D (piperidine alkaloid)

207
Q

Hymenoptera

A

Bees/wasps

Tocin: phospholipase A

208
Q

Cimex lectularius

A

bed bug

209
Q

Lyatta vesicatoria

A

Blister beetles

cantharidin

210
Q

Xenopsylla cheopis

A

Rat flea

R. typhi

Y. pestis

211
Q

Ctenocephalides felis and canis

A

cat flea

Bartonella henslea

Bartonella quintana

212
Q
A

Megalopyge opercularis (Pus!)

tram-track hemorrhage +/- systemic symptoms, edema, hives

213
Q
A

Io

Automeris io

Burning, Urticarial dermatitis

214
Q
A

Gypsy Moth

Lymantria dispar

Histamine in hair

Can also be in air

215
Q
A

Saddleback

Sibine stimulea

220
Q

Ornithodorus

A

B. duttonii (tick borne relapsing fever)

221
Q

Dermacentor

A

RMSF

Tularemia

Ehrlychiosis/Anaplasmosis

Tick Paralysis

222
Q

Ixodes

A

Lyme, Anaplasmosis, babesiosis

223
Q

Amblyoma

A

Ehrlychiosis, Tularemia, African Tick Bite Fever

224
Q

Allodermanyssus sanguineus

A

R. akari

225
Q

Dermatophagoides

A

dust mite

226
Q

Dermanyssus

Ornithonyssus

A

Vector for wester equine encephalitis

227
Q

Cheyletiella

A

Walking dandruff (dogs and cats)

228
Q

Phidippus formosus

A

Jumping Spider

Toxin: hyaluronidase

no systemic symptoms

229
Q

Lycosidae

A

wolf spider

8 eyes

Toxin: histamine

230
Q

Cheiracanthium

A

yellow sac spider

Toxin: lipase

231
Q

Tegenaria agrestis

A

Hobo spider

Painless bite, local necrosis

232
Q

Peucetia viridans

A

Green lynx

painful bite, no systemic symptoms

233
Q

Acarus siro

A

Grain Mite (Baker’s itch)

234
Q

Glyciphagus

A

Cheese mite (Grocer’s Itch)

235
Q

Lactrodectus

A

black widow

a-lactrotoxin (depolarizes neurons)

chills, abdominal pain, rhabdo, sweating, shock

236
Q

Loxosceles

A

brown recluse

toxin: sphingomyelinase D (reason for the large eschar_

238
Q

Viperidae/Crotalidae

A

copperheads

Rattlesnakes

thrombin like glycoproteins

243
Q

Theraphosidae

A

tarantula

Urticating hairs-> opthalmia nodosa

244
Q

Centruroides

A

Scorpions

245
Q

Chilopodo

Scolopendra

A

Centipedes

Two puncture wounds

Systemic symptoms similar to spider

246
Q

Diplopoda

A

millipedes

chemical irritant contact dermatitis

247
Q

Elapidae

A

coral snake

red on yellow kills a fellow

a-neurotoxin

phospholipase a2

249
Q

Chronex fleckeri

A

Pacific box jellyfish

Can cause shock and associated fatality

250
Q

Pysalia

A

Portuguese man of war

hemorrhagic and vesicular skin lesions

toxin produces cardiac disturbance and paralysis

Dermatology Boards (7 decks)

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