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Certifying Examination > Infectious > Flashcards

Infectious Flashcards

1
Q

Which percentage of seropositive Lyme dogs present clinical disease?

A

<3%

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2
Q

Which antigens are detected by AccuPlex4?

A
  • OspA (p31): vaccines, but also in natural infection
  • OspC: natural infection (increase in 2-3w but decrease in 3-5m), but can also be present in some news vaccines
  • OspF: natural infection (increase in 2-3m and persist long term)
  • p39: specially naturally expressed, but can also be present in some vaccines
  • SLP
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3
Q

Which is the medical treatment for tuberculosis micobacteriosis?

A

2m combination of ryphampicin + fluorquinolone + azthromicine
Next 4-6m ryphampicin + fluorquinolone/azythromicine

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4
Q

Which is one of the muscles more resistant to botulism?

A

Diaphragm

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5
Q

Which is the toxin responsible of the Botulism?

A

BoNT-C

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6
Q

Which potential transmission routes for Bartonella exist?

A
  • Vector transmission:
    —- Ctenocephalides felis: main via
    —- Ticks?
  • Non vector transmission:
    —- Blood transfusion
    —- Inoculation
    —- Vertical (no horizontal)
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7
Q

Which is the prevalence of endocarditis due to Bartonella?

A

20-30%

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8
Q

Which are the potential diganostic methods for Bartonella?

A
  • Indirect methods: PCR and routine culture
    —- Low S due to low number of bacteria and intermitent bacteremia (higher S in cats because higher bacteremia and more persistent)
    –> to increase S: special cultures combined with PCR: BAPGM ePCR
    —- High E but not 100% for clinical disease (because the presence of the bacteria doesn’t indicate clinical disease)
  • Indirect methods: serology
    —- Low S in acute phases
    —- Low E because positivity doesn’t indicate disease
    –> to increase: paired serology

DOGS:
1. Tissue –> BAPGM ePCR
2. Blood/effusion (abdominal/pleura > AH > CSF/pericardial) –> BAPGM ePCR or PCR and paired serology
3. Blood/effusion –> PCR and paired serology

CATS:
1. Blood –> BAPGM ePCR + paired serology
2. Blood –> PCR + paired serology

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9
Q

Which is the most common hepatic enzyme affected in Leptospira?

A

Increase ALP

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10
Q

Which is the E of a positive Leptospira urine PCR?

A

80% (20% of healthy dogs can excrete Lepto in urine)

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11
Q

Which is the incubation period of Leptospira?

A

2-14d

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12
Q

Which are the supportive and the confirmatory criteria for Leptospira?

A
  • Supportive:
    —- Positive urine PCR
    —- Positive IgM in acute phase specimens
    —- MAT >= 800 in >= 1 serum specimens
    —- Spirochetes detection
  • Confirming:
    —- Positive blood PCR
    —- x4 MAT
    —- Leptospira isolation
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13
Q

Whihc is the duration of treatment for Leptospira in dogs and cats?

A

Dogs 2w, cats 6w

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14
Q

Which are bad prognosis markers for leptospira?

A
  • High bilirrubin
  • Hypocoagulability
  • Leptospira lung hemorrhage syndrome
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15
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to more severe Ehrlichia clinical manifestations?

A

GSD
Siberian Husky

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16
Q

Which phases can be distinguished in Erhlichia?

A
  • Acute erlichiosis:
    —- Inspecific signs: lethargy, inappetence, anorexia, weight loss, fever, epistaxis, petechiation, lymphadenomegaly, splenomegaly
    —- Ocular, neuro signs
    —- Ax: thrombocytopenia +/- mild non regenerative anemia, leukopenia, hypergammaglobulinemia
  • Subclinical erlichiosis:
    —- No Sx
    —- Ax: mild thrombocytopenia
  • Chronic Erlichiosis:
    —- Same signs as acute
    —- IC glomerulonephritis, severe pancytopenia due to medular aplasia
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17
Q

Which are the clinical manifestations of Anaplasma?

A
  • A phagocytophylum:
    —- Subclinic
    —- Clinic: acute signs of apathy, anorexia, lethargy + articular pain. Can persist subclinically and manifesting reagudizations
  • A platys:
    —- Subclinic
    —- Clinic: ciclic thrombocytopenia every 10-14d (manifest inspecific signs)
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18
Q

Which is the main difference in clinical signs between erlichiosis and anaplasmosis feline and canine?

A

Signs are the same except absence of polyarthritis in A phagocytophylum infection in cats in contrast to dogs

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19
Q

Which are the characteristics of Neorickettsia and Rickettsia?

A

NEORICKKETSIA:
- N helmiontotheca –> vector: Nanophyteus salmincola (fluke)
- Disease: salmon poisoning disease
- Sx similars to Erlichia/Anaplasma
- Dx: detection of fluke eggs in feces + LN cytology + PCR

RICKKETSIA:
- R rickketsi –> vector: Dermacentor, Rhipicephalus
- Disease: Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
- Sx similars to E/A but more severes due to vasculitis
- Dx: serology (cross reactions with non pathogenic R –> a positive results doesn’t mean disease) + PCR

20
Q

Which are the most common Mycoplasma species in dogs and cats?

A
  • Cats: Candidatus Mycoplasma haemominutum > Mycoplasma hemofelis > Candidatus Mycoplasma turicensis
  • Dog: Mycoplasma hemocanis > Candidatus Mycoplasma Hematoparvum
21
Q

Which are the mechanisms of hemolytic anemia in Mycoplasma hemophelis?

A
  • Increase RBC osmotic fragility –> reduce erythrocyte lifespan
  • Development of autoantibodies
22
Q

Which are the transmission mechanisms of Mycoplasma?

A
  • Vector: not comple evidence
    —- Ctenocephalides felis (cat)
    —- Rhipicephalus sanguineus (dogs)
  • Direct contact (blood > saliva)
  • Transfussion
23
Q

Which Mycoplasma spp is more easy to distinguish in a blood smear?

A

Mycoplasma haemocanis, because it tends to form chains

24
Q

How can be performed a diagnosis of Clostridium?

A

Cl perfringens:
- Culture
- Serology and PCR of the toxin

Cl difficile:
- Culture
- Serology of the toxin: low sensitivity
–> interpretation:
- Culture negative: no Clostridium
- Culture positive + serology positive: cannot be confirmed, but if Sx compatible it is proabable
- Culture positive + serology negative: difficult to interpret because it could be a false negative due to low sensitivity of serology

25
Q

Which are the Campylobacter toxins?

A
  • CdTA
  • CdTB
  • CdTC
26
Q

Which is the treatment of choice of Campylobacter?

A

Macrolides (azythromicin or erythromicin) or fluorquinolones

27
Q

Which are the pros and cons of fever?

A

PROS:
- Increase survival
- Shorten lenght of illness
- Improved immune system function
- Production of heat shock and acute phase proteins

CONS:
- Increase severity of clinical signs
- Increase metabolic rate
- Reduction in some constitutive processes

28
Q

Which are the SIRS criterias?

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnea
  • Hyperthermia or hypothermia
  • Leukocytosis/leukopenia/>5% bands

To consider SIRS, 2/4 must be fullfilled.

29
Q

Which is the definition of multiorgan dysfunction syndrome?

A

Altered functions on 2 or more organs secondary to SIRS

30
Q

Which are markers of sepsis?

A
  • Angiopoietin 2
  • VEGF
  • Procalcitonin (bact > viric)
  • Hyaluronic acid
  • Acute phase proteins
  • Lipoproteins: increase LDL and reduce HDL
31
Q

Whihc are the criterias for MODS?

A
  • Renal: >0.5mg/dl crea
  • Hepatic: >0.5mg/dl bil
  • Coagulation: >25% PT/PTT, thrombocytopenia <100K
  • Cardiovasc: hypotension
  • Respiratory: need for oxygen supplementation
32
Q

Which are the most common arrythmias detected in Trypanosomiasis?

A

Ventricular extrasystoles and AV blocks

33
Q

Which are the different Babesia spp?

A

LARGE:
- B rossi
- B vogeli –> Europe (Rhipicephalus)
- B canis –> Europe (Dermacentor)
SMALL:
- B vulpis –> Europe (unknown vector)
- B gibsoni –> Europe (Rhipicephalus)
- B conredae

34
Q

Which is the main difference between Cytauxzoon and hepatic lipidosis?

A

Cytauxzoon has low ALP

35
Q

Which are the different ways to diagnose FeLV?

A

Detection of FeLV antigen (p27):
- ELISA/POC:
—- Detects free p27 –> indicative of viremia
—- Become + 28d after exposure (can last months in vertical infected kittens)
- IFA:
—- Detects intracellular p27 –> indicative of BM affection
—- Become + 3w after viremia

Detection of FeLV provirus:
- PCR:
—- Detects proviral DNA
—- Become + 1-2w after exposure
- RT-PCR:
—- Detects viral RNA
—- Become + 1w after exposure

Serology: detection of ab against p15

36
Q

Which antivirals drugs can be used in FeLV?

A
  • Zidovidine: reverse transcriptase inhibitor
  • Raltegravir: integrase inhibitor
  • IFNomega: immunemodulation
37
Q

Which is the relevance of canine coronavirus?

A
  • Respiratory coronavirus: it seems not to be in healthy dogs –> seems to be a real pathogen
  • Enteric coronavirus: it seems to be present in healthy dogs –> true importance as a pathogen is unknown
38
Q

Which are the most common cytokines involved in PIF granuloma/vasculitis development?

A

TNFalfa and IL1beta

39
Q

Which is the prevalence of ascites in cats with PIF?

A

80%

40
Q

Which are the dermatological signs associated to FIP?

A
  • Skin fragility
  • Signs of vasculitis/phlebitis
  • Dermal nodules/papules
41
Q

Which is the prevalence of neurologic and ophalmologic signs in PIF?

A
  • Neuro 30%
  • Ophalmo 15%
42
Q

Which are non invasive biochemical biomarkers of FIP?

A

Blood:
- SAA: increased
- alfa1glycoprotein: increased (>3)
- Albumin/globulin <0.4
- Paraoxomasa1: low

Effusion:
- Albumin/globulin <0.4
- Alfa1 glycoprotein: >1.5

43
Q

Which is the potential treatment of FIP?

A
  • Modification of the cat immune response:
    —- IFN omega
    —- Corticosteroids
    —- Cytokines inhibitors (ie pentoxyphilline: TNF alfa inhibitor)
    —- Polyprenil immunestimulant: Th2 –> Th1
  • Inhibition of FCoV replication:
    —- Proteasa inhibitor: GC376 (prodrug) –> GC373 (active form)
    —- Nucleoside analogue RNA transcription inhibitor: remdesevir (prodrug) –> GS441524 (active)
44
Q

In feline panleukopenia, which T4 value can be used as cuttoff to predict death risk?

A

T4=0.82

45
Q

Whihc are the virulence factors of Bordetella bronchiseptica?

A
  • Adherence to respiratory ciliae
  • Epithelial necrosis
  • Anti-inflammatory and immune evasion
  • Allow bacterial colonization
46
Q
A

Certifying Examination (10 decks)

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