Infectious Flashcards
Which percentage of seropositive Lyme dogs present clinical disease?
<3%
Which antigens are detected by AccuPlex4?
- OspA (p31): vaccines, but also in natural infection
- OspC: natural infection (increase in 2-3w but decrease in 3-5m), but can also be present in some news vaccines
- OspF: natural infection (increase in 2-3m and persist long term)
- p39: specially naturally expressed, but can also be present in some vaccines
- SLP
Which is the medical treatment for tuberculosis micobacteriosis?
2m combination of ryphampicin + fluorquinolone + azthromicine
Next 4-6m ryphampicin + fluorquinolone/azythromicine
Which is one of the muscles more resistant to botulism?
Diaphragm
Which is the toxin responsible of the Botulism?
BoNT-C
Which potential transmission routes for Bartonella exist?
- Vector transmission:
—- Ctenocephalides felis: main via
—- Ticks? - Non vector transmission:
—- Blood transfusion
—- Inoculation
—- Vertical (no horizontal)
Which is the prevalence of endocarditis due to Bartonella?
20-30%
Which are the potential diganostic methods for Bartonella?
- Indirect methods: PCR and routine culture
—- Low S due to low number of bacteria and intermitent bacteremia (higher S in cats because higher bacteremia and more persistent)
–> to increase S: special cultures combined with PCR: BAPGM ePCR
—- High E but not 100% for clinical disease (because the presence of the bacteria doesn’t indicate clinical disease) - Indirect methods: serology
—- Low S in acute phases
—- Low E because positivity doesn’t indicate disease
–> to increase: paired serology
DOGS:
1. Tissue –> BAPGM ePCR
2. Blood/effusion (abdominal/pleura > AH > CSF/pericardial) –> BAPGM ePCR or PCR and paired serology
3. Blood/effusion –> PCR and paired serology
CATS:
1. Blood –> BAPGM ePCR + paired serology
2. Blood –> PCR + paired serology
Which is the most common hepatic enzyme affected in Leptospira?
Increase ALP
Which is the E of a positive Leptospira urine PCR?
80% (20% of healthy dogs can excrete Lepto in urine)
Which is the incubation period of Leptospira?
2-14d
Which are the supportive and the confirmatory criteria for Leptospira?
- Supportive:
—- Positive urine PCR
—- Positive IgM in acute phase specimens
—- MAT >= 800 in >= 1 serum specimens
—- Spirochetes detection - Confirming:
—- Positive blood PCR
—- x4 MAT
—- Leptospira isolation
Whihc is the duration of treatment for Leptospira in dogs and cats?
Dogs 2w, cats 6w
Which are bad prognosis markers for leptospira?
- High bilirrubin
- Hypocoagulability
- Leptospira lung hemorrhage syndrome
Which breeds are predisposed to more severe Ehrlichia clinical manifestations?
GSD
Siberian Husky
Which phases can be distinguished in Erhlichia?
- Acute erlichiosis:
—- Inspecific signs: lethargy, inappetence, anorexia, weight loss, fever, epistaxis, petechiation, lymphadenomegaly, splenomegaly
—- Ocular, neuro signs
—- Ax: thrombocytopenia +/- mild non regenerative anemia, leukopenia, hypergammaglobulinemia - Subclinical erlichiosis:
—- No Sx
—- Ax: mild thrombocytopenia - Chronic Erlichiosis:
—- Same signs as acute
—- IC glomerulonephritis, severe pancytopenia due to medular aplasia
Which are the clinical manifestations of Anaplasma?
- A phagocytophylum:
—- Subclinic
—- Clinic: acute signs of apathy, anorexia, lethargy + articular pain. Can persist subclinically and manifesting reagudizations - A platys:
—- Subclinic
—- Clinic: ciclic thrombocytopenia every 10-14d (manifest inspecific signs)
Which is the main difference in clinical signs between erlichiosis and anaplasmosis feline and canine?
Signs are the same except absence of polyarthritis in A phagocytophylum infection in cats in contrast to dogs
Which are the characteristics of Neorickettsia and Rickettsia?
NEORICKKETSIA:
- N helmiontotheca –> vector: Nanophyteus salmincola (fluke)
- Disease: salmon poisoning disease
- Sx similars to Erlichia/Anaplasma
- Dx: detection of fluke eggs in feces + LN cytology + PCR
RICKKETSIA:
- R rickketsi –> vector: Dermacentor, Rhipicephalus
- Disease: Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
- Sx similars to E/A but more severes due to vasculitis
- Dx: serology (cross reactions with non pathogenic R –> a positive results doesn’t mean disease) + PCR
Which are the most common Mycoplasma species in dogs and cats?
- Cats: Candidatus Mycoplasma haemominutum > Mycoplasma hemofelis > Candidatus Mycoplasma turicensis
- Dog: Mycoplasma hemocanis > Candidatus Mycoplasma Hematoparvum
Which are the mechanisms of hemolytic anemia in Mycoplasma hemophelis?
- Increase RBC osmotic fragility –> reduce erythrocyte lifespan
- Development of autoantibodies
Which are the transmission mechanisms of Mycoplasma?
- Vector: not comple evidence
—- Ctenocephalides felis (cat)
—- Rhipicephalus sanguineus (dogs) - Direct contact (blood > saliva)
- Transfussion
Which Mycoplasma spp is more easy to distinguish in a blood smear?
Mycoplasma haemocanis, because it tends to form chains
How can be performed a diagnosis of Clostridium?
Cl perfringens:
- Culture
- Serology and PCR of the toxin
Cl difficile:
- Culture
- Serology of the toxin: low sensitivity
–> interpretation:
- Culture negative: no Clostridium
- Culture positive + serology positive: cannot be confirmed, but if Sx compatible it is proabable
- Culture positive + serology negative: difficult to interpret because it could be a false negative due to low sensitivity of serology
Which are the Campylobacter toxins?
- CdTA
- CdTB
- CdTC
Which is the treatment of choice of Campylobacter?
Macrolides (azythromicin or erythromicin) or fluorquinolones
Which are the pros and cons of fever?
PROS:
- Increase survival
- Shorten lenght of illness
- Improved immune system function
- Production of heat shock and acute phase proteins
CONS:
- Increase severity of clinical signs
- Increase metabolic rate
- Reduction in some constitutive processes
Which are the SIRS criterias?
- Tachycardia
- Tachypnea
- Hyperthermia or hypothermia
- Leukocytosis/leukopenia/>5% bands
To consider SIRS, 2/4 must be fullfilled.
Which is the definition of multiorgan dysfunction syndrome?
Altered functions on 2 or more organs secondary to SIRS
Which are markers of sepsis?
- Angiopoietin 2
- VEGF
- Procalcitonin (bact > viric)
- Hyaluronic acid
- Acute phase proteins
- Lipoproteins: increase LDL and reduce HDL
Whihc are the criterias for MODS?
- Renal: >0.5mg/dl crea
- Hepatic: >0.5mg/dl bil
- Coagulation: >25% PT/PTT, thrombocytopenia <100K
- Cardiovasc: hypotension
- Respiratory: need for oxygen supplementation
Which are the most common arrythmias detected in Trypanosomiasis?
Ventricular extrasystoles and AV blocks
Which are the different Babesia spp?
LARGE:
- B rossi
- B vogeli –> Europe (Rhipicephalus)
- B canis –> Europe (Dermacentor)
SMALL:
- B vulpis –> Europe (unknown vector)
- B gibsoni –> Europe (Rhipicephalus)
- B conredae
Which is the main difference between Cytauxzoon and hepatic lipidosis?
Cytauxzoon has low ALP
Which are the different ways to diagnose FeLV?
Detection of FeLV antigen (p27):
- ELISA/POC:
—- Detects free p27 –> indicative of viremia
—- Become + 28d after exposure (can last months in vertical infected kittens)
- IFA:
—- Detects intracellular p27 –> indicative of BM affection
—- Become + 3w after viremia
Detection of FeLV provirus:
- PCR:
—- Detects proviral DNA
—- Become + 1-2w after exposure
- RT-PCR:
—- Detects viral RNA
—- Become + 1w after exposure
Serology: detection of ab against p15
Which antivirals drugs can be used in FeLV?
- Zidovidine: reverse transcriptase inhibitor
- Raltegravir: integrase inhibitor
- IFNomega: immunemodulation
Which is the relevance of canine coronavirus?
- Respiratory coronavirus: it seems not to be in healthy dogs –> seems to be a real pathogen
- Enteric coronavirus: it seems to be present in healthy dogs –> true importance as a pathogen is unknown
Which are the most common cytokines involved in PIF granuloma/vasculitis development?
TNFalfa and IL1beta
Which is the prevalence of ascites in cats with PIF?
80%
Which are the dermatological signs associated to FIP?
- Skin fragility
- Signs of vasculitis/phlebitis
- Dermal nodules/papules
Which is the prevalence of neurologic and ophalmologic signs in PIF?
- Neuro 30%
- Ophalmo 15%
Which are non invasive biochemical biomarkers of FIP?
Blood:
- SAA: increased
- alfa1glycoprotein: increased (>3)
- Albumin/globulin <0.4
- Paraoxomasa1: low
Effusion:
- Albumin/globulin <0.4
- Alfa1 glycoprotein: >1.5
Which is the potential treatment of FIP?
- Modification of the cat immune response:
—- IFN omega
—- Corticosteroids
—- Cytokines inhibitors (ie pentoxyphilline: TNF alfa inhibitor)
—- Polyprenil immunestimulant: Th2 –> Th1 - Inhibition of FCoV replication:
—- Proteasa inhibitor: GC376 (prodrug) –> GC373 (active form)
—- Nucleoside analogue RNA transcription inhibitor: remdesevir (prodrug) –> GS441524 (active)
In feline panleukopenia, which T4 value can be used as cuttoff to predict death risk?
T4=0.82
Whihc are the virulence factors of Bordetella bronchiseptica?
- Adherence to respiratory ciliae
- Epithelial necrosis
- Anti-inflammatory and immune evasion
- Allow bacterial colonization
