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MFSRH part 1 > infections during pregnancy > Flashcards

infections during pregnancy Flashcards

1
Q

what class of the virus does varicella zoster virus belong too

A

herpesvirus 3

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2
Q

what type of virus is VZV?

  • single stranded DNA virus
  • double stranded DNA virus
  • single stranded RNA virus
    -double stranded RNA virus
A

double stranded DNA virus

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3
Q

what type of vaccine is varicella zoster

A

live attenuated

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4
Q

is it safe to vaccinate pregnant women who are not immune to VZV

A

no - can vaccinate when postpartum and safe to BF

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5
Q

Chelsie is struggling to conceive and is undergoing fertility tests. Her blood tests come back for VZV showing IgG negative, IgM negative.

what do these results mean?

If she decides to take the VZV vaccine how long would you recommend avoiding pregnancy for

A

non immune to VZV - offer vaccine pre pregnancy then need to avoid pregnancy for 4 weeks after completion of both doses

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6
Q

when is chickenpox considered contagious

A

2 days before the onset of the rash until the lesions have crusted over

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7
Q

in terms of pregnancy what is considered a significant exposure to chicken pox (VZV)

A

Significant contact is defined as contact in the same room for 15 minutes or more, face-to-face contact or contact in the setting of a large open ward

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8
Q

Jenny is currently 22 weeks pregnant and comes to her GP worried about the risk of chickenpox. She is a nurse teacher and one of the children yesterday came to nursery with a rash that the parents have since confirmed to be chickenpox. She doesn’t remember having chicken pox as a child.

What is the most appropriate next step in her management

A - prescribe oral acyclovir
B - ring maternity colleagues to arrange admission for IV acyclovir
C- serum IgG tests for VZV
d- reassure, not significant contact no need for further tests or treatment

A

C - test serum IgG levels to assess immunity

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9
Q

Jenny is currently 22 weeks pregnant and comes to her GP worried about the risk of chickenpox. She is a nurse teacher and one of the children yesterday came to nursery with a rash that the parents have since confirmed to be chickenpox. She doesn’t remember having chicken pox as a child.

Her serum IgG levels are negative. How should you manage Jenny?

A

Ring obstetric colleagues to arrange admission for IVIG - this needs to be given with 10 days of exposure

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10
Q

when is VZV immunoglobulin advisable

A

VZV Immunoglobulin is advised for all pregnant women who have had significant exposure to someone with VZV (chicken pox) regardless of their gestation, it should also be given up day 10 postnatal

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11
Q

what is the aim of VZV immunoglobulin

A

to reduce the risk of fetus developing congenital Varicella zoster, reduce maternal morbidity and mortality

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12
Q

what are the risks of VZV to mum

A

risk of developing pneumonia, encephalitis and hepatitis. VZV is associated with greater morbidity in adults

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13
Q

If a pregnant woman develops chicken pox rash within what time frame should acyclovir be considered as treatment

A

oral acyclovir advised to anyone > 20 weeks and consider if <20 weeks
oral acyclovir should only be given within 24 hours of the onset of the rash

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14
Q

is acyclovir licenced in pregnancy

A

no

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15
Q

if a pregnant woman develops severe VZV infection how should they be managed

A

IV acyclovir and admission

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16
Q

what is the mode of action of acyclovir

A

Aciclovir is a synthetic nucleoside analogue that inhibits viral DNA polymerase. Thus preventing the growing viral DNA chain.

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17
Q

Jane is 8 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with maternal VZV infection. She is worried about the risk of miscarriage, which of the following statements is true

A - the risk of spontaneous miscarriage does not appear to be increased if chickenpox occurs in the first trimester.
B- risk of spontaneous miscarriage is increased if chickenpox occurs in the first trimester

A

A - risk of spontaneous miscarriage does not appear to be increased if chickenpox occurs in the first trimester

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18
Q

what are the signs of fetal varicella syndrome

A

dermatomal skin scarring, eye defects, hypoplasia of the limbs and neurological complications

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19
Q

fetal varicella syndrome results from

A - initial infection of VZV
b- initial infection in utero of VZV
c- subsequent reactivation of herpes zoster in utero

A

c - subsequent reactivation of herpes zoster in utero

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20
Q

for women diagnosed with varicella infection during pregnancy what tests can they consider to diagnose the fetus with FVS

A

consider amniocentesis for VZV PCR but has good negative predictive value and lots of risks associated with it.

USS to look for signs of VZV in utero

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21
Q

VZV DNA per has a higher sensitivity than specificity

True or false

A

True

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22
Q

at what gestation in pregnancy is risk to the baby highest for development of varicella infection

A

last 4 weeks of pregnancy

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23
Q

what are the two oncogenes that HPV interferes with to cause cervical cancer

A

HPV is thought to induce cancer via onco-proteins. The primary onco-proteins are E6 and E7 which inactivate two tumor suppressor proteins, p53 (inactivated by E6) and pRb (inactivated by E7)

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24
Q

what family of viruses does rubella belong too

A

togavirus

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25
Q

how would congenital rubella infection present

A

sensoneural hearing loss
cardiac defects
cataracts

rubella is teratogenic and poor prognosis to the fetus

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26
Q

describe the virus of Rubella

A

single stranded RNA virus

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27
Q

what type of vaccine is the rubella vaccine

A

live attenuated

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28
Q

is it safe to vaccinate pregnant women with rubella vaccine

A

no - wait till postpartum fine to vaccinate when breast-feeding

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29
Q

A 30 year old patient is 36 weeks pregnant. She is known to be HIV positive and is having her viral load checked. What is the current BASHH advice regarding HIV positive mothers breastfeeding?

A

not safe to breastfeed

30
Q

Congenital fetal varicella syndrome may occur if there is maternal varicella infection (chickenpox) during what gestation time period

A - during the 1st 20 weeks of gestation.
B - during last 20 weeks

A

a - during first 20 weeks of gestation

31
Q

The risk of FVS to babies born to mothers who have chickenpox during the first 12 weeks is

A

0.4%

32
Q

what is the risk of FVS to babies born to mothers who have chickenpox during 13-20 weeks of pregnancy

A

2%

33
Q

what is the leading infective cause for congenital hearing loss

A - Rubella
B - toxoplasmosis
C- FVS
D- CMV

A

D - CMV

34
Q

when is HSV transmission to a neonate the highest

A - in utero i.e. transplacentally
B - during vaginal delivery

A

B -during vaginal delivery

35
Q

what are the three types of neonatal HSV infection

A
  1. localised skin infection
  2. CNS
  3. disseminated
36
Q

what are the majority of neonatal HSV infections

A

CNS and disseminated (70%)

37
Q

what is the mortality associated with neonatal disseminated HSV

A

30%

38
Q

what is the mortality associated with neonatal CNS HSV

A

6%

39
Q

at what gestation in pregnancy is risk of primary HSV infection considered to be the highest risk and why?

A

last 6 weeks due to risk of viral shedding and transmission to neonate during pregnancy. Hence if in last 6 weeks of pregnancy mum is diagnosed with primary HSV they should be started on oral acyclovir TDS and consented for c-section

40
Q

Diana is 35 weeks pregnant and presented to her local GUM clinic with symptoms of primary HSV infection. Swabs diagnosed HSV type 1 and blood tests for HSV type 1 and 2 IgG are negative. How would you manage Diana?

A

this implies primary HSV and mum should be counselled for c-section delivery as this decreases risk of transmission to 0-3% and started on oral acyclovir 400mg TDS until delivery

41
Q

what is the risk of HSV transmission to the neonate if primary infection in third trimester via NVD

A

41% risk via NVD - decreases to 0-3% if opts for c-section

42
Q

what is the most common cause of congenital viral infection in the developed world?

A

CMV

43
Q

what percentage of women with CMV during pregnancy will transmit it to their baby

A

40%

44
Q

what type of virus is toxoplasmosis (DNA or RNA)

A

single stranded RNA virus

45
Q

describe the morphology of toxoplasmosis genome

A

single stranded RNA virus, intracellular protozoon

46
Q

what is the primary host of toxoplasmosis

A

cats - excreted in cats faeces and humans ingest it this way through uncooked meats

47
Q

what are the classical sign of toxoplasmosis on MRI scan of the brain

A

ring enhancing lesions within CNS tissues

48
Q

if a fetus is not infected with toxoplasmosis but mum is what would be the recommended treatment and for how long

A

spiramycin continued until term to try dn prevent fetal transmission
risk of fetal transmission increases towards term

49
Q

listeria is a

gram negative rod intracellular protozoan
gram postive rod intraceullar protozoan
gram negative cocci intracellular protozoan
gram positive cocci intracellular protozoan

A

gram positive rod, intracellular protozoan

50
Q

is listeria

anaerobic or aerobic

A

facultative anaerobic

51
Q

where do you most commonly find listeria

A

moist soils environments

52
Q

how is listeria transmitted to humans

A

eating soft cheeses and cold meats is how humans get infected with listeria

53
Q

what effects can listeria have on a pregnancy

A

increases risk of chorioamnionitis, placental necrosis and granuloma formation

increased risks of miscarriage, stillbirth and meningitis

54
Q

what family of viruses does the zika virus belong too

A

flavivirdae - flavivirus

55
Q

is zika virus a single or double stranded DNA or RNA virus

A

single stranded RNA virus

56
Q

how is zika virus transmitted to humans

A

ades mosquito

57
Q

Mum is HIV +ve and on ART. VL at 36 weeks <50 what type of delivery can she have

A

any - can have NVD when VL < 50

58
Q

Mum is HIV +ve and on ART. VL at 36 weeks >400 what type of delivery would be recommended

A

C/s as VL > 400

59
Q

Mum’s VL is >400, despite being on ART but poor compliance. You recommend PLCS to reduce risk of vertical transmission. When would this be done if no other obstetric indications for c/s

A

planned for 38-39 weeks if c/s is due to risk of HIV vertical transmission.

whereas when it is obs risk not HIV usually elective c/s planned for 39 weeks instead

60
Q

if mum is HIV positive and VL is between 50-400 what type of delivery would you recommend

A

mdt approach and taking into account patient wishes but grey area and due to risk of vertical transmission most likely would be a c/s

61
Q

mum is diagnosed as HIV positive during first trimester - when do you aim to start ART by and when would you consider starting ART earlier

A

aim to start ART by 24/40 unless VL >100,000 or CD4 count < 200 in which case aim to start ART ASAP/ during first trimester

if VL <30,000 aim to start in second trimester
if VL 30,000-100,000 aim to start beginning of second trimester

62
Q

do HIV positive pregnant women undergo extra obs testing

A

no - just routine antenatal consultant led care, no extra scans

63
Q

what are the general rules in terms of EcV, invasive screening tests (amniocentesis,CVS) in a patient who is HIV positive

A

all can happen if VL <50
if VL higher then ideally defer until VL suppressed due to risk of vertical transmission

64
Q

what are the categories for neonatal PEP

A

very low risk = 2 weeks zidovudine
low risk= 4 weeks zidovudine
high risk = 4 weeks combination PEP

65
Q

what is the high risk PEP regime and when would you consider needing to start a neonate on high risk PEP

A

start ‘high risk pep’ category if mums VL is >50 at delivery or 36 weeks, mums VL is unknown, or suspected poor adherence to ART

combination therapy for 4 weeks:
1. zidovudine
2. lamivudine
3. nevirapine

should be started within 4 hours of birth

66
Q

what is the very low risk PEP option for neonates and what categories must mum fulfil?

A

start within 4 hours of delivery, zidovudine mono therapy for 2 weeks.

Mum must have:-
1. VL at or after 36 weeks <50
2. established on ART >10 weeks
3. two VL > 4 weeks apart < 50

67
Q

what is the low risk PEP option for neonates and what categories must mum fulfil?

A

start PEP within 4 hours

zidovudine (oral) mono therapy 4 weeks

criteria must be:

  1. mum VL at delivery < 50
  2. or baby born prematurely and last VL < 50
68
Q

what specific ART would you need to prescribe high dose folic acid to pregnant women

A

dolutegravir - 5mg folic acid pre-conception and until 12 weeks

68
Q

what is the pre-conception advice regarding vitamin d and folic acid

A

everyone should take folic acid starting minimum 1 month prior to conceiving and up until 12 weeks gestation 400 msgs (micrograms!)

vitamin d - 10 micrograms daily throughout pregnancy (avoid anything above 100mcgs)

high dose folic acid is 5mg (milligrams) only offer if:

  1. personal (either parents) or family history NTD
  2. previous pregnancy affected by NTD
  3. T2DM, sickle cell, thalassaemic inc thalassaemia trait
  4. BMI > 30
69
Q

what situations do you carry high dose folic acid throughout pregnancy

A

sickle cell disease or thalassaemia inc thalassaemic trait.

MFSRH part 1 (20 decks)

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