Infection Drills Flashcards
1
Q
Which bacterial genus is responsible for causing tetanus?
A
Clostridium
2
Q
Which staff member should the nurse manager avoid assigning to a client with vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) infection?
A. The staff member who recently recovered from a common cold
B. The staff member who has a history of seasonal allergies
C. The staff member who underwent cardiac surgery six months ago
D. The staff member who is currently taking immunosuppressive medication
A
The staff member who is currently taking immunosuppressive medication
3
Q
A client has been diagnosed as a chronic carrier of a highly contagious respiratory virus. To prevent transmission of the infection to other clients or healthcare providers, which interventions should be emphasized?
A
Implement strict hand hygiene practices
3
Q
A client is diagnosed as a carrier of Clostridium difficile, a bacterium known for causing healthcare- associated infections. To minimize the risk of transmission to other clients and healthcare providers, which interventions should be prioritized?
A
Initiating antibiotic therapy for the client
3
Q
A client is identified as a carrier of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). To prevent the spread of MRSA within the healthcare facility, which measures should be implemented?
A
Placing the client in isolation with strict contact precautions
4
Q
Which of the following is the primary transmission mode for poliomyelitis?
A
Droplet transmission
5
Q
Which organism has the potential to induce life- threatening gastroenteritis following the administration of a broad-spectrum antimicrobial agent?
A
Clostridium difficile
6
Q
What is the primary mode of microbe transmission in impetigo?
A
Direct contact
7
Q
Which organism is capable of infecting deeper wound sites and generating exotoxins, enzymes, and gas, leading to tissue and muscle necrosis?
A
Clostridium perfringens
8
Q
In which condition are oral lesions known as Koplik’s spots observed?
A
Rubeola
9
Q
German measles is also known as
A
Rubella
10
Q
Which viral exanthem is associated with a pathogen capable of crossing the placenta and causing significant fetal damage?
A
German measles
11
Q
If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes into contact with someone who has shingles, what will likely occur?
A
Chickenpox
12
Q
In which type of symbiosis do both members benefit from their interaction?
A
Mutualism
13
Q
Which of the following is false concerning microbial contaminants?
A
Most microbial contaminants will eventually cause harm.
14
Q
Which portal of entry is most commonly utilized by pathogens?
A
The respiratory tract
15
Q
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in infectious diseases?
A
incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence
16
Q
Which of the following are most likely to cause disease?
A
opportunistic pathogens in a weakened host
17
Q
When pathogenic bacterial cells lose the ability to make adhesins, they typically
A
Become avirulent
18
Q
A disease in which a pathogen remains inactive for a long period before becoming active is termed a(n)
A
latent disease
19
Q
Which of the following statements is the best definition of a pandemic disease?
A
It is an epidemic that occurs on more than one continent at the same time.
20
Q
Which of the following types of epidemiologists is most like a detective?
A
an analytical epidemiologist
21
Q
In a scenario where an animal infected with a virus is bitten by a mosquito, which subsequently bites and infects a person, what is the role of the mosquito in this transmission process?
A
vector
21
Q
A patient contracted athlete’s foot after long-term use of a medication. His physician explained that the malady was directly related to the medication. What term is used to describe such infections?
A
Nosocomial infections
21
Which of the following infectious disease stages is mismatched?
Decline phase—host defenses are overwhelmed by a pathogen
21
Which of the following phrases describes a contagious disease?
a disease that is easily passed from host to host in aerosols
a disease that arises from opportunistic, normal microbiota
22
Which of the following is NOT a condition of Koch’s postulates?
Produce a vaccine.
23
The presence of Staphylococcus epidermidis on healthy skin helps to prevent pathogenic bacteria from colonizing and causing disease. This is an example of .
Microbial antagonism
24
Botulinum toxin is an example of a(n) .
Exotoxin
25
Diseases that are potentially harmful to the public’s health and must be reported by physicians are called
Notifiable diseases
26
The number of new cases of a disease identified in a population during a defined period is termed as
Incidence rate
27
Which of the following refers to ongoing operations aimed at reducing the incidence and/or prevalence of that disease?
Control
28
After teaching a client and family strategies to prevent infection, which statement by the client would indicate effective learning has occurred?
“We must wash or peel all raw fruits and vegetables before eating.”
29
A woman who has been taking an antibiotic for a UTI calls the physician to complain of severe vaginal itching. She has also noticed a thick, whitish vaginal discharge. The physician suspects that
A superinfection has developed.
29
What infection of a highly virulent bacterial strain can lead to hemolytic uremic syndrome?
Escherichia coli 0157:H7
30
Which body tissues or organs have no presence of any microorganisms?
Ovaries and testes
31
Which bacteria possess adhesins on their flagella that allow them to attach to receptors on the intestinal lining, thereby facilitating the organism's adherence to a host cell's surface, representing a critical point in the production of bacterial disease?
Campylobacter jejuni and Vibrio cholera
32
Some bacteria, such as pneumococci and other streptococci, release digestive enzymes that allow them to invade tissues rapidly and cause severe illnesses. What enzyme is produced by streptococci that digests the gluelike substance that helps hold the cells of certain tissues together?
Hyaluronidase
33
Which of the following infectious diseases is caused by bacteria that release exotoxin?
Cholera
33
Which of the following bacteria does NOT produce an enterotoxin causing excessive loss of water and electrolytes?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
33
Which of the following microbes, typically transmitted through water, does NOT infect the digestive system and cause gastrointestinal symptoms?
Polioviruses
33
Filariasis causative agent
Wuchereria bancrofti
34
River blindness causative agent
Onchocerca volvulus
35
Whipworm causative agent
Trichuris trichiura
35
Pinworm causative agent
Enterobius vermicularis
36
Lyme disease causative agent
Borrelia burgdorferi
37
A neurotoxin that inhibits antagonists of motor neurons of brains leading to violent skeletal spasms and respiratory failure
Clostridium tetani
37
A cytotoxin that increases vascular permeability leading to hemorrhage and pulmonary edema
Bacillus anthracis
38
An exfoliatin that causes intradermal separation of cells leading to redness and sloughing of skin
Staphylococcus aureus
39
A neurotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine at nerve endings leading to respiratory paralysis and double vision
Clostridium botulinum
39
𝛼-toxin that breaks down lecithin in cell membranes leading to cell and tissue destruction
Clostridium perfringens
40
Erythrogenic toxin that causes vasodilation leading to maculopapular rash lesion
Streptococcus pyogenes
41
Diphtheria portal of entry
Respiratory tract
42
Listeriosis portal of entry
Gastrointestinal tract
43
Tetanus portal of entry
Traumatized tissue
44
Syphilis portal of entry
Urogenital tract
45
Toxoplasmosis primary mode of transmission
Contact with cats or ingesting rare or raw meat
46
Chagas disease primary mode of transmission
Bite from a reduviid bug
47
Tapeworm primary mode of transmission
Eating poorly cooked beef or pork
48
Schistosomiasis primary mode of transmission
Freshwater snail vector releases infectious stage
49
Hepatitis A primary mode of transmission
Ingestion (oral-fecal)
50
Which statements about healthcare-associated infections are TRUE?
They are contracted in a hospital or institution.
They are more difficult to treat.
The organisms that cause these infections are more virulent.
51
Which body fluid is LEAST LIKELY microbe-free?
Urine in the urethra
52
David, a college student, was rushed to the Emergency Department due to clinical manifestations consistent with food intoxication associated with the consumption of home-canned foods. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY the causative agent?
Clostridium botulinum
53
The stage during which pathogens begin to invade tissues; it is marked by early nonspecific symptoms
Prodromal phase
53
The stage during which host defenses overcome pathogens; signs and symptoms subside during this phase
Decline phase
53
Stage during which tissue damage is repaired and the patients regain strength.
Convalescence
53
The time between infection and the appearance of signs and symptoms of a disease
Incubation period
54
The period during which the individual experiences the typical signs and symptoms of the disease
Invasive phase
55
Plague causative agent
Yersinia pestis
56
Lyme disease
Borrelia burgdorferi
57
Typhus fever
Typhus fever
58
African sleeping sickness
Trypanosoma brucei
59
Chagas’ disease
Trypanosoma cruzi
60
Fleas
Plague
61
Tsetse fly
African sleeping sickness
62
Ticks
Lyme disease
63
True bug
Chagas’ disease
64
Tinea infections category of causative agent
Fungi (Dermatophytes such as Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton species)
64
Lice
Typhus fever
65
Typhoid fever category of causative agent
Bacteria (Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi)
66
Malaria category of causative agent
Protozoa (Plasmodium species)
66
Trichomoniasis category of causative agent
Protozoa (Trichomonas vaginalis)
66
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) category of causative agent
Virus (SARS-CoV-2)
67
Pertussis category of causative agent
Bacteria (Bordetella pertussis)
68
Pneumonia category of causative agent
More than one agent
69
Anthrax category of causative agent
Bacteria (Bacillus anthracis)
70
Histoplasmosis category of causative agent
Fungi (Histoplasma capsulatum)
71
Poliomyelitis category of causative agent
Virus (Poliovirus)
71
Leprosy genus of causative agent
Mycobacterium (Mycobacterium leprae)
72
Meningitis genus of causative agent
Neisseria (Neisseria meningitidis)
73
Botulism genus of causative agent
Clostridium (Clostridium botulinum)
74
Bacterial dysentery genus of causative agent
Shigella
75
Trachoma genus of causative agent
Chlamydia
76
Which of the following diseases can be directly caused by microorganisms?
Inherited disease
Congenital disease
Neoplastic disease
II and III
77
An iatrogenic disease in a patient caused by Staphylococcus aureus–-contaminated surgical instruments would be known as a
Nosocomial infection
78
Which of the following is NOT true about the virulence factor coagulase?
It increases the likelihood of exposure to host immune defenses
79
Which of the following is NOT considered a virulence factor?
Chemotactic factors
80
Which one is an example of a latent disease?
Chicken pox/shingles
81
are soluble substances secreted from bacteria into host tissues, whereas are part of the bacterial cell wall and enter host tissues during division or after cell death.
Exotoxins/endotoxins
82
A positive antibody test for HIV would be a of disease.
Sign
83
Which term best describes a laboratory bench that has been contaminated with spilled bacteria?
Contaminated
84
Which of the following is MISMATCHED?
Local infection – confined to a specific area of the body
Abortive infection – infection leads to abortion in pregnant individuals
Mixed infection – more than one type of organism is responsible for the disease process
Inapparent infection – too few organisms present to produce typical signs and symptoms
Abortive infection – infection leads to abortion in pregnant individuals
84
Persons in a population who become clinically ill during a specified period
Morbidity rate
84
The total number of sick individuals in a population at a particular time
Prevalence rate
85
The colonization and growth of an infectious agent in a host
Infection
86
The number of new cases of a disease identified in a population during a defined period
Incidence rate
87
The number of deaths within a population during a specified period
Mortality rate
88
An infectious disease agent that is continually present in a population located in a specific geographical location but has both the number of reported cases and the severity of the disease too low to constitute a public health problem
Endemic
89
Term used when a disease with a higher-than- normal incidence within a population that poses a public health problem suddenly spreads worldwide
Pandemic
90
Term used when the morbidity and/or mortality rate in a population becomes high enough to pose a public health problem
Epidemic
91
What term describes an individual infected with Salmonella typhi who harbors the bacterium in their gallbladder without showing clinical symptoms, yet remains contagious?
Carrier
92
The nature of bacterial capsules .
Affects the virulence of these bacteria
93
The symptoms of scarlet fever are due to
Erythrogenic toxin
94
Which genus of bacteria has pathogens that can cause blindness?
Neisseria
94
Which infection(s) would be categorized as a zoonosis?
A. Anthrax
B. Diphtheria
C. Gas gangrene
D. Both A and B
Anthrax
95
What virulence factor is associated with the development of skin hemorrhages in meningitis?
endotoxins
95
Many clostridial diseases require a/an environment for their development.
Anaerobic
96
The bubo of bubonic plaque is a/an
Enlarged lymph node
97
Endotoxins are associated with Gram-negative bacteria and are part of their cell and are released when the cell / , while exotoxins are produced and released by Gram-positive and some Gram-negative bacteria and are called if they affect the nervous system and if they affect the digestive system.
Walls; divides/dies; neurotoxins; enterotoxins
97
The primary habitat of Vibrio cholera is
Natural waters
98
A is an observable effect of a disease, while a is an effect of a disease felt by the infected person. A is a group of signs and symptoms that occur together.
Sign; symptom; syndrome
99
Which type of epidemiological study involves testing the hypothesis that a particular treatment will effectively control a disease for which no accepted cure is available?
Experimental
99
Which of the following can result when antibiotic therapy disrupts the normal microbiota?
both pseudomembranous colitis and thrush
100
Fomites modes of disease transmission
Indirect contact
101
Bar soap modes of disease transmission
Indirect contact
102
Kissing modes of disease transmission
Horizontal
103
Speaking modes of disease transmission
Droplet
104
Handshaking modes of disease transmission
Horizontal
105
Food modes of disease transmission
Vehicle
106
Housefly modes of disease transmission
Mechanical vector
107
Mother breast-feeding her infant modes of disease transmission
Vertical
108
Anopheles mosquito modes of disease transmission
Biological vector
109
“Incidence and Distribution of Tuberculosis Cases in Urban vs. Rural Areas"
Descriptive epidemiological study
110
“Investigating the Association Between Smoking and Lung Cancer: A Case-Control Study"
Analytical epidemiological study
111
"Exploring the Relationship Between Air Pollution and Asthma Prevalence"
Correlational epidemiological study
111
"Assessing the Efficacy of a New Vaccine in Preventing Influenza: A Randomized Controlled Trial"
Experimental epidemiological study
112
“A Cross-Sectional Survey of HIV/AIDS Knowledge Among Adolescents in Urban Schools"
Descriptive epidemiological study
113
Which of the following arthropods is the vector of Lyme disease?
tick
114
The greatest number and variety of indigenous microflora of the human body live in or on the
colon
115
Escherichia coli living in the human colon can be a(n)
endosymbiont.
opportunist.
symbiont in a mutualistic relationship.
all of the above
116
Which of the following sites of the human body does not have indigenous microflora?
Bloodstream
117
Which of the following Gram-positive bacteria is most likely to be the cause of a hospital-acquired infection?
S. aureus
117
Which of the following are considered reservoirs of infection?
carriers
contaminated food and drinking water
rabid animals
all of the above
117
Which of the following Gram-negative bacteria is least likely to be the cause of a HAI?
E. coli
117
Typhoid fever is caused by a species of
Salmonella
118
A Protective Environment would be appropriate for a patient
leukopenia.
119
Which of the following is NOT part of Standard Precautions?
placing a patient in a private room having negative air pressure
120
A patient suspected of having tuberculosis has been admitted to the hospital. Which one of the following is NOT appropriate?
Droplet Precautions
121
Which of the following statements about medical asepsis is FALSE?
Disinfection is a medical aseptic technique.
Handwashing is a medical aseptic technique.
Medical asepsis is considered a clean technique.
The goal of medical asepsis is to exclude all microorganisms from an area.
The goal of medical asepsis is to exclude all microorganisms from an area.
122
Which of the following statements about an AIIR is FALSE?
Air entering the room is passed through HEPA filters.
The room is under negative air pressure.
An AIIR is appropriate for patients with meningococcal meningitis, whooping cough, or influenza.
Transmission-Based Precautions will be necessary.
An AIIR is appropriate for patients with meningococcal meningitis, whooping cough, or influenza.
123
Which of the following virulence factors enable(s) bacteria to attach to tissues?
pili
124
Neurotoxins are produced by
Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani
125
Which of the following pathogens produce enterotoxins?
Bacillus cereus and certain serotypes of
Escherichia coli
C. difficile and C. perfringens
Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp.
all of the above
126
A bloodstream infection with could result in the release of endotoxin into the bloodstream.
N. gonorrhea or E. coli
127
Communicable diseases are most easily transmitted during the
period of illness
128
Enterotoxins affect cells in the
gastrointestinal tract
129
Which of the following produces both a cytotoxin and an enterotoxin?
C. difficile
130
Which of the following virulence factors enable(s) bacteria to avoid phagocytosis by white blood cells?
Capsule
130
The most common means by which multidrug- resistant tuberculosis is transmitted is
by dispersal of aerosols containing droplets of the causative agent
131
Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis: undercooked ground beef
132
The study of the factors responsible for the prevalence and transmission of infectious diseases is known as .
Epidemiology
133
If an individual’s host defense is not functioning correctly, they are considered to be .
immunocompromised
134
Bacillus anthracis is unique among bacteria in that it possesses which of the following?
A polypeptide capsule
135
The causative agent of Hansen's disease is
M. leprae
135
During the carrier state, where is S. typhi most likely to be found?
Gallbladder
135
A sample taken from a wound of an individual working with wool from a Caribbean Island showed the presence of a large, gram-positive rod bacterium, forming non-hemolytic colonies with swirling projections when cultured on blood agar. Which of the following methods is most likely to demonstrate the presence of spores?
Schaeffer-Fulton stain
136
A specimen of thick, bloody sputum from a hospitalized 80-year-old patient with diabetes mellitus and difficulty in breathing is sent for laboratory analyses. The tests yield heavy growth of a lactose- positive, nonmotile, gram-negative rod with a large capsule. Which of the following bacteria is most likely to be the cause of pulmonary problems?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
137
Which of the following epidemiological studies involve the observation of a cohort over time to assess changes in exposure and outcomes?
Longitudinal
138
Which of the following epidemiological studies involve collection of data from a population at a single point in time to provide a snapshot of the population's characteristics and associations between variables?
Cross-sectional
138
A carrier is a person who is colonized with a particular pathogen, but the pathogen is not currently causing disease in that person. Specifically, a passive carrier could be described as
One who carries the pathogen without ever having had the disease
