Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology > Infection & Disease > Flashcards

Infection & Disease Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Symbiosis.

A

living together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mutualism.

A

both benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Commensalism.

A

one benefits and the other is uneffected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Synergism.

A

better together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Parasitism.

A

one benefits/other is harmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Normal Flora.

A

all microbes that normally live on or in the healthy body without causing disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many human cells in the body?

A

10 trillion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many microbial cells in the body?

A

100 trillion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What kind of normal flora is in the large and small intestines?

A

E. coli

Enterobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What kind normal flora is on the skin?

A

Staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What kind normal flora is in the month?

A

Staph
Strep
Spirochetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What kind normal flora is in the nose/upper respiratory tract?

A

Staph
Strep
Cornebacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What kind normal flora is on the genitals?

A

Staph

Lactobacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where should normal flora NOT be?

A
  • circulatory system (blood)
  • internal organs
  • central nervous system
  • bladder
  • stomach (may not be sterile)
  • fetus (we acquire them a few days after birth)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does a baby obtain normal flora?

A 
birth canal
contact with instruments
bottle feeding
nursing
contact with people
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the benefit of normal flora?

A

prevent pathogens from establishing site of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What benefits does E.coli and ?other?intestinal bacteria give us?

A
  • produce vitamin K
  • intestinal bacteria help break down fibre
  • intestinal bacteria alter out gene expression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What occurs from destruction or translocation of normal flora?

A

usually results in infection (UTIs, vaginal yeast infections, diarrhea/colitis, toxic shock, staph infections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Infection.

A

“to mix with”

- invasion of the body by a pathogenic organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Disease.

A

“living apart”

- any change from a state of good health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pathogenicity.

A

“suffering”

- ability of a parasitic microbe to infect and bring about a disease; includes severity of the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Virulence.

A

“full of poison”

- the degree of pathogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Avirulent.

A

do not cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 5 stages of disease process?

A
  1. period of incubation
  2. period of prodromal symptoms
  3. period of acme
  4. Period of decline
  5. Period of convalescence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Incubation period.

A

time from initial contact with pathogen to appearance of symptoms

  • affected by many factors (infection #, gen. time, virulence, host resistance)
  • usually 1-30 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What factors influence incubation period?

A
  • affected by many factors (infection #, gen. time, virulence, host resistance)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How long is the incubation period?

A

1-30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Incubation period of Salmonellosis.

A

less than a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Incubation period of influenza.

A

1 day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Incubation period of Cholera.

A

2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Incubation period of Genital herpes.

A

5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Incubation period of Tetanus.

A

3-21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Incubation period of syphilis.

A

2-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Incubation period of Hepatitis B.

A

1-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Incubation period of AIDS.

A

1-8 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Incubation period of Leprasy.

A

10-30 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Prodromal period.

A
  • started to fight
  • feeling unwell
  • general symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Acme period.

A
  • acute illness stage
  • characteristic symptoms of illness become apparent
  • fever & chills
  • most transmissible period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which period is the most transmissible?

A

Acme period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Decline period.

A
  • symptoms decrease in severity

- sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Convalescent period

A
  • recovery period, but still sick (immune system still ramped up and made a lot of antibodies, replicated lots of cells)
  • susceptible to re-infection or secondary infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the modes of transmission?

A

Direct transmission

Indirect transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What types of direct transmission are there?

A

Involve one ore more of the following…

  • Direct physical contact
  • Inhalation of respiratory secretions
  • Animal bites
  • Congenital transfer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Direct physical contact.

A

hand to hand, mouth, nose, or eyes; kissing, sexual intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Inhalation of respiratory secretions.

A

inhalation of tiny aerosol droplets during talking, sneezing, coughing (less than 1 meter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How close do you have to be to get infected by inhalation of respiratory secretions?

A

less than 1 meter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Animal bites.

A

direct from infected animal to human

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Congenital transfer.

A

from mother to child via placenta or birth canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are some examples of things that are congenitally transferred?

A

rubella, herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Indirect transmission.

A

infectious agent passes from infected host to intermediate object or substance and then on to another host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is another name for direct transmission?

A

vehicle transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the intermediate object called in indirect transmission?

A

fomite or vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Fomite.

A

Inanimate (non-living) objects that carry pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Vector.

A

Live organisms that act as vehicles (are usually anthropods)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Examples of fomites.

A

waterborne
food borne
small airborne particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Evaporated particles pf mucus or dust travel more than ___ and remain airborne for __ ___.

A

1 meter

long periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Examples of vectors.

A

insects (mosquitos, ticks)

58
Q

Biological vector.

A

part of life cycle of the pathogen requires the vector (mosquitoes)

59
Q

Mechanical vectors.

A

lives on or is harboured; not essential for life

ticks

60
Q

Reservior of infection.

A

any place where pathogen can live

61
Q

Living reservoirs include.

A

human and animal

62
Q

Non-living reservoirs include…

A

soil
water
food
fomites

63
Q

What is the most important reservoir for human infections?

A

other humans

- have disease or carriers

64
Q

Carriers.

A

special type of human reservoir; have the pathogen (colonized), but show no symptoms of disease but can spread to other ppl

65
Q

Most transmissible in acme stage, except…

A

when they are carriers and they shed the disease with no outward signs

66
Q

Epidemiology.

A

science dealing with disease FREQUENCY and DISTRIBUTION in a population

67
Q

What is the measurement of health and disease important for?

A
  • identifying new disease
  • identifying impact (importance) of diseases
  • allocating resources to deal with disease
  • preventing disease
68
Q

What do you need to look at to determine disease frequency?

A
  • defined pop.
  • defined case
  • source of info identified
  • use of a systematic approach
69
Q

Mortality rate.

A

-Number of DEATHS due to the disease per 1,000 or 100,000 people for a given time

70
Q

Incidence

A

number of NEW cases of a disease in a given area or population during given time period; estimates risk of getting the disease
-per 1,000 or 100,000 people
new cases/number at risk

71
Q

What is the difference between mortality rate and incidence?

A

MORTALITY is death rate in general and INCIDENCE just looks at new cases; gives an estimate of risk of getting the disease

72
Q

Prevalence.

A

TOTAL NUMBER of cases of a disease in a given area or population during a given period of time
new and old cases/number of ppl at risk

73
Q

Endemic disease.

A

Constantly at a low level in a given geographical area

74
Q

Sporadic.

A

few scattered cases occur within an area or population

75
Q

Epidemic.

A

greater than normal number of cases in an area with a given period

76
Q

Outbreak.

A

a more contained epidemic

77
Q

How do you track epidemic diseases?

A

Epi curves

78
Q

Pandemic.

A

World wide epidemic of specific disease; infection in 3 different countries within 2 different continents

79
Q

How many phases does WHO use for pandemics?

A

6 phases

80
Q

Communicable.

A

can be spread from person to person

81
Q

Contagious.

A

can spread from person to person (contact usually not required)

82
Q

Noncommunicable.

A

not spread by person to person

83
Q

Example of noncommunicable.

A

Tetanus

84
Q

Examples of communicable diseases?

A

HIV
Chlamydia
Cholera
MRSA

85
Q

Examples of contagious disease.

A

Common cold
Chicken pox
Measles
Rubella

86
Q

Acute infection

A

rapid onset, climax rapid recovery

87
Q

Chronic infection.

A

slow onset,longer duration

88
Q

Primary infection.

A

First or original illness

89
Q

Secondly infection

A

another infection in weakened individuals

ex. got flu now had pneumonia…the secondary infection

90
Q

Local infection.

A

infection confined to a single area of the body

91
Q

Systemic infection

A

infection enters the blood stream and/or spreads to the tissue
ex.bacteremia (septicemia)

92
Q

Bacteremia.

A

bacteria in blood

93
Q

Viremia.

A

virus in the blood

94
Q

Nosocomial infection.

A

infection acquired in the hospital

95
Q

How many deaths due to nosocomial infections?

A

approx. 15000 death/year

5% nosocomial infections

96
Q

Exogenous nosocomial infection.

A

brought in to the hospital or seeing from outside (pt, staff, etc.)

97
Q

Endogenous nosocomial infection.

A

infectious agents already present in the health care setting

98
Q

Iatrogenic Infections

A

caused by either medical procedures (improper hygiene or aseptic technique, or equipment)

99
Q

3 super infections generally resistant to antibiotics.

A

MRSA
VRE
C. difficile

100
Q

What factors influence nosocomial infections?

A
  • presence of microbes in hospital environment
  • immunocompromised pts
  • transmission of pathogens btw safe, pt, and other pts
101
Q

What is used to control nosocomial infections?

A

universal precautions

- proper hand washing

102
Q

5 Generalized events in establishment of disease.

A
  1. an infectious does of microns penetrates host’s defensive barrier
  2. Microbe enters host tissue
  3. They move into specific target tissue
  4. Her they cause tissue damage, leading to disease
  5. Microbes leave host via portal of exit to infect another host
103
Q

Portal of entry.

A

where pathogens enter the body

104
Q

Ex. of portal of entry

A
  • eyes, nose, mouth, ears
  • skin lesion (insect or animal bite)
  • urethra, anus
105
Q

Portal of exit.

A

how pathogens sleaze the body

106
Q

Ex. portals of exit.

A
  • coughing/sneezing
  • removal of blood
  • by insect bite
  • in the faces
  • in the ring
  • through an open lesion
107
Q

Factors contributing to disease.

A

Susceptibility of host
Dose
•infectious dose required
Virulence factor

108
Q

How many typhoid bacilli are required for infection?

A

200 thousand

109
Q

How many cholera bacilli are required for infection?

A

2 million

110
Q

Virulence.

A

Relative ability of pathogen to cause disease

111
Q

What is virulence determined by?

A

ability of microbe to penetrate & multiply in hose

- toxicity

112
Q

Toxicity.

A

Ability of microbe to generate harmful toxin.

113
Q

What are the virulence factors?

A

adhesions
extracellular enzymes
toxins

114
Q

Adhesions.

A

on pili, cell wall, outermsmbrane, capsid, spikes

- can induce phagocytosis or endocytosis

115
Q

Name some extracellular enzymes.

A 
Coagulase
Kinases
Hyaluronidase
Leukocidins
Hemolysins
116
Q

Coagulase.

A

protective wall around bacteria that clots plasma

eg. Staphylococcus aureus

117
Q

Kinases.

A

enzymes that dissolves (lyse) blood clots

eg. streptokinase produced by streptococcus pyogenes

118
Q

Hyaluronidase.

A

dissolves hyaluronic acid which holds tissue together, so microbes can spread rapidly

119
Q

Leukocidins.

A

proteins that destroy WBCs

- induce release of lysosomal enzymes

120
Q

Hemolysis.

A

enzymes that destroy RBCs (strep series)

121
Q

What is often used to identify bacteria?

A

extracellular enzymes

122
Q

If you are coagulase positive you have…

A

staph

123
Q

Pathogenicity islands.

A

clusters of genes that code for pathogenicity

124
Q

How are pathogenicity islands transferred?

A

Horizontal gene transfer (between bacterium)

125
Q

Endotoxins gram +ve or -ve?

A

gram negative

126
Q

Exotoxins gram +ve or -ve?

A

gram positive

127
Q

Exotoxins.

A

actively made by bacteria and sent OUT

128
Q

Endotoxins.

A

made and remain in the outer membrane unless they breakdown or lyse

129
Q

Mode of action of Exotoxins.

A

tissue specific; destroy tissue or alter chemical production/release

130
Q

Mode of Endotoxins.

A

induce blood clots and activate complement system (systemic inflammation)

131
Q

When endotoxins are severe it is called..

A

endotoxic shock

132
Q

Endotoxic shock

A

tissue swelling, drop in BP, antibiotic induced

133
Q

What does the immune system produce to fight toxins?

A

antitoxins

134
Q

Where are antitoxins made?

A

the immune system

135
Q

What are the characteristics of Exotoxins.

A
  • made of protein
  • released by secretion
  • mainly gram +ve
  • high potency
  • toxic effect (very specific)
  • immune response is strong
136
Q

What are the characteristics of Endotoxins.

A
  • made of lipids/carbs
  • released when cell disintegrates
  • gram -ve
  • low potency
  • nonspecific toxic effect
  • weak immune response
137
Q

Examples of Exotoxins.

A

Neuromuscular toxins

ex. botulism, diphtheria, tetanus

138
Q

What does botulism (gram +ve) cause?

A

muscle paralysis

139
Q

What does (gram +ve) diphtheria cause?

A

nerve/myocardial destruction

140
Q

What does tetanus (gram +ve) cause?

A

muscle spasms

141
Q

Examples of Endotoxins (gram -ve)(LPS).

A 
Dysentery
 Meningitis
Typhoid fever
 Cholera
- all produce fever, diarrhea, vomiting, endotoxic shock

Microbiology (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions