Infection Flashcards

1
Q

what is a bactericidal antibiotic?

A

antibiotic that destroys/kills bacteria

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2
Q

what is a bacteriostatic antibiotic?

A

antibiotic that stops/slows growth of bacteria

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3
Q

1 thing to do to prevent healthcare-associated infections

A

hand-washing

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4
Q

what does an antiseptic do?

A

inhibits growth of microorganisms (static)

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5
Q

where are antiseptics applied?

A

exclusively to living tissue

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6
Q

what does a disinfectant do?

A

kills organisms (cidal)

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7
Q

where are disinfectants applied?

A

to nonliving objects

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8
Q

what should be done before therapy of infection with antibiotics?

A

culture areas of infection

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9
Q

treatment of an infection before specific culture info has been reported or obtained

A

empiric therapy

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10
Q

antibiotic therapy tailored to treat organism identified with cultures

A

definitive therapy

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11
Q

treatment with antibiotics to prevent an infection, as in intraabdominal surgery or after trauma

A

prophylactic therapy

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12
Q

decrease in specific signs and symptoms of an infection are noted

A

therapeutic response

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13
Q

signs and symptoms of infection do not improve

A

sub therapeutic response

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14
Q

antibiotic that is effective against a broad range of bacteria

A

broad-spectrum

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15
Q

antibiotic that is effective against only a few bacteria

A

narrow-spectrum

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16
Q

If a patient begins to flush during vancomycin treatment what is the best course of action?

A

slow the rate

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17
Q

Ciprofloxacin (a fluoroquinolone ) has the potential to cause what?

A

achilles tendon tear (&photosensitivity)

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18
Q

If a patient is receiving antibiotic therapy and begins to show signs of swelling, itching and redness and difficulty breathing what would the RN assume is occurring?

A

anaphylaxis

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19
Q

What should the nurse education about when administering rifampin?

A

may turn patient’s bodily fluids orange

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20
Q

What is a side effect of isoniazid?

A

peripheral neuritis

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21
Q

What vitamin may be added to isoniazid therapy?

A

vitamin B6 or pyridoxine

22
Q

What diagnostic procedure is important for acute glomerulonephritis?

A

Antistreptolysin O titer

23
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Tuberculosis?

A

Dyspnea, Night sweats, blood cough, productive cough

24
Q

what diagnostic test confirms TB?

A

sputum culture

25
Q

penicillin has cross-sensitivity to

A

cephalosporins

26
Q

penicillin suprainfection can occur with

A

Candida albicans (yeast infection)

27
Q

vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus

A

otoxicity

28
Q

QT prolongation on ECG

A

ventricular dysrhythmias

29
Q

c. diff and vaginal infections (candidasis)

A

suprainfections

30
Q

fluoroquinolone (ciprofloxacin) used for

A

prevention of anthrax

31
Q

monitor what when on isoniazid?

A

LFTs (because hepatotoxicity)

32
Q

anorexia, malaise, fatigue, yellowish discoloration of skin

A

hepatotoxicity

33
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of acute glomerulonephritis?

A

Cola-colored urine, Elevated BUN and creatinine, Edema, Hypertension, Decreased GFR

34
Q

results from pyridoxine deficiency

A

peripheral neruopathy

35
Q

an infection acquired by person who has not been hospitalized or had a medical procedure

A

community acquired infection

36
Q

infection contracted in a hospital that was not present on admission

A

hospital acquired infection

37
Q

hypotension and flushing of the face and trunk

A

red person syndrome

38
Q

stomach infection with bloody stools, watery diarrhea, and abdominal pain

A

c difficile

39
Q

pain, burning, redness and swelling at the IV site

A

Thrombophlebitis

40
Q

erythromycin is given with __ oz of water

A

8

41
Q

enzyme that stops potential resistance by blocking action of deactivation of beta-lactum

A

clavulanic acid

42
Q

indicated for active and latent TB

A

isoniazid

43
Q

TB: patients have cough longer than…

A

3 weeks

44
Q

med that inhibits growth of mycobacteria by preventing synthesis of mycolic acid in cell wall

A

isoniazid

45
Q

monitor what lab when taking isoniazid or rifampin?

A

LFTs

46
Q

c difficile is treated with oral

A

vancomycin

47
Q

penicillins and cephalosporins commonly used for what disorder?

A

pneumonia

48
Q

position for a pneumonia patient?

A

high fowlers

49
Q

penicillin or erythromycin commonly treat what?

A

glomerulonephritis

50
Q

observe a patient for how long after parental therapy?

A

30 min

51
Q

azithromycin 3 major complications:

A

dysthrymias, otoxicity, c diff and yeast infections

52
Q

when on fluoroquinolone, avoid what for 2 hours?

A

antacids