Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Principles of Disease > Infection > Flashcards

Infection Flashcards

1
Q

What different microorganisms can cause infection?

A 
Bacteria
Viruses
Fungi
Parasites
Prions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two broad classes of sites for the collection of samples?

A

Sterile

Non-sterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give examples of sterile sample sites (4)

A

Blood
CSF
Lung
Bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give examples of non-sterile sample sites (4)

A

Skin
Nasopharynx
Urethra
Gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the difference between sterile and non sterile sites and what meaning does this have clinically?

A

You would not normally find microorganisms in the sterile sites so this is usually clinically relevant.
Microorganisms can be found as part of the normal flora in non-sterile sites (eg E. coli in the gut) so identification of the infection is more difficult.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What sample would you collect for bacterial culture for a UTI?

A

Mid-stream urine sample (MSU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What sample would you collect for bacterial culture for a chest infection?

A

Sputum sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What sample would you collect for bacterial culture for Tonsillitis/Pharyngitis?

A

Throat Swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What sample would you collect for bacterial culture for a wound? (2)

A

Swab

Pus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What sample would you collect for bacterial culture for diarrhoea?

A

Stool sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What sample would you collect for bacterial culture for meningitis?

A

CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the drawbacks of microscopy in microbiology?

A

Not very sensitive (magnification reduces the volume of the sample viewed)
Cannot view viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can be viewed under the microscope in an unstained sample?

A 
Pus cells (eg in urine and CSF)
Parasites (eg in stool sample)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a gram stain used for?

A

Staining bacteria (and sometimes fungi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the drawbacks of a gram stain?

A

Not sensitive

Cannot normally identify a particular bacterial species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a ZN/auramine stain used for?

A

Mycobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the different ways to identify different species (and strains) of microorganisms (general)?

A

Use observable characteristics

  • Morphological
  • Physiological
  • Biochemical

Use DNA based testing

Use typing to distinguish between strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How would you detect and identify a viral infection?

A

Molecular testing
-PCR
Antigenic Testing
Serology to detect specific immunoglobulins and assess immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the differences between gram negative and gram positive organisms.

A

Gram positive

  • Thick peptidoglycan layer
  • No lipopolysaccharide layer

Gram Negative

  • Thin peptidoglycan layer
  • Lipopolysaccharide layer!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the process of gram staining

A

Specimen is heat fixed on a slide
Stained with the primary stain (crystal violet)
Gram’s iodine is added to form the crystal violet - iodine complex
Acetone or ethanol added to dissolve the lipopolysaccharide layer of Gram -ve bacteria (hence the lose colour)
Secondary stain (safranin) added - stains colourless cells pink/red.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What colour do Gram positive bacteria appear in a Gram stain?

A

Purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What colour do Gram negative bacteria appear in a gram stain?

A

Red/Pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do cocci appear?

A

Spherical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do bacilli appear?

A

Rod shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How to streptococci appear?

A

Chains of spherical bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do Staphylococci appear?

A

Bunch of spherical bacteria

“Bunch of grapes”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the function of a bacteria spore?

A

Form in response to environmental stress and is resistant to it - allows bacteria to survive until conditions improve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which bacteria can form spores?

A

Gram POSITIVE only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is peptidoglycan?

A

A polymer of disaccharides (glycan) cross linked with peptides.
A component of the cell wall of bacteria which is porous and has a high tensile strength.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is lipopolysaccharide?

A

A polymer consisting of lipid and polysaccharide found in the cells wall of bacteria. Elicits a strong immune response in humans. Contains the lipid A molecule which is toxic to humans (and released when the bacteria is lysed by immune cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the function of a bacterial capsule?

A

Prevents phagocytosis of the bacteria and can assist with adherence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the function of fimbrae?

A

Facilitate attachment to other cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Describe the process of horizontal gene transfer (conjugation)

A

Pilus formed between two bacteria
Plasmid DNA copied to receiving bacterium by rolling circle mechanism
○ Endonuclease cleaves one strand of plasmid at the origin of transfer
○ One strand of the plasmid separates from the plasmid and a new strand is synthesised in its place (hence rolling circle)
○ Complementary strand to single strand is synthesised in recipient cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the four causes of genetic variation in bacteria?

A

Spontaneous mutation
Transformation (uptake of DNA from outside the cell)
Conjugation (gene transfer from another bacterium)
Transduction (DNA incorporated from a phage in lysogenic cycle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a fungus?

A

a eukaryote that lacks chlorophyll and forms spores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a hypha?

A

A long branching filament of the fungus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are septa (fungus)?

A

Internal cross walls dividing hypha into cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are conidia?

A

A spore produced asexually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a conidiophore?

A

A region bearing conidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the characteristics of basidiomycetes?

A

Basidiospores formed externally on a pedestal (basidium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the characteristics of ascomycetes?

A

Ascopores formed inside a sac (ascus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the characteristics of Zygomycetes?

A

Haploid cells fuse to form a single zygospore

Rough walled Zygote contains Zygospore(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the sexual spore of Basidiomycetes?

A

Basidiospore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the asexual spore of Basidiomycetes?

A

Conidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the sexual spore of Ascomycetes?

A

Ascospore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the asexual spore of Ascomycetes?

A

Conidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the sexual spore of Zygomycetes?

A

Zygospore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the asexual spore of Zygomycetes?

A

Sporangiospore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are yeasts?

A

Fungi that favour a unicellular habitat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are dermatophytes?

A

Moulds which prefer keratin as a nutrient source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What types of infections do dermatophytes cause?

A

Tinea (ringworm) infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is Tinea capitis?

A

Ringworm infection of the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is Tinea pedis

A

Athletes foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is Tinea cruris

A

Dermatophyte infection of groin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When are serious systemic fungal infections more likely?

A

In immunosuppressed patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Name three iatrogenic causes of immunosuppression

A

Steroid therapy
Anticancer chemotherapy
Status post organ transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Name three disease processes which immunosuppress the patient

A

AIDs
Leukaemia
Endocrinopathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the main species of Candida fungi? (and mention any considerations regards drug therapy)

A

Candida albicans
Candida tropicalis
Candida glabrata
-C. glabrata usually has resistance to -azole antifungals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Name human diseases which can be caused by Candida species (7)

A 
Oral candidiasis
Vaginal cadidiasis
Skin infections
Nail infections
Oesophageal infections
UTIs
Disseminated infections (in very immunocomprimised pts)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Name the main Aspergillus species

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

Aspergillus flavus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Name human diseases which can be causes by Aspergillus species (5)

A

Simple asthma
Asthma with eosinophilia
Aspergilloma (forms a hollow in lung tissue in which to grow)
Invasive bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Name the main Cryptococcus species

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

Cryptocuccus gattii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Name human diseases which can be caused by Cryptococcus species (3)

A

Pulmonary cyrptococcosis
Meningitis (particularly in AIDs pts)
Disseminated infection (in very immunocomprimised pts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Describe methods for diagnosing fungal infections

A

Direct detection

  • Histopathology
  • High-res CT
  • Culture using selective media (ChromAgar)

Detection of circulating fungal antigens
Detection of circulating antibodies to fungal antigens
PCR of fungal DNA
Culture of fungus from sterile site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is a latent viral infection?

A

Virus lays dormant after initial infection and becomes active again some time later due to a stimulus (eg cold weather and HSV cold sores)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How can a whole virus be detected?

A

Microscopy (see infected cells)

Culture (comparison of infected vs uninfected cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How can part of a virus be detected?

A 
Antigen testing (same principle as pregnancy testing)
PCR of nucleic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How can viral infection be prevented?

A

Immunisation
-Vaccination
-Passive immunisation with Immunoglobulins
Prophylactic immunisation/prophylactic antivrial therapy post exposure
Infection prevention and control measures
Blood/Tissue/Organ screenning
Antenatal screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are some of the clinical signs of an infection? (7)

A 
Inflammation
Pain
Pyrexia
Tachycardia
Rigors
Increased White Cell Count
Increased C Reactive Protein (CRP)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

An organism that can cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is a commensal?

A

An organism that is part of the normal flora (eg E coli in the gut)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is pathogenicity?

A

The ability of a microorganism to cause an infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What two factors contribute to overall pathogenicity?

A

Infectivity

Virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is infectivity?

A

The ability of a microorganism to become established

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is virulence?

A

The ability of a microorganism to cause harmful effects once established

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Give two factors which can increase infectivity

A

Attachment (via fimbrae)

Acid resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Name three virulence factors

A

Invasiveness (rapidly producing or not)
Toxin production
Evasion of immune system

78
Q

What is an exotoxin?

A

A toxin released extracellularly

79
Q

Give an example of an exotoxin producing organism

A

Clostridium tetani releases toxin which binds to nerve synapses and inhibits release of inhibitory neurotransmitters (tetanus)

80
Q

What is an enterotoxin?

A

A toxin that acts in the GI tract

81
Q

What is an endotoxin?

A

A toxin which is structurally part of the Gram negative cell wall

82
Q

Name a specific endotoxin component

A

Lipid A molecule of the Lipopolysaccharide layer of the Gram negative cell wall.

83
Q

Describe three viral pathogenic mechanisms

A 
Cell destruction following viral infection (eg Death of CD4+ T cells by HIV)
Virus-induced changes to cellular gene expression (cellular transformation by tumour viruses)
Immunopathogenic disease (Influenza A, Coxsackievirus-induced myocarditis)
84
Q

What is an acute viral infection?

A

Virus infects host and multiply to cause symptoms. Infection is then cleared from the body.

85
Q

What is a latent viral infection?

A

Host infected acutely and lies dormant in the lysogenic cycle after initial infection with no symptoms in host. Due to some stimulus the virus is reactivated some time later.

86
Q

What is a chronic viral infection?

A

After initial infection virus achieves steady state patient is symptomatic long term

87
Q

What is antigenic drift in viruses?

A

The gradual evolution of viruses to generate antigenic variants

88
Q

What is antigenic shift in viruses?

A

The sudden significant changes in virus antigenic structure

89
Q

Why is antigenic shift concerning?

A

There is a much lower change of a person having immunity to a virus which has undergone antigenic shift. This leads to the possibility of a pandemic.

90
Q

What are enteroviruses?

A

Viruses which pass through the GI tract

91
Q

What kind of symptoms can enteroviruses present with?

A 
A variety (respiratory, neurological, etc) 
NB: do not necessarily present with GI symptoms!
92
Q

What is innate immunity?

A

Non-specific immunity

93
Q

What is active immunity?

A

Body mounts its own immune response to a foreign antigen

94
Q

What is passive immunity?

A

Body does not mount its own immune response to foreign antigens. Antibodies are given passively.

95
Q

What is natural active immunity?

A

Body mounts immune response to a pathogen it is seeing for the first time and then has immunity to it conferred by memory cells.

96
Q

What is artificial active immunity?

A

Immune response to a vaccine which gives immunity to the real pathogen

97
Q

What is passive natural immunity?

A

Antibodies passed to infant from mother (eg via breast milk)

98
Q

What is artificial passive immunity?

A

Immunisation of antibodies given (eg Rabies immunisation)

99
Q

What are the advantages of passive immunity?

A

Gives immediate protection

100
Q

What are the disadvantages of passive immunity?

A

Short term effect (no immunological memory)

Serum sickness may occur - incoming antibody is recognised as foreign by recipient resulting in anaphylaxis

101
Q

What is a live attenuated vaccine?

A

A live pathogen that has been repeatedly cultured in a non-human host and has become adapted to the foreign host and has lost its virulence to humans.

102
Q

What are the advantages of live attenuated vaccines?

A

They elicit strong cellular and antibody responses and often confer lifelong immunity

103
Q

What are the disadvantages of live attenuated vaccines?

A

Remote possibility that the attenuated pathogen could revert to a virulent form and cause disease.
Needs to be refridgerated

104
Q

What is an inactivated vaccine?

A

A vaccine produced by killing the pathogen with: chemicals (formaldehyde), heat, or radiation.

105
Q

What are the advantages of inactivated vaccines?

A

More stable and safer than live vaccines

Usually don’t require refridgeration - can be freeze-dried hence more accessible to developing countries.

106
Q

What are the disadvantages of inactivated vaccines?

A

Stimulate a weaker immune response than live attenuated vaccines.
Usually require several boosters to maintain immunity.

107
Q

What is an acellular vaccine?

A

A vaccine which uses only the antigenic part of the pathogen

108
Q

What is the main advantage of acellular vaccines?

A

Cannot cause disease so safe in immunocomprimised patients

109
Q

What is a toxoid vaccine?

A

A vaccine made with inactivated toxin.

110
Q

How are toxoid vaccines made?

A

Toxin is inactivated by treatment with formalin.

111
Q

What is a conjugate vaccine?

A

A vaccine which links polysaccharides which are difficult for the immune system to recognised to strong antigens which elicit a stronger immune response. This allows the immune system to respond to the polysaccharide.

112
Q

What is a parasite?

A

An organism that lives in another organism (host) and gets its food at the expense of the host.

113
Q

Give three examples of protozoa

A

Malaria
Amoebae
Flagellates

114
Q

Give three examples of helminths

A

Roundworms (Nematodes)
Flatworms (Platyhelminths)
Flukes

115
Q

Give three examples of arthropods

A

Lice
Ticks
Mites

116
Q

How are protozoa that live in the human intestine transmitted?

A

Via the faecal-oral route

117
Q

How are protozoa living in human blood or tissue transmitted?

A

Via an arthropod vector

118
Q

What is Malaria?

A

A mosquito-borne disease caused by the parasitic Plasmodium species.

119
Q

How does malaria present?

A

Flu like symptoms

120
Q

Which Plasmodium species causes the highest mortality from Malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

121
Q

What is the vector for Malaria?

A

The female Anopheles mosquito

122
Q

Describe the life cycle of Malaria

A

Sporozoites injected under skin by mosquito
Travel to liver through blood
Mature in liver
Re-enters circulation as merozoites
Invades erythrocytes, multiplies and lyse cells. Go on to infect more cells.
Sexual forms taken up by biting mosquito

123
Q

How is Malaria diagnosed?

A

Using thick and thin blood smears

Giemsa stained films show parasitaemia

124
Q

Discuss methods for controlling malaria

A

Use of insecticide treated nets
Prophylactic treatment
There is research into a vaccine

125
Q

What is amoebic dysentery caused by?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

126
Q

What are the symptoms of amoebic dysentery?

A

Diarrhoea with blood/pus

127
Q

What are the signs of amoebic dysentery?

A 
Cysts in formed stools
Intestinal and extraintestinal infection
Liver abscess (in late stage)
128
Q

What is Leishmaniases caused by?

A

Leishmania species

129
Q

What are the three types of Leishmaniases and their associated signs and symptoms?

A

Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
-Skin ulceration

Mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis
-Mucosal ulceration

Visceral Leishmaniasis

  • Fever
  • Weightloss
  • Hepatosplenomegaly (swelling of liver and spleen)
130
Q

How is Leishmaniases contracted?

A

Through sandfly bites

131
Q

How is Leishmaniases diagnosed?

A

Histology of biopsy

132
Q

What are nematodes?

A

Roundworms

133
Q

How are nematode infections diagnosed?

A

Adhesive tape placed against perianal region mane

Ova seen on microscopy

134
Q

Give an example of a parasitic nematode

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

135
Q

Describe the life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides

A 
Ingested eggs hatch in intestine 
Larvae carried by circulation to lungs
Swallowed again
Adult worms develop in and inhabit small intestine
Ova in faeces
136
Q

Note possible symptoms associated with Ascaris lumbricoides

A

Transient pulmonary symptoms

A mass of worms may occlude small intestine or common bile duct

137
Q

What are cestodes?

138
Q

Discuss Taenia species

A

Cestode
Two species
-Taenia saginata (in beef)
Taenia solium (in pork)

Larval cysts are ingested in meat (the intermedate host)
Adult tapeworm develops in humans
Ova in stools on microscopy

139
Q

Discuss Echnococcus species

A 
Cestode
Carried by dogs, wolves, and foxes
Humans ingest eggs (from dog faeces)
Eggs hatch and enter circulation
Hydatid cyst forms in liver
Surgical resection of whole cyst required
140
Q

What are trematodes?

141
Q

Give an example of a parasitic trematode

A

Schistosomiasis (bilharzia)

142
Q

What are the three major species of schistosomiasis and where do the infections present in the body?

A

S. haematobium - bladder
S. mansoni - intestine
S japonicum - intestine

143
Q

Describe the life cycle of Schistosomiasis

A 
§ Ova (eggs) excreted in urine or faeces
			§ Miracidia released in fresh water
			§ Penetrate body of snail (intermediate host)
			§ Cercaria emerge from snails
			§ Penetrate human skin
			§ Migrate through lungs to liver
			§ Mature in liver to worms (schistosomes) that migrate to mesenteric or bladder venules
Lay eggs that cause inflammation
144
Q

What are the different techniques which can be used in the diagnosis of parasitic infections?

A

(Identification in host tissue or excreta)
Microscopy of different stages (PCO)
Thick and thin blood films for malaria
Serology for antibodies

145
Q

Which of the following answers is correct?
Reverse transcriptase inhibitors:

a) Levels should be monitored
b) Used to treat HIV infection
c) Used to treat Herpes Simplex Virus infection
d) Acts only on Gram negative bacteria
e) Acts only on the yeast form of fungi
f) Acts on protein synthesis
g) Macrolide
h) Cephalosporin
i) Tetracycline
j) Used in the treatment of athletes foot

146
Q

Which of the following answers is correct?
Vancomycin:

a) Levels should be monitored
b) Used to treat HIV infection
c) Used to treat Herpes Simplex Virus infection
d) Acts only on Gram negative bacteria
e) Acts only on the yeast form of fungi
f) Acts on protein synthesis
g) Macrolide
h) Cephalosporin
i) Tetracycline
j) Used in the treatment of athletes foot

147
Q

Which of the following answers is correct?
Classified as a beta-lactam antibiotic:

a) Levels should be monitored
b) Used to treat HIV infection
c) Used to treat Herpes Simplex Virus infection
d) Acts only on Gram negative bacteria
e) Acts only on the yeast form of fungi
f) Acts on protein synthesis
g) Macrolide
h) Cephalosporin
i) Tetracycline
j) Used in the treatment of athletes foot

148
Q

Vancomycin and teicoplanin
Which term or description below matches the above?

a) prophylaxis
b) synergy
c) Antagonism
d) A very high MIC
e) Inhibitors of beta-lactamase activity
f) Suitable for topical treatment of fungal infection
g) suitable antibiotics to treat MRSA
h) Aminoglycosides
i) Activity against RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)
j) A very low MIC

149
Q

Ribavarin
Which term or description below matches the above?

a) prophylaxis
b) synergy
c) Antagonism
d) A very high MIC
e) Inhibitors of beta-lactamase activity
f) Suitable for topical treatment of fungal infection
g) suitable antibiotics to treat MRSA
h) Aminoglycosides
i) Activity against RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)
j) A very low MIC

150
Q

Desirable in order for an antibiotic to be effective against a specific organism
Which term or description below matches the above?

a) prophylaxis
b) synergy
c) Antagonism
d) A very high MIC
e) Inhibitors of beta-lactamase activity
f) Suitable for topical treatment of fungal infection
g) suitable antibiotics to treat MRSA
h) Aminoglycosides
i) Activity against RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)
j) A very low MIC

151
Q

Active against Herpes Simplex Virus
Which antimicrobial agent below fits with the statement above?

a) Vancomycin
b) Gentamicin
c) Aciclovir
d) Amoxicillin
e) Flucloxacillin
f) Nystatin
g) Nitrofurantoin
h) Amphotericin
i) Benzylpenicillin
j) Zidovudine

152
Q

Used in combined preparation with clavulanic acid
Which antimicrobial agent below fits with the statement above?

a) Vancomycin
b) Gentamicin
c) Aciclovir
d) Amoxicillin
e) Flucloxacillin
f) Nystatin
g) Nitrofurantoin
h) Amphotericin
i) Benzylpenicillin
j) Zidovudine

153
Q

An antifungal for topical use only
Which antimicrobial agent below fits with the statement above?

a) Vancomycin
b) Gentamicin
c) Aciclovir
d) Amoxicillin
e) Flucloxacillin
f) Nystatin
g) Nitrofurantoin
h) Amphotericin
i) Benzylpenicillin
j) Zidovudine

154
Q 
True or False:
Penicillin G (benzylpenicillin) interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis in the bacterial cell wall.
155
Q

True or False

An organism which is sensitive to an antibiotic will always be killed by it.

156
Q

True or False:

An infection should ideally be treated with an antibiotic with high MIC for the causative organism.

157
Q

True or False:

Amphotericin B acts against a wide range of bacteria.

158
Q

True or False:

Vancomycin and penicillin act on a different stage of cell wall synthesis.

159
Q

True or False:

Aminoglycosides act on DNA synthesis.

160
Q

True or False:

Trimethoprim interferes with protein synthesis at the ribosomal level.

161
Q

True or False:

The differing ribosomes of mammalian and bacterial cells allow selective toxicity.

162
Q

True or False:

Resistance of a known bacterial species to a known antibiotic can always be predicted on theoretical grounds.

163
Q

True or False:

All antibiotic resistance is caused by genes carried on plasmids.

164
Q

True or False:

All penicillins are inactivated by β-lactamase.

165
Q

True or False:

All Staph aureus strains are sensitive to flucloxacillin.

166
Q

True or False:

Amoxicillin is a good choice for ‘blind’ treatment of severe infection with Gram negative coliforms.

167
Q

True or false:

Piperacillin has an extended spectrum and is active against Pseudomonas species.

168
Q

True or False:

Penicillin allergic patients may also be allergic to cephalosporins.

169
Q

True or False:

Vancomycin is only active against anaerobes

170
Q

True or False:

Vancomycin is only active against Gram +ve organisms

171
Q

True or False:
Third generation cephalosporins (eg, ceftazidime) have better anti-staphylococcal activity than the earlier cephalosporins

172
Q

True or False:

All antibiotic resistance is caused by β-lactamases

173
Q

Metronidazole is widely used to treat anaerobic infection

174
Q

True or False:

Gentamicin is associated with nephrotoxicity

175
Q

True or false:

Gentamicin is associated with otoxicity.

176
Q

True or false:

Pseudomembranous colitis usually results from vancomycin treatment.

177
Q

True or false:

Thrush is due to overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria during broad spectrum antibiotic therapy.

178
Q

True or False:

Serum levels of gentamicin and vancomycin can be monitored in the laboratory to minimise the risk of toxicity.

179
Q

True or False:

In antiobiotic therapy prophylaxis should be given before every operation

180
Q

True or False:

The use of two antibiotics is always more effective than monotherapy.

181
Q

True or False:

MIC and MBC determination is the most accurate way of determining an organism’s antibiotic susceptibility.

182
Q

True or False:

All infections can be adequately treated by seven days of the appropriate antibiotic therapy

183
Q

True or false:

Antibiotic therapy should never be started before the results of laboratory sensitivity tests are available

184
Q

True or False:

Amphotericin B is the treatment of choice for all fungal infections.

185
Q

True or False:

Amphotericin B treatment should not be started until laboratory sensitivity results are available

186
Q

True or False:
Intravenous nystatin is indicated for the treatment of serious fungal infection. Topical antifungal preparations can be used to treat fungal skin infections

187
Q

True or false:

Fluconazole is active against yeasts but not against filamentous fungi such as Aspergillus.

188
Q

True or false:

Aciclovir is used to treat infection with all herpes viruses

189
Q

True or false: All antiviral drugs act by inhibiting viral nucleic acid synthesi

190
Q

True or False:

Zidovudine (ZDV) alone is the best treatment for AIDS

191
Q

True or False:

Oseltamivir is widely used to treat hepatitis B infection

192
Q

True or False:

Aciclovir treatment abolishes carriage of herpes simplex virus.

Principles of Disease (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions