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Principles of Disease > Drug Therapy > Flashcards

Drug Therapy Flashcards

1
Q

Define the term Pharmaceutical Process

A

Getting the drug into the patient

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2
Q

Define the term pharmacokinetic process.

A

getting the drug to the site of action

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3
Q

Define the term pharmacodynamic process.

A

Producing the pharmacological effect

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4
Q

Define the term therapeutic process.

A

Producing the therapeutic effect.

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5
Q

What are the four basic factors that determine drug pharmacokinetics?

A

ADME

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Elimination

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6
Q

Define the term absorption

A

The process of movement of unchanged drug from the site of administration to the systemic circulation

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7
Q

Define Tmax

A

The time to peak concentration

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8
Q

Define Cmax

A

The peak concentration

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9
Q

Complete the sentence: The more rapid the rate of absorption the …

A

… earlier the Tmax

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10
Q

What effect does increase dose have on Cmax

A

Increases Cmax

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11
Q

What does area under the drug concentration-time curve show?

A

Total drug absorbed into the systemic circulation

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12
Q

How is bio-availability of a formulation calculated?

A

AUC for formulation compared to that of IV

Drug given IV has 100% availability

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13
Q

What factors would contribute to a drug’s ability to pass physiological barrier which would affect its bio-availability?

A

Particle size

Lipid solubility
-Drug must be in solution and lipid soluble, ability to cross lipid membrane determined by lipid-water partition coefficient

pH and ionisation

  • Ionised drugs do NOT cross the membrane
  • Most drugs acids/bases so ionisation depends on pH
  • Changes in pH will affect rate of absorption (eg PPI use)
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14
Q

What gastrointestinal effects would affect a drug’s bio-availability?

A

Gut motility

  • Affect speed at which drug reaches site of action
  • Can be affected by: food/drink, other drugs, illness (eg Coeliac and malabsorption, migraine reduces stomach emptying)
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15
Q

What is first pass metabolism?

A

Metabolism of a drug prior to reaching systemic circulation
(Drug absorbed by digestive system and reaches liver before rest of body. Most drug metabolised on this first pass through the liver)

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16
Q

Discuss how different routes of administration can affect bio-availability
(SC/IM, SL/Bucca, PR, Inhalation/Nasal, Transdermal)

A

SC/IM

  • Can change rate of absoption with different formulations
  • Dependent on blood flow to site
  • Avoids first pass metabolism

Sublingual/Buccal

  • Bypasses first pass metabolism
  • Enters circulation directly

Rectal

  • Bypasses first pass metabolism
  • Slow absorption
Inhalation/Nasal
-Dependent on:
 >type of delivery system
 >Pt technique
 >Particle size
-Relatively rapid action
-Good for topical effect

Transdermal
-Avoids first pass metabolism

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17
Q

State factors affecting drug distribution. (7)

A 
Plasma protein binding
Tissue perfusion
Membrane characteristics (blood-brain, blood-testes/ovary)
Transport Mechanisms
Disease 
Other drugs
Elimination
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18
Q

Why do plasma proteins affect drug distribution?

A

Many drugs bind to plasma proteins (eg albumin)
Only the UNBOUND drug is active
Binding is reversible

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19
Q

What can affect the amount of drug bound to a plasma protein?

A 
Renal failure
Hypoabluminaema
Pregnancy
Other drugs
-(eg NSAID displacing Warfarin)
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20
Q

What is apparent volume of distribution?

A

the theoretical volume in which the amount of drug would be uniformly distributed in to produce the observed blood concentration

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21
Q

How is Vd calculated?

A

Volume of distribution = total amount of drug in the body / drug blood plasma concentration

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22
Q

Complete the sentence: the greater the Vd the …

A

… greater the ability of the drug to diffuse through membranes

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23
Q

What would a Vd of 8L reflect?

A

A high degree of plasma protein binding

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24
Q

What would a Vd of around 30L represent

A

Distribution in total body water

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25
Q

What would a Vd of 15000L reflect?

A

A highly lipophilic molecule which distributes into total body fat

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26
Q

What is clearance?

A

the theoretical volume of fluid from which a drug is completely removed from over a period of time

(is a measure of elimination)

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27
Q

What is renal clearance dependent on?

A

Concentration and urine flow rate

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28
Q

What is hepatic clearance dependent on?

A

Metabolism and biliary excretion

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29
Q

What is half life?

A

The time taken for the blood drug concentration to decrease by half

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30
Q

What will the effect of a prolonged half life be?

A

Increased toxicity

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31
Q

What is drug elimination?

A

The removal of the active drug and metabolites from the body

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32
Q

What does elimination determine?

A

The length of action of a drug

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33
Q

Where does drug metabolism normally occur

A

Liver

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34
Q

Where can drug excretion occur?

A

!Kidney
Biliary system/Gut
Lung
Milk

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35
Q

What are the three principle mechanisms involved in excretion?

A

Glomerular filtration
Passive tubular reabsorption
Active tubular secretion

36
Q

Discuss passive tubular reabsoption

A

As filtrate moves down the renal tubule any drug present is concentrated
Passive diffusion allows drug to be reabsorbed into the circulation.
However only unionised drugs are reabsorbed

37
Q

Discuss active tubular secretion

A 
Some drugs (acidic and basic compounds) are actively secreted into the proximal tubule.
Important for the elimination of protein bound charged drugs.
38
Q

What is drug metabolism?

A

The biochemical modification of pharmaceutical substances by living organisms usually through specialised enzymatic acitivity

39
Q

What does metabolism do to a drug (broadly speaking)?

A

Makes the water soluble to be excreted

40
Q

List the important sites of metabolism

A

!Liver
Lining of the gut
Kidneys
Lungs

41
Q

What are prodrugs?

A

Drugs that are activated following metabolism

42
Q

Give two examples of prodrugs

A

Codeine

Enalapril

43
Q

What does Phase 1 of metabolism do?

A

Increases the polarity of a compound

Involves hydrolysis, oxidation, or reduction.

44
Q

What is the most important family of metabolic enzymes?

A

Cytochrome p-450 enzymes

45
Q

What is determined by the isoform of cytochrome p-450?

A

Drug specificity of the enzyme

46
Q

Discuss CYP3A4

A

Major constantly produced enzyme in the liver, contributes to metabolism of a wide range of drugs
Also found in the gut and is responsible for pre-systemic metabolism of several drugs
Example drugs metabolised by CYP3A4: Diazepam, Methadone, Simvastatin

47
Q

Discuss CYP2D6

A

Responsible for the metabolism of: some antidepressants, some antipsychotics, codeine to morphine
Is absent or reduced in 5-10% of the population: hence immune to analgesic action of codeine
Is induced by cigarette smoke: hence important to consider in psychiatric patients

48
Q

What does phase 2 metabolism do?

A

Increases water solubility and enhances excretion of compound
Conjugation

49
Q

What is the mechanism of phase 2 metabolism?

A 
Attachment of one of the following to the phase 1 metabolite:
Glucuronic acid
Glutathione
Suphate
Acetate
50
Q

State eight factors which affect drug metabolism

A 
Other drugs/herbals
Genetics
Hepatic blood flow
Liver disease
Age
Sex
Ethnicity
Pregnancy
51
Q

What is the consequence of enzyme induction?

A

Decreased effect due to increased metabolism

52
Q

State five of the most common enzyme inducers.

A 
Alcohol
Cigarette smoke
St Johns Wort
Carbamazepine
Rifampicin
53
Q

What is a possible consequence of enzyme inhibition?

A

Toxicity

54
Q

State six common enzyme inhibitors.

A 
Cimetidine
Erythromycin
Clarithromycin
Ketoconazole
Grapefruit
Calcium channel blockers
55
Q

List different drug formulations (general) (13)

A 
Tablets
Capsules
Solutions
Suspensions
Ointments
Creams
Lotions
Topical solution
Inhalation
Injection
Suppository
Pessary
Transdermal patch
56
Q

Consider different tablet formulations

A

MR/SR/PR

GR/EC

57
Q

Why are some tablets enteric coated?

A

To protect drug from stomach acid (eg Omperazole)

To protect the stomach from the drug (eg Aspirin ec gr)

58
Q

Give an example of when IM administration may be contraindicated?

A

Pt on warfarin (bleed into muscle)

59
Q

What is an adverse drug reaction?

A

any response to a drug which is noxious, unintended and occurs at doses used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis or treatment

60
Q

What is classed as an acute onset ADR and what would a typical symptom be?

A

Occurs within 60 mins

Bronchoconstriction

61
Q

What is classed as a subacute onset ADR and what would a typical symptom be?

A

Occurswithin 1-24 hours

Rash, serum sickness

62
Q

What is classed as a latent onset ADR and what would a typical symptom be?

A

Occurs more than 2 days later

Eczematous eruptions

63
Q

What is a mild ADR?

Give an example

A

A bothersome reaction, no change in therapy is needed

Metallic taste associated with metronidazole

64
Q

What is a moderate ADR?

Give an example

A

An ADR requiring a change in therapy, additional treatment or hospitalisation

Amphotericin induced hypokalaemia

65
Q

What is a severe ADR?

Give an example

A

An ADR which is disabling or life threatening

Kidney failure

66
Q

What is a type A ADR?

A

An augmented response which is predictable and dose related

Eg. bradycardia with beta-blockers

67
Q

What is a type B ADR?

A

A bizarre reaction which can cause serious illness or death

Can go unidentified for years

68
Q

What is a type C ADR?

A 
○ Chronic
		○ Semi-predictable
		○ Examples
			§ Steroid induced osteoporosis
Opiate dependence
69
Q

What is a type D ADR?

A

○ Delayed
○ In children of treated patients
○ In treated patients many years after treatment stopped
○ Examples
§ Second cancers in those treated with alkylating agents
Malformations in children whose mothers took certain drugs

70
Q

What is a type E ADR?

A

○ End of treatment (sudden)
○ Examples
§ Unstable angina and hypertension when β-blockers stopped
Addisonian crisis when long term steroids stopped

71
Q

What is a type F ADR?

A

○ Failure of therapy
○ Commonly caused by drug interactions
○ Examples
Failure of oral contraceptives when given with hepatic enzyme inducers/antibiotics

72
Q

What are some predisposing factors to ADRs?

A 
Polypharmacy
Age (elderly, neonates)
Sex (more common in women)
Disease (renal or hepatic impairment)
Race and genetics
73
Q

What is a drug interaction?

A

the modification of a drugs effect by prior of concomitant administration of another drug, herb, foodstuff or drink

74
Q

What is an object drug?

A

The drug whose activity is affected by the interaction

75
Q

What is a precipitant? (in the context of interactions)

A

the agent which precipitates the interaction

76
Q

Which patients are particularly susceptible to interactions?

A 
Those on multiple drugs
Elderly 
Young
Critically ill
Those undergoing complex surgery
Those with chronic conditions such as
-Liver disease
-Renal impairment
-Diabetes mellitus
-Epilepsy
-Asthma
77
Q

Give an example of a direct anatgonistic pharmacodynamic interaction

A

Beta blockers block action of bronchodilators (Propranolol and salbutamol)

78
Q

Give an example of an indirect antagonistic pharmacodynamic interaction

A

NSAIDs and antihypertensives

79
Q

List different was drug interactions can affect absorption

A

Formation of insoluble complexes (eg tetracycline and erythromycin complex with iron, calcium and magnesium)
Altered pH affecting ionisation (PPIs H2 antagonists, antacids)
Altered bacterial flora (may lead to failure of oral contraceptives or digoxin toxicity)
Altered GI motility (most drugs absorbed in small intestine, gastric emptying is rate limiting step)

80
Q

How can interactions affect distribution?

A

Protein binding displacement

81
Q

Gives examples of drugs which inhibit cytochrome p450 enzymes

A 
Erythromycin
Clarithromycin
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Omeprazole
Calcium channel blockers
82
Q

Give examples of drugs that induce cytochrome p450 enzymes

A 
Barbiturates
Carbamazapine
Phenytoin
Rifampacin
Tobacco smoke
83
Q

Discuss how drug interactions can affect elimination

A

changes in GFR or tubular secretion
§ Example:
□ Calcium channel blockers and digoxin
® CCBs inhibit excretion, digoxin is toxic
□ Loop diuretics and lithium
® Loop diuretics increase tubular reabsorption, lithium is toxic

84
Q

Discuss the stages of a clinical trial

A

• Preclinical development
○ Tissue Culture
○ Animal pharmacology
§ Dose
§ Adverse effects
○ Animal toxicology
§ Teratogenicity
§ Fertility
§ Mutagenicity
• Phase I (volunteer studies)
○ Pharmacology in normal volunteers
○ Give pharmacokinetic, metabolic and pharmacodynamic data
○ Usually around 100 subjects
○ Certain drugs (eg cytotoxics bypass this phase)
• Phase II
○ Investigations to confirm kinetics and dynamics in patients
○ Gives some evidence of efficacy and likely dosage
○ Involves up to 500 patients
• Phase III
○ Formal therapeutic trial establishing efficacy and safety
○ Involves 1000-15,000 patients
○ After this stage application for a license is submitted
• Phase IV
○ Postmarketing surveillance for evidence of long term safety
○ May involve hundreds of thousands of patients worldwide

85
Q

Contrast placebo controlled and comparison studies

A

○ Placebo controlled study
§ 100 pts, 50 get active drug 50 get placebo
§ Does the drug work?
○ Comparison with other therapy
§ 100 pts, 50 take drug in study and 50 get another therapy
Is the drug better than the existing therapy?

86
Q

Contrast parallel studies with crossover studies

A 
○ Parallel
			§ Participants get either A or B
		○ Crossover
			§ Half of participants get A half get B
			§ Wash out period
Cohorts swap and get other treatment

Principles of Disease (6 decks)

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