infection Flashcards
1
Q
Describe the nature of viruses.
A
Viruses are not considered living organisms and require a host cell to replicate.
2
Q
Define bacteria.
A
Bacteria are single-celled organisms that are considered living.
3
Q
Describe the cellular structure of fungi.
A
Fungi are mostly multicellular organisms with complex structures, including a cell wall made of chitin.
4
Q
What is the replication process of viruses?
A
Viruses replicate inside host cells.
5
Q
How do bacteria reproduce?
A
Bacteria reproduce independently through binary fission
6
Q
Describe the reproductive methods of fungi.
A
Fungi reproduce through both sexual and asexual means, involving spores.
7
Q
Compare the size of viruses, bacteria, and fungi.
A
Viruses are much smaller, bacteria are larger than viruses, and fungi are larger than bacteria.
8
Q
Do viruses carry out metabolic processes without a host?
A
No, viruses cannot carry out metabolic processes without a host.
9
Q
What are the effects of bacteria on humans?
A
Some bacteria are harmful (pathogenic), while others are beneficial.
10
Q
How do fungi affect humans?
A
Fungi can cause infections, particularly in immunocompromised individuals.
11
Q
Describe the structure of a virus.
A
A virus has genetic material (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat called a capsid.
12
Q
What is the main difference between viruses and bacteria?
A
Viruses have genetic material surrounded by a protein coat, while bacteria are single-celled organisms with a cell wall.
13
Q
Describe the different categories of microorganisms that cause infections.
A
Bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, helminths (parasitic worms), and prions.
14
Q
Name some viruses that can cause infections.
A
Influenza virus, Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), Herpes simplex virus, SARS-CoV-2 (causing COVID-19).
15
Q
Give examples of bacteria that can cause infections.
A
Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Escherichia coli (E. coli), Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
16
Q
What are some examples of fungi that can cause infections?
A
Candida albicans (causes yeast infections), Aspergillus, Cryptococcus.
17
Q
List some protozoa that can cause infections.
A
Plasmodium (causes malaria), Giardia lamblia, Toxoplasma gondii.
18
Q
What are helminths and give examples of parasitic worms that can cause infections?
A
Helminths are parasitic worms. Examples include roundworms, tapeworms, and flukes.
19
Q
Describe the purpose of culturing microorganisms for diagnostic purposes.
A
To detect and identify the presence of infections.
20
Q
Define prions and their association with diseases.
A
Prions are unusual infectious agents primarily associated with neurodegenerative diseases.
21
Q
What are some common specimen types used for culturing microorganisms?
A
Blood, urine, sputum, stool, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), wound swabs, throat swabs, nasal swabs, genital swabs, tissue biopsy.
22
Q
How is blood used in culturing microorganisms for diagnostic purposes?
A
It is used to detect systemic infections.
23
Q
What is the purpose of collecting urine as a specimen for culturing microorganisms?
A
It is commonly used to detect urinary tract infections.
24
Q
Define sputum and explain its role in culturing microorganisms.
A
Sputum is mucus from the respiratory tract, and it is helpful in diagnosing respiratory infections.
25
What is the purpose of collecting cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) samples?
CSF samples are collected in cases of suspected central nervous system infections.
26
What are wound swabs used for?
Wound swabs are used to identify the causative organisms in wounds or skin lesions.
27
How are throat swabs used in the laboratory?
Throat swabs are used to identify bacteria causing throat infections like strep throat.
28
What is the purpose of collecting nasal swabs?
Nasal swabs are collected to identify nasal infections or carriers of certain bacteria.
29
Describe the use of genital swabs in laboratory testing.
Genital swabs are used to detect infections in the genital area
30
What type of samples are tissue biopsies?
Tissue biopsies are deeper tissue samples collected for analysis.
31
What factors determine the choice of specimen for testing?
The suspected site of infection and the type of microorganism being investigated determine the choice of specimen.
32
What is important in handling and collecting different specimen types?
Specific collection and handling procedures are important to ensure accurate results for each specimen type.
33
Describe the purpose of Gram staining in microscopy.
Gram staining helps categorize bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative, providing initial information about their cell wall structure.
34
What is the benefit of using microscopy for rapid preliminary identification of bacteria?
Microscopic examination can offer a quick preliminary identification of bacteria, aiding in the selection of appropriate culture media and initial treatment decisions.
35
How can examining bacterial morphology under the microscope provide clues about the nature of the infection?
Examining bacterial morphology (shape, arrangement) under the microscope can provide clues about the nature of the infection and potential bacterial species involved.
36
What other elements can microscopy reveal besides bacteria?
Microscopy can also reveal the presence of other elements, such as white blood cells, which may indicate an inflammatory response to bacterial infection.
37
Define microscopy.
Microscopy is a technique that allows direct visualization of bacterial cells in clinical specimens.
38
Describe the process of culturing in microbiology.
Culturing involves placing clinical specimens on specific nutrient media to encourage bacterial growth.
39
What is the purpose of isolation in culturing?
Isolation allows for the identification of individual bacterial colonies.
40
How does culture help in determining antibiotic susceptibility?
Culture is essential for determining the antibiotic susceptibility of bacterial isolates.
41
Why is quantification important in culture?
Quantification allows for assessing the severity of the infection by measuring bacterial load.
42
What is the main difference between microscopy and culture in microbiology?
Culture is often considered the gold standard for Microscopy provides rapid insights, while culture allows for isolating, identifying, and characterizing bacteria in detail.
43
Describe the role of culture in selecting antimicrobial therapy.
Culture helps guide the selection of the most effective antimicrobial therapy based on antibiotic susceptibility testing
44
Describe sterile sites.
Sterile in the body are areas that are generally free from microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and other pathogens.
45
What are the characteristics of sterile sites?
Sterile sites are typically protected by natural barriers, such as intact skin or mucous membranes, that prevent the entry of microorganisms.
46
Give examples of sterile sites in the body.
bloodstream, cerebrospinal fluid, and the interior of organs and tissues that are normally free from microorganisms.
47
How are sterile sites protected from microorganisms?
Sterile sites are protected by natural barriers, such as intact skin or mucous membranes, that prevent the entry of microorganisms.
48
Describe non-sterile sites.
Non-sterile sites are areas of the body that naturally harbor microorganisms or are exposed to the external environment, making them prone to microbial colonization.
49
What are some examples of non-sterile sites?
Some examples of non-sterile sites include the skin, mouth, gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, and genitourinary tract.
50
What is the role of the body's microbiota in non-sterile sites?
The body's microbiota in non-sterile sites play important roles in various physiological processes, such as digestion, immune system development, and protection against pathogenic invaders.
51
Describe the purpose of Polymerase Chain Reaction PCR).
Amplifies viral nucleic acids for detection.
52
What is the purpose of Reverse Transcription PCR (RT-PCR)?
Used for RNA viruses by converting RNA to complementary DNA before amplification.
53
Define Quantitative PCR (qPCR).
Quantifies the amount of viral nucleic acid present.
54
What is the function of Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)?
Detects viral antigens or antibodies produced in response to the virus.
55
Describe the process of Western Blot.
Identifies specific viral proteins through antigen-antibody interactions.
56
What is the purpose of Neutralization Assays?
Measures the ability of antibodies to neutralize viral activity.
57
Explain the process of Viral Culture.
Involves growing viruses in cultured cells to observe cytopathic effects.
58
What are the advantages of Viral Culture?
Allows for virus isolation and characterization.
59
Describe direct immunofluorescence (DFA).
Direct immunofluorescence (DFA) is a technique used to detect viral antigens directly in clinical samples.
60
What is the purpose of indirect immunofluorescence (IFA)?
The purpose of indirect immunofluorescence (IFA) is to detect antibodies against viral antigens in patient serum.
61
Define next-generation sequencing (NGS).
Next-generation sequencing (NGS) is a technique that identifies viral genomes directly from clinical samples without prior knowledge of the virus.
62
Describe lateral flow assays.
Lateral flow assays are rapid diagnostic tests that provide quick results for specific viral infections and are common in point-of-care settings.
63
What is the technique used in fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)?
Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) is a technique used to locate viral nucleic acids in cells or tissues.
64
Do metagenomic sequencing techniques require prior knowledge of the virus?
No, metagenomic sequencing techniques identify viral genomes directly from clinical samples without prior knowledge of the virus.
65
What are the limitations of electron microscopy in viral detection?
Electron microscopy is limited by the need for high viral concentrations.
66
Describe the clinical presentation in parasitology.
Clinical presentation involves considering patient symptoms and physical signs to guide suspicion of a parasitic infection.
67
What is the importance of epidemiological history in parasitology?
Epidemiological history, including geographical location and exposure history, can provide valuable clues in narrowing down possibilities of a parasitic infection.
68
How can symptoms and signs vary in parasitic infections?
Symptoms and signs can vary widely depending on the type of parasite and the affected organ system.
69
What is the role of laboratory testing in parasitology?
Laboratory testing, such as microscopy, is essential for detecting and identifying parasites in clinical specimens.
70
Describe serological tests for diagnosing parasitic infections.
Serological tests involve detecting antibodies or antigens in the patient's blood to diagnose certain parasitic infections.
71
What are molecular methods used for in diagnosing parasitic infections?
Molecular methods, such as Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), are used for the direct detection and identification of parasite DNA or RNA.
72
What is the purpose of culture in diagnosing parasitic infections?
In some cases, parasites are cultivated in the laboratory to observe their life cycle stages.
73
How can imaging studies be used to diagnose parasitic infections?
Radiological imaging, such as X-rays, CT scans, or MRI, may be used to visualize parasitic infections affecting organs or tissues
74
Describe how travel and exposure history can help identify potential sources of parasitic exposure.
Travel and exposure history can provide information about the regions visited and activities engaged in, which can help identify potential sources of parasitic exposure.
75
What is the significance of combining clinical, epidemiological, and laboratory methods in the diagnosis of parasitic infections?
Combining clinical, epidemiological, and laboratory methods in the diagnosis of parasitic infections increases accuracy and improves the chances of identifying the specific parasite causing the infection.
76
How can the response to therapy support the diagnosis of a parasitic infection?
Improvement in symptoms and clearance of parasites after appropriate treatment supports the diagnosis of a parasitic infection.
77
Describe the purpose of basic infection control measures.
Basic infection measures are essential practices aimed at preventing the spread of infectious agents in various settings, including healthcare facilities, community settings, and households.
78
How does handwashing help prevent the spread of pathogens?
Handwashing with soap and water for at least 20 seconds helps remove and kill pathogens.
79
80
What is an alternative to handwashing when soap and water are not available?
Using alcohol-based hand sanitizers with at least 60% alcohol is an effective alternative to handwashing.
81
When should disposable gloves be worn as part of infection control measures?
Disposable gloves should be worn when in contact with blood, bodily fluids, or contaminated surfaces.
82
What is the purpose of using masks in infection control?
Masks are used to prevent the inhalation or spread of respiratory droplets.
83
What should be done when coughing or sneezing as part of respiratory hygiene?
Cover the mouth and nose with a tissue or elbow, and dispose of used tissues properly while practicing immediate hand hygiene.
84
What areas should be regularly cleaned and disinfected in healthcare settings?
Surfaces and equipment in healthcare settings should be regularly cleaned and disinfected.
85
What surfaces should be frequently cleaned in households and public places as part of infection control?
Frequently-touched surfaces in households and public places should be regularly cleaned and disinfected.
86
What is the purpose of waste management in infection control?
Proper disposal of medical waste and other infectious materials to prevent the spread of infections.
86
Describe safe injection practices.
Using aseptic techniques administering injections to prevent the transmission of infections.
87
How are isolation precautions implemented in healthcare settings?
By placing patients with certain infections in dedicated rooms or using special precautions to prevent the spread of infectious agents.
88
What is the importance of education and training in infection control?
Providing education and training to healthcare workers, patients, and the general public on infection control practices.
89
Define vaccination and its role in preventing the spread of diseases.
Vaccination is the administration of a vaccine to stimulate the immune system and prevent the spread of vaccine-preventable diseases.
90
Describe quarantine and isolation measures in preventing the spread of infections.
Implementing quarantine measures for individuals exposed to infectious agents and isolating those who are infected to prevent further transmission.
90
What is the purpose of monitoring and surveillance in infection control?
Regular monitoring and surveillance of infection rates and adherence to infection control measures.
90
Why are these infection control measures crucial?
These measures are crucial in controlling the spread of infections, protecting individuals in healthcare and community settings, and minimizing the impact of infectious diseases on public health.
91
What are the 3 bacterial shapes
cocci (spherical), bacilli (rod-shaped), and spirilla (spiral-shaped).
92
How does bacterial size contribute to identification?
Certain size characteristics can be associated with specific bacterial groups.
93
Define bacterial morphology.
Bacterial morphology refers to the shape of bacteria, which is an important feature for identification.
94
What is the arrangement of bacterial cells called?
The arrangement of bacterial cells is called the diplo arrangement, which consists of pairs of cells.
95
Describe the difference between Strepto and Staphylo bacteria.
Strepto bacteria form chains of cells, while Staphylo bacteria form clusters of cells.
96
What are some of the growth requirements for bacteria?
Bacteria require specific environmental conditions such as temperature, pH, oxygen levels, and nutrient availability for growth.
97
Define Gram staining and its importance in bacterial identification.
Gram staining is a technique that classifies bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative based on their cell wall structure. This differentiation is critical for bacterial identification and guides treatment decisions.
98
How is acid-fast staining used in the diagnosis of diseases?
Acid-fast staining is used to identify bacteria with waxy cell walls, such as Mycobacterium species. It is particularly useful in the diagnosis of diseases like tuberculosis.
99
What does endospore staining highlight?
Endospore staining highlights the presence of endospores, which are resistant structures formed by certain bacteria like Bacillus and Clostridium.
100
Describe the structure of the bacterial cell membrane.
The cell membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins.
101
What is the function of the cell membrane?
The cell membrane regulates the passage of substances into and out of the cell.
102
Define the cell wall.
The cell wall surrounds the cell membrane and provides structural support.
103
Describe the structure of the Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) Layer in Gram-Negative Bacteria.
The LPS Layer is a complex molecule with lipid and carbohydrate components.
104
What is the function of the Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) Layer in Gram-Negative Bacteria?
The LPS Layer contributes to the structural integrity of the outer membrane, acts as an endotoxin, and plays a role in host-pathogen interactions.
105
Describe the structure of the nucleoid.
The nucleoid is the region in the bacterial cell where the chromosomal DNA is located.
106
What is the function of the nucleoid?
The nucleoid houses the genetic material and is involved in DNA replication and transcription.
107
Describe the structure of ribosomes.
Ribosomes are molecular complexes of protein and ribosomal RNA (rRNA).
108
What is the function of ribosomes?
Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis (translation).
109
Define bacteriophage.
A bacteriophage is a virus that infects and replicates within bacteria.
110
What is the structure of a bacteriophage?
A bacteriophage is composed of genetic material (either DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat (capsid).
111
Describe the function of a phage.
Injects its genetic material into a bacterial cell, hijacking the cellular machinery for replication and producing new phage particles.
112
What is the function of flagella in bacteria?
Provide motility by rotating like propellers.
113
Define pili (fimbriae) in bacteria.
Short, hair-like projections that aid in attachment to surfaces or other cells.
114
What is the role of penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) in bacteria?
Involved in the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall and the target of beta-lactam antibiotics, including penicillin.
115
Describe the structure of bacterial spores.
Specialized, highly resistant structures formed by some bacteria, such as Bacillus and Clostridium.
116
What is the function of bacterial spores?
Enable bacteria to survive harsh conditions (heat, radiation, chemicals) by entering a dormant state and germinate into active bacterial cells when conditions become favorable.
117
Describe the role of penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) in antibiotic action.
They are the target of beta-lactam antibiotics, including penicillin, which inhibit cell wall synthesis and lead to bacterial cell death.
118
Describe the three domains of life.
The three domains of life are Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya
119
What is the hierarchical classification of bacteria?
The hierarchical classification of bacteria progresses through the levels of class, order, family, genus, and species.
120
Define binomial nomenclature.
Binomial nomenclature is a system of naming species using a two-part name: the genus name followed by the species name.
121
What is the function of porins in Gram-negative bacteria?
Porins in Gram-negative bacteria are protein channels in the outer membrane that allow the passage of small molecules.
122
Describe the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria.
The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides (LPS) and proteins
123
Do Gram-negative bacteria have a thick or thin peptidoglycan layer in their cell walls?
Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer in their cell walls.
124
What is the role of lipopolysaccharides (LPS) in Gram-negative bacteria?
Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) in Gram-negative bacteria act as endotoxins and can trigger an immune response. found in the outer membrane
125
What is the periplasmic space in Gram-negative bacteria?
The periplasmic space is a compartment between the inner and outer membranes of Gram-negative bacteria that contains enzymes and other molecules.
126
How do Gram-negative bacteria appear after Gram staining?
After Gram staining, Gram-negative bacteria appear pink or red under the microscope.
127
Describe the cell wall composition of Gram-positive bacteria.
Gram-positive bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan in their cell walls and lack an outer membrane.
128
What color do Gram-positive bacteria appear after Gram staining?
Gram-positive bacteria appear purple or blue under the microscope after Gram staining.
129
What is the periplasmic space like in Gram-positive bacteria?
The periplasmic space is reduced or absent in Gram-positive bacteria.
130
What are teichoic acids and where are they found?
Teichoic acids are polymers that are often present in the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria and play a role in cell wall structure.
131
How does the thick peptidoglycan layer in Gram-positive bacteria affect their sensitivity to antibiotics?
The thick peptidoglycan layer in Gram-positive bacteria makes them more susceptible to certain antibiotics as it provides a target for antibiotic action.
132
Describe the process of binary fission in bacteria.
Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in bacteria where the bacterial chromosome is replicated, followed by cell elongation and septum formation, resulting in the division of the cell into two genetically identical daughter cells.
133
What is the purpose of DNA replication in binary fission?
The purpose of DNA replication in binary fission is to produce two identical copies of the bacterial chromosome.
134
Define septum in the context of binary fission.
In binary fission, a septum refers to a partition that forms between the two DNA copies, eventually dividing the cell into two daughter cells.
135
How does binary fission contribute to the rapid increase in bacterial population?
Binary fission allows bacteria to quickly increase their population by dividing into two genetically identical daughter cells.
136
Describe the role of cell elongation in binary fission.
Cell elongation in binary fission is essential for accommodating the duplicated DNA before the cell divides into two daughter cells.
137
What is the origin of replication in binary fission?
The origin of replication in binary fission is the specific site on the bacterial chromosome where DNA starts to unwind and replication begins.
138
How do bacteria generate genetic variation?
Bacteria can generate genetic variation through several mechanisms, such as mutation, horizontal gene transfer, and genetic recombination.
139
What is the purpose of septum formation in binary fission?
The purpose of septum formation in binary fission is to physically divide the cell into two daughter cells, each containing an identical copy of the original DNA.
140
Describe the process of cell separation in binary fission.
Cell separation in binary fission refers to the two daughter cells separating from each other, becoming independent, genetically identical bacterial cells.
141
What is the significance of genetic variation in bacteria?
Genetic variation in bacteria promotes adaptability and evolution, allowing them to better survive and thrive in changing environments.
142
Describe genetic variation in bacteria.
Genetic variation in bacteria refers to the introduction of different genetic traits or functions through mechanisms such as mutation, horizontal gene transfer, plasmid transfer, recombination, and selective pressure.
143
What is mutation in bacteria?
Mutation in bacteria refers to random changes in the DNA sequence that can occur during replication or due to external factors like radiation or chemicals, resulting in altered traits or functions.
144
How does horizontal gene transfer occur in bacteria?
Horizontal gene transfer in bacteria can occur through mechanisms such as transformation (uptake of free DNA from the environment), transduction (transfer of DNA via bacteriophages), and conjugation (direct transfer of DNA through cell-to-cell contact using a pilus).
145
Define plasmid transfer in bacteria.
Plasmid transfer in bacteria refers to the transfer of small, circular DNA fragments called plasmids between bacteria, facilitating the spread of specific traits, such as antibiotic resistance.
146
Describe recombination in bacteria.
Recombination in bacteria refers to the process of homologous recombination between similar DNA sequences, leading to the exchange of genetic material and the creation of hybrid DNA molecules.
147
What is selective pressure in bacteria?
Selective pressure in bacteria refers to environmental factors, such as the presence of antibiotics or changes in nutrient availability, that can favor the survival and reproduction of bacteria with specific genetic traits.
148
How does transformation occur in bacteria?
Transformation in bacteria occurs when bacteria take up free DNA from the environment, allowing them to acquire new genes.
149
What is transduction in bacteria?
Transduction in bacteria is the transfer of DNA via bacteriophages, which are viruses that infect bacteria.
150
Describe conjugation in bacteria.
Conjugation in bacteria is the direct transfer of DNA through cell-to-cell contact using a structure called a pilus.
151
What is the purpose of molecular methods in detecting bacteria?
Molecular methods, such as PCR, are used to detect bacterial DNA or RNA, allowing for highly specific identification of pathogens even in low concentrations.
152
What are serological tests used for in the detection of bacteria?
Serological tests, like ELISA, detect bacterial antigens or antibodies produced in response to bacterial infections.
153
Define culturing in the context of bacterial detection.
Culturing is a method that involves growing bacteria on culture media, allowing for the isolation and identification of bacterial colonies.
154
Give an example of an RNA virus.
Influenza virus
155
Define enveloped viruses.
Viruses with an outer envelope derived from the host cell membrane
156
How do retroviruses replicate?
They use reverse transcription to convert RNA into DNA
157
What is the function of the capsid in viruses?
The capsid is a protein coat that surrounds and protects the viral genetic material, providing structural integrity and shape to the virus.
158
How do viruses compare in size to bacteria and eukaryotic cells?
Viruses are much smaller than bacteria and eukaryotic cells, typically ranging in size from about 20 to 300 nanometers.
159
Define host specificity in viruses.
Host specificity refers to the ability of viruses to infect specific types of cells or organisms, determined by the interaction between viral surface proteins and host cell receptors.
160
Describe the replication process of viruses.
Viruses rely on the host cell's machinery for replication and can follow either the lytic cycle (resulting in cell lysis and release of new virions) or the lysogenic cycle (integration of viral DNA into the host genome).
161
Give examples of viruses that are pathogens.
Examples of pathogenic viruses include the flu virus, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and the common cold viruses.
162
What challenges do viruses pose in terms of evolution?
Viruses exhibit a high mutation rate and can undergo rapid evolution, contributing to the development of new strains and challenges in vaccine development.
163
Describe the purpose of viral culture.
Viral culture is a laboratory technique used to isolate and grow viruses in a controlled environment for the study of viral characteristics, production of viral stocks, and development of vaccines.
164
What is the importance of selecting suitable host cells in viral culture?
Choosing the appropriate cell line or tissue for culture is crucial as different viruses have specific host cell preferences.
165
Explain the importance of maintaining sterility in viral culture.
Maintaining sterility is essential in viral culture to prevent contamination. Aseptic techniques are employed to ensure the purity of the viral culture.
166
How is the inoculum prepared in viral culture?
The inoculum in viral culture is prepared using a sample containing the virus, such as a clinical specimen or a previously isolated viral stock.
167
What is the process of cell inoculation in viral culture?
In viral culture, the host cells are inoculated with the viral sample to allow for virus replication and growth.
168
Describe how viral attachment to cells can be enhanced.
Viral attachment to cells can be enhanced by adding the sample directly to the cell culture medium or by using techniques like centrifugation.
169
What is the purpose of incubation in viral culture?
The purpose of incubation in viral culture is to allow the virus to infect the host cells and initiate the replication cycle.
170
What are cytopathic effects (CPE) in viral culture?
Cytopathic effects are changes in the appearance of infected cells due to viral replication, such as cell rounding, detachment, and cell death.
171
What is the purpose of harvesting in viral culture?
The purpose of harvesting in viral culture is to collect the culture medium containing the released virus and, in some cases, disrupt the host cells to release intracellular virus particles.
172
How is the harvested virus identified and characterized in viral culture?
The harvested virus is identified and characterized through various methods, including microscopy, serological tests, and molecular techniques.
173
Describe the process of subculturing in viral culture.
Subculturing involves transferring a portion of the harvested virus to a new batch of host cells. This process can be repeated to maintain the viral culture or generate larger quantities for further studies.
174
Describe the impact of influenza viruses on public health.
Seasonal flu outbreaks can lead to widespread illness, hospitalizations, and deaths. Influenza A viruses are also responsible for occasional pandemics.
175
What is the impact of HIV on global health?
HIV/AIDS has had a profound impact on global health, with millions of people affected worldwide. It causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) by attacking the immune system.
176
What are the potential consequences of chronic HBV infection?
Chronic HBV infection can lead to liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma. Hepatitis B is a major global health concern.
177
How does chronic HCV infection impact the liver?
Chronic HCV infection can cause liver damage, cirrhosis, and hepatocellular carcinoma. Hepatitis C is a significant cause of liver-related morbidity and mortality.
178
Describe the impact of herpes simplex viruses
Herpes simplex viruses (HSV-1 and HSV-2) cause oral and genital herpes infections.
179
What are the types of influenza viruses?
Influenza A, B, and C viruses are the types of influenza viruses.
180
What diseases are associated with Human Papillomavirus (HPV)?
Various types of HPV can cause genital warts and are associated with the development of cervical and other cancers.
181
Define Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV) and its impact.
VZV causes chickenpox in childhood and can later re-emerge as shingles in adults. Vaccination has reduced the incidence of chickenpox.
182
What disease does the Measles Virus cause and what are its potential complications?
Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that can lead to severe complications, including pneumonia and encephalitis.
183
Describe the impact of Rotavirus.
Rotavirus is a common cause of severe diarrhea in young children worldwide. Vaccines have been introduced to reduce the burden of disease.
184
What is the concept of host range in viruses?
The concept of host range refers to the range of different host organisms that a particular virus can infect and successfully replicate within.
185
What is cell tropism in viruses?
Cell tropism refers to the preference of viruses for infecting specific types of cells within a given host organism. For example, a virus may have tropism for lung cells, liver cells, or immune cells within a human host.
186
How does the concept of host range influence the epidemiology and transmission of viral infections?
The host range of a virus is a crucial determinant of the types of diseases it can cause and influences the epidemiology and transmission of viral infections.
187
Define viral receptors and explain their role in determining host range.
Viral receptors are specific proteins on the surface of host cells that interact with viral surface proteins. The presence of compatible receptors is necessary for successful viral attachment and entry into host cells. The interaction between viral receptors and host cells determines the host range of a virus.
188
How can evolutionary factors influence the host range of a virus?
Evolutionary factors, such as mutations or genetic reassortment events, can affect the ability of a virus to infect new hosts. Changes in the genetic makeup of a virus can expand or limit its host range.
189
Describe the concept of virus-host coevolution.
Virus-host coevolution refers to the dynamic relationship between viruses and their hosts. As viruses evolve over time, they interact with their hosts and may undergo genetic changes that allow them to better infect or evade the host's immune system. Similarly, hosts may develop immune responses to combat viral infections. This ongoing interaction between viruses and hosts drives their coevolution.
190
Define host range in the context of virology.
Host range refers to the range of different species that a virus can infect and replicate within.
191
Describe asymptomatic infection.
Asymptomatic infection refers to a viral infection where the individual does not show any noticeable symptoms but can still transmit the virus to others.
192
What are some examples of mild to moderate viral infections?
Examples of mild to moderate viral infections include the common cold, flu, and many childhood viral infections.
193
Define severe illness in the context of viral infections.
Severe illness refers to the development of serious and potentially life-threatening symptoms as a result of a viral infection, such as severe respiratory or systemic diseases.
194
How do the consequences of viral infections vary?
The consequences of viral infections can vary depending on factors such as the specific virus, the host organism, the individual's immune response, pre-existing conditions, and the availability of medical interventions.
195
Describe chronic infection.
Chronic infection refers to a persistent infection caused by certain viruses that can last for an extended period or even a lifetime, leading to ongoing health issues and an increased risk of complications.
196
What is the impact of immunosuppression caused by certain viruses?
Immunosuppression caused by certain viruses, such as HIV, can suppress the host immune system, making the individual more susceptible to other infections.
197
Explain the concept of latency and reactivation in viral infections.
Latency refers to a state where the viral genome remains dormant within the host cells. Periodically, the virus may reactivate, leading to recurrent symptoms. Herpesviruses, like herpes simplex virus and varicella-zoster virus, exhibit latency and reactivation.
198
Describe the immune response to a viral infection.
The immune response to a viral infection is the host's defense mechanism against the virus. It involves the activation of immune cells, such as T cells and B cells, which produce antibodies to neutralize the virus and eliminate infected cells.
199
Describe viral latency.
Viral latency is a state in which a virus can persist within a host organism in an inactive or dormant form without active replication or production of new infectious virus particles.
200
What are the key features of viral latency?
The key features of viral latency include a dormant state, no active replication, and host cell survival.
201
Define the lytic cycle.
The lytic cycle is a viral replication cycle in which viruses actively replicate, cause cell damage, and produce new virions that can spread to other cells.
202
How does viral latency differ from the lytic cycle?
Viral latency is a state of inactivity and dormancy, while the lytic cycle involves active viral replication, cell damage, and production of new virions.
203
What happens to host cells during viral latency?
Host cells hosting latent viruses can survive for extended periods without apparent harm, unlike in the lytic cycle where host cell lysis and death often occur.
204
What are some factors that can trigger the reactivation of latent viruses?
Reactivation of latent viruses can be triggered by factors such as stress, immune suppression, hormonal changes, or other infections.
205
Define proviral latency.
Proviral latency is a form of latency where the viral DNA integrates into the host cell genome and remains transcriptionally silent.
206
Do all viruses have the potential to reactivate from latency?
No, not all viruses have the potential to reactivate from latency. However, many viruses, especially herpesviruses, are known for establishing latency and can reactivate.
207
Describe the reactivation of latent HIV.
Reactivation of latent HIV is a significant challenge in achieving a cure for HIV infection. In this state, the virus remains transcriptionally silent and can be triggered to resume active replication.
208
Describe the advantages of viral latency for the virus.
Viral latency allows the virus to evade the host immune response by minimizing viral replication and reducing the production of viral antigens.
209
What are the clinical implications of latent infections?
Latent infections can lead to recurrent symptoms or the spread of the virus to new host cells when the virus reactivates under certain conditions.
210
Why is understanding viral latency important?
Understanding viral latency is crucial for developing strategies to control and treat persistent viral infections, as reactivation from latency is associated with symptom recurrence and transmission to new hosts.
211
Describe the link between viruses and cancer.
Viruses can contribute to the development of cancer through various mechanisms, and infections with oncogenic viruses are associated with an increased risk of certain types of cancers.
212
What are some examples of oncogenic viruses?
Some examples of oncogenic viruses are Human Papillomavirus (HPV), Hepatitis B Virus (HBV), Hepatitis C Virus (HCV), Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV), and Human T-cell Lymphotropic Virus-1 (HTLV-1).
213
Which types of cancer are associated with Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection?
HPV infection is associated with cervical cancer, anal cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer.
214
How does Human Papillomavirus (HPV) contribute to the development of cancer?
HPV can integrate its DNA into the host genome, disrupting cell cycle regulation and promoting uncontrolled cell growth.
215
What is the purpose of anti-viral therapy?
To target the virus without harming host cells and treat viral infections.
216
Describe the principles of anti-viral therapy.
Inhibiting viral replication, blocking entry into host cells, or enhancing the host's immune response.
217
What factors are considered when selecting the right antiviral?
Virus type, its life cycle, and the patient's health.
218
Why is early initiation, adherence to prescribed regimens, and monitoring for side effects important in antiviral therapy?
They are crucial for optimal outcomes in antiviral therapy
219
What are the indications for anti-viral therapy?
Viral infections where specific antiviral medications can target the virus without harming host cells.
220
Describe how viral infections can be prevented.
Viral infections can be prevented through hygiene practices, vaccination, and maintaining healthy habits.
221
. What are the key methods for eradicating viruses globally?
The key methods for eradicating viruses globally include vaccination, treatment, and international efforts.
222
Define eradication of a virus.
Eradication of a virus refers to the complete elimination of the virus from a specific population or globally.
223
Describe active immunisation
Active immunisation involves stimulating the immune system to produce an immune response against a specific pathogen through the use of vaccines.
224
What is the purpose of vaccines in active immunisation?
Vaccines contain weakened or inactivated forms of the pathogen or its components to stimulate the immune system and provide protection upon future exposure.
225
Define passive immunisation.
Passive immunisation involves the direct transfer of pre-formed antibodies or immune cells to an individual to provide immediate but temporary protection.
226
Give an example of passive immunisation.
An example of passive immunisation is the administration of immune globulins or antitoxins.
227
How do active and passive immunisation differ?
Active immunisation stimulates the immune system to produce an immune response, while passive immunisation involves the direct transfer of pre-formed antibodies or immune cells.
228
Describe the process of vaccination
Vaccination involves administering a vaccine to stimulate the immune system, providing protection against specific diseases.
229
Describe what contraindications to vaccination are.
Contraindications to vaccination are conditions or circumstances that suggest a person should not receive a particular vaccine due to potential risks.
230
Define anaphylaxis.
Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur in response to a component of a vaccine
231
How does an immunocompromised status affect vaccination?
People with weakened immune systems, either due to illnesses like HIV/AIDS or immunosuppressive treatments, may be advised against certain vaccines.
232
What is the potential risk of vaccinating during pregnancy?
Some vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus.
233
Describe the significance of a history of vaccine-related adverse events
Individuals who had severe adverse reactions to a specific vaccine in the past may be advised against further doses
234
Describe the first stage of an immune response.
Recognition of Antigen: Immune cells identify foreign substances, known as antigens, which can be parts of pathogens like bacteria or viruses.
235
What is the role of dendritic cells in the immune response?
Dendritic cells present antigens to T cells, activating them
236
What are the two types of T cells involved in immune responses?
Helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells.
237
What happens when B cells are activated by helper T cells?
B cells differentiate into plasma cells that produce antibodies.
238
What is the function of antibodies in the immune response?
Antibodies are proteins designed to neutralize or tag pathogens for destruction.
239
What is the purpose of memory cells in the immune response?
Memory cells persist in the body to "remember" the specific antigen and provide faster and more robust responses upon future encounters with the same pathogen.
240
Define immunological memory.
Immunological memory refers to the ability of the immune system to remember and mount a faster and more effective response upon re-exposure to a specific pathogen.
241
What are the stages of an immune response?
Recognition of Antigen, Antigen Presentation, Activation of T Cells, B Cell Activation, Antibody Production, Memory Cells Formation.
242
What is herd immunity?
Herd immunity is achieved when a significant portion of a population becomes immune to a disease, either through vaccination or previous infection.
243
How does herd immunity help in controlling the spread of a disease?
Herd immunity helps slow or interrupt the spread of a disease, protecting those who are not immune.
244
What are the common vaccinations administered during childhood?
Common vaccinations administered during childhood include Hepatitis B, DTP, Hib, IPV, Rotavirus, PCV, MMR, Varicella, Hepatitis A, and Influenza.
245
Describe the life cycle of protozoa.
The life cycle of protozoa typically involves a single-celled organism and can have both sexual and asexual stages. Transmission can occur through ingestion of contaminated food water, insect vectors, or direct person-to-person contact. Eg plasmodium - causes malaria
246
Describe the life cycle of helminths (worms).
The life cycle of helminths is generally more complex, often involving different stages in the host and external environment. Transmission can occur through ingestion of contaminated food or water, skin penetration, or insect vectors.
247
What are some examples of flatworms (Platyhelminthes)?
Some examples of flatworms include Taenia (tapeworms) and Schistosoma.
248
What are some examples of roundworms (Nematodes)?
Some examples of roundworms include Ascaris lumbricoides, hookworms, and filarial worms.
249
Describe the life cycle of ectoparasites.
Ectoparasites live on the external surface of the host. Transmission often occurs through direct contact.
250
What are some examples of arthropods that are ectoparasites?
Some examples of arthropods that are ectoparasites include lice, fleas, ticks, and mites.
251
Describe giardiasis.
Giardiasis is an infection caused by the parasite Giardia lamblia, leading to gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea.
252
What is the cause of amoebiasis?
Amoebiasis is caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica, in severe diarrhea with blood mucus, abdominal pain, and fever.
253
Define malaria.
Malaria is a disease transmitted by the Plasmodium parasite through the bite of infected mosquitoes. It causes symptoms such as fever, chills, and flu-like illness
254
How is schistosomiasis transmitted?
Schistosomiasis is transmitted when parasitic flatworms called schistosomes penetrate the skin upon contact with contaminated water. Symptoms include fever, abdominal pain, and blood in the urine or stool.
255
What are some measures to prevent enteric and blood-borne parasites?
Preventing these diseases involves practicing good hygiene, avoiding contaminated food and water, and taking measures to prevent insect bites, such as using bed nets and insect repellent.
256
Define a parasite.
A parasite is an organism that lives in or on another organism (host) and derives its nourishment and other benefits at the expense of the host.
257
Describe the role of clinical history and symptoms in the diagnostic principles of parasitology.
Clinical history and symptoms help guide the diagnostic process by providing specific signs and symptoms that may indicate a parasitic infection.
258
What are the different types of clinical samples that can be collected for parasitology diagnostics?
Clinical samples for parasitology diagnostics can include blood, stool, urine, tissue biopsies, and other body fluids.
259
What is the purpose of culturing in parasitology?
Culturing allows for the observation of developmental stages and facilitates species identification.
260
Describe the identification of Staphylococcus aureus.
Gram-positive cocci in clusters.
261
What are the distinguishing features of Staphylococcus aureus?
Catalase positive, coagulase positive, and often produces golden-yellow colonies on blood agar.
262
How can Streptococcus pyogenes be identified?
Gram-positive cocci in chains.
263
Define the distinguishing features of Streptococcus pyogenes.
Beta-hemolytic on blood agar, bacitracin-sensitive, and positive for Group A streptococcal antigen.
264
Describe the identification of Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Gram-positive cocci in pairs or lancet-shaped.
265
Describe the identification of Clostridium difficile.
Gram-positive, spore-forming bacilli.
266
What are the identifying characteristics of Staphylococcus epidermidis?
Gram-positive cocci in clusters, coagulase-negative, novobiocin-resistant, and often part of the skin microbiota.
267
Do Staphylococcus epidermidis bacteria produce coagulase?
No, Staphylococcus epidermidis is coagulase-negative.
268
Describe how Escherichia coli (E. coli) can be identified.
Escherichia coli can be identified by its ability to ferment lactose on selective media like MacConkey agar. Biochemical tests, such as the indole test, can also be used.
269
What is the identification method for Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae can be identified by the presence of gram-negative diplococci seen on microscopy from clinical samples. Culture on selective media like Thayer-Martin agar can confirm its presence.
270
How can Neisseria meningitidis be identified?
Neisseria meningitidis can be identified by the presence of gram-negative diplococci seen on microscopy, similar to N. gonorrhoeae.
271
Describe how Helicobacter pylori is often identified.
Helicobacter pylori is often identified through biopsy samples from the stomach lining. Special staining methods like the urease test and PCR can confirm its presence.
272
Describe the role of serotyping in the identification of bacteria.
Serotyping involves the classification of bacteria based on their specific O and H antigens, which can help differentiate between different strains or types of bacteria.
273
Describe why some clinically significant bacteria are not readily identified by conventional Gram staining.
Some clinically significant bacteria are not readily identified by conventional Gram staining due to atypical cell wall structures or other characteristics.
274
Define Treponema pallidum.
Treponema pallidum is the causative agent of syphilis and is thin and tightly coiled, making it difficult to visualize with standard Gram staining.
275
Describe the shape of spirochetes.
Spirochetes have a helical shape.
276
Describe hyphae.
Hyphae are thread-like structures that form the basic body of a fungus. They can be septate or non-septate.
277
What is mycelium?
Mycelium is a mass of hyphae that constitutes the body of the fungus. It serves as the main vegetative structure involved in nutrient absorption.
278
Define spores.
Spores are reproductive cells that can give rise to new fungi. They are produced through both sexual and asexual reproduction.
279
What are fruiting bodies?
Fruiting bodies are specialized structures that house and produce spores. Examples include mushrooms in Basidiomycota and ascocarps in Ascomycota
280
Describe the cell wall of fungi.
Fungal cell walls contain chitin, a complex polysaccharide, providing structural support.
281
How many nuclei do fungal cells typically have?
Fungal cells typically have multiple nuclei.
282
What are rhizoids?
Rhizoids are root-like structures in some fungi that anchor the fungus and aid in nutrient absorption.
283
What are sporangia?
Sporangia are structures that produce and release spores in certain fungi, such as Rhizopus in Zygomycota.
284
Describe the difference between septate and non-septate hyphae.
Septate hyphae are divided by cross-walls called septa, while non-septate hyphae are coenocytic and do not have these cross-walls.
285
Describe Candidiasis.
Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species, most commonly Candida albicans. It can affect various organs, leading to mucocutaneous candidiasis, systemic candidiasis, and invasive candidiasis. It is commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals.
286
What is the causative agent of Aspergillosis?
Aspergillosis is caused by Aspergillus species, primarily Aspergillus fumigatus.
287
Define Cryptococcosis.
Cryptococcosis is a fungal infection caused by Cryptococcus neoformans, commonly associated with HIV/AIDS patients. It primarily affects the lungs and central nervous system, causing pneumonia and meningitis.
288
Describe Histoplasmosis.
Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection caused by Histoplasma capsulatum. It primarily affects the respiratory system and can lead to pulmonary histoplasmosis and disseminated histoplasmosis. It is common in endemic areas.
289
What are the manifestations of Coccidioidomycosis?
Coccidioidomycosis causes respiratory infections, ranging from mild flu-like symptoms to severe pneumonia. It is caused by Coccidioides immitis and Coccidioides posadasii.
290
Describe Tinea Corporis (Ringworm)
Circular, red, and scaly skin lesions on non-hairy areas of the body caused by various dermatophyte fungi.
291
Do Tinea Pedis (Athlete's Foot) cause
Fungal infection of the feet, causing itching, peeling, and redness, commonly caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton mentagrophytes.
292
Do Tinea Pedis (Athlete's Foot) cause
Fungal infection of the feet, causing itching, peeling, and redness, commonly caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton mentagrophytes.
293
Describe Tinea Capitis
Fungal infection of the scalp, often seen in children, leading to hair loss and scaly patches, caused mainly by Microsporum and Trichophyton species.
294
What is Tinea Unguium (Onychomycosis)?
Fungal infection of the nails, causing discoloration, thickening, and brittleness, caused by various dermatophytes including Trichophyton rubrum.
295
Describe the immune status of individuals who are more susceptible to fungal infections.
Immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIV/AIDS, undergoing chemotherapy, or receiving immunosuppressive therapy, are more susceptible to fungal infections.
296
How does age affect susceptibility to fungal infections?
Age plays a role in susceptibility to fungal infections, with neonates and the elderly being more vulnerable due to the immaturity or decline of the immune system, respectively.
297
Describe how hormonal fluctuations can impact the immune response.
Hormonal fluctuations, such as those occurring during pregnancy, menstruation, or hormonal therapy, can impact the immune response and create an environment favorable for fungal growth.
298
What are some occupational or environmental exposures that can increase the risk of fungal infections?
Certain occupations or environmental exposures, such as working in agriculture or construction, can increase the risk of exposure to fungal spores, leading to respiratory infections.
299
How can lifestyle and behaviors affect susceptibility to fungal infections?
Lifestyle and behaviors, such as smoking and substance abuse, can weaken the immune system and increase susceptibility to fungal infections.
300
Explain how previous infections or colonization can increase the risk of recurrent fungal infections.
Individuals who have previously had fungal infections or are colonized by fungi may be more susceptible to recurrent infections, especially if the underlying risk factors persist.
301
Describe the process of clinical evaluation for fungal infections.
Common clinical presentations of fungal infections include skin rashes, respiratory symptoms, or systemic manifestations.
302
What are the techniques used in microscopic examination of clinical samples for identifying fungi?
The techniques used in microscopic examination include KOH Mount and Calcofluor White Stain.
303
Describe the Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)
ELISA is a diagnostic test used to detect fungal antigens in blood or other body fluids.
304
How do molecular methods contribute to fungal identification?
Molecular methods, such as Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) and DNA sequencing, are used to accurately and rapidly identify fungal species.
305
Describe the mechanism of action of polyenes like Amphotericin B.
Polyenes bind to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, leading to membrane disruption and cell death.
306
What is the mechanism of action of Echinocandins like Caspofungin?
Echinocandins inhibit the synthesis of beta-glucan, a component of the fungal cell wall.
307
What is the mechanism of action of 5-Flucytosine as an antifungal drug?
5-Flucytosine is converted to 5-fluorouracil inside the fungal cell, disrupting RNA and protein synthesis.
308
Describe how Griseofulvin works as an antifungal drug.
Griseofulvin interferes with microtubule function, inhibiting mitosis and fungal growth.
309
Define oral administration as a route of administration for antifungal drugs.
Oral administration refers to the administration of drugs through the mouth, commonly done with antifungal drugs like azoles and 5-flucytosine.
310
What is the common route of administration for drugs like Amphotericin B and Caspofungin?
Amphotericin B and Caspofungin are often given intravenously (IV), especially in severe systemic infections.
311
Describe topical administration of antifungal agents.
Topical administration involves applying antifungal agents directly to the skin or mucous membranes the treatment of fungal infections.
312
What are some issues associated with antifungal agents?
Some issues associated with antifungal agents include resistance, drug interactions, toxicity, and limited spectrum of activity.
313
Define fungal resistance to antifungal drugs.
Fungal resistance refers to the ability of fungi to survive and grow in the presence of antifungal drugs, reducing their effectiveness in treating fungal infections.
314
What are some potential toxic effects of Amphotericin B?
Amphotericin B may cause toxic effects, including nephrotoxicity (kidney damage) and infusion-related reactions.
315
What is hepatotoxicity and which antifungal agents may cause it?
Hepatotoxicity refers to liver damage. Some antifungal agents, such as azoles, may cause liver enzyme abnormalities and hepatotoxicity.
316
Describe viral pathogenesis.
Viral pathogenesis refers to the process by which viruses cause disease in their host organisms, involving events from initial infection to clinical symptoms manifestation.
317
What is tissue tropism in viral pathogenesis?
Tissue tropism refers to the preference of different viruses for specific tissues or cell types, influencing the organs affected during infection.
318
What happens during primary replication in viral pathogenesis?
During primary replication, viruses undergo the synthesis of viral components and the production of progeny virions after entering host cells.
319
How do viruses spread within the host?
Viruses can spread within the host through mechanisms such as cell-to-cell transmission, viremia (spread through the bloodstream), and neural spread (traveling along nerves).
320
Describe the innate immune system's response to infection.
The innate immune system responds rapidly to infection.
321
Define cytopathic effects (CPE) caused by viruses.
Cytopathic effects refer to the damage caused to host cells by viruses.
322
How do viruses evade recognition by the immune system?
Many viruses exhibit antigenic variation, where they change their surface proteins to evade recognition by the immune system.
323
How can viral infections predispose individuals to secondary infections?
Viral infections can compromise the host's immune defenses, allowing opportunistic pathogens to cause secondary bacterial or fungal infections.
324
Define viral pathogenesis.
Viral pathogenesis refers to the complex interplay between the virus and the host, influenced by viral and host factors that contribute to the outcome of infection.
325
Give examples of pathogens.
Examples of pathogens include influenza virus, Salmonella bacteria, and Plasmodium parasites.
326
Define a commensal.
A commensal is an organism, typically a microorganism, that lives in or on another organism without causing harm or benefiting it.
327
What is the symbiotic relationship between a comensal and its host?
Commensals have a symbiotic relationship with the host, deriving benefits from the association while neither significantly harming nor benefiting the host.
328
How do commensal bacteria in the human gut influence the host's immune system?
Commensal bacteria in the human gut can influence the host's immune system without causing disease.
329
Define pathogen.
A pathogen is a microorganism or other agent that causes disease in its host organism.
330
Describe the role of skin and mucous membranes in innate immunity.
They form the first line of defense, preventing the entry of pathogens. Mucous membranes produce mucus, which traps and expels microbes.
331
What are Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) and what do they recognize?
PRRs are expressed by innate immune cells and recognize conserved patterns on pathogens (PAMPs).
332
What is the process of phagocytosis and which cells are involved?
Phagocytosis is the engulfing and digestion of pathogens by neutrophils and macrophages. Dendritic cells also play a role in antigen presentation.
333
How does the inflammatory response contribute to innate immunity?
Innate immune cells release cytokines, chemokines, and other mediators to initiate inflammation, recruit immune cells, and enhance blood flow to the site of infection.
334
Explain the role of the complement system in innate immunity.
Complement proteins can opsonize pathogens, facilitating phagocytosis, and induce the lysis of microbial cells.
335
What is the function of Natural Killer (NK) cells in innate immunity?
NK cells recognize and destroy infected or abnormal cells, providing early defense against viruses and tumor cells.
336
Define PAMPs and give an example.
PAMPs (Pathogen-Associated Molecular Patterns) are conserved patterns on pathogens that are recognized by Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs). An example of a PAMP is lipopolysaccharide (LPS) found on the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria.
337
Describe the role of dendritic cells in innate immunity.
Dendritic cells play a role in antigen presentation to the adaptive immune system, helping to initiate an adaptive immune response.
338
What are acute-phase proteins and where are they produced?
Acute-phase proteins are produced by the liver and contribute to the systemic response and modulation of immune and inflammatory processes.
339
Define antigen presentation.
Antigen-presenting cells (APCs), such as dendritic cells, present antigens derived from pathogens to T cells and B cells.
340
How are T cells activated in response to antigens?
T cells, specifically CD4+ helper T cells and CD8+ cytotoxic T cells, are activated in response to antigens. CD4+ T cells help coordinate immune responses, while CD8+ T cells directly kill infected cells.
341
Describe the activation of B cells in the immune response.
B cells are activated and differentiate into plasma cells, producing antibodies specific to the encountered pathogen.
342
What are antibodies and what is their function?
Antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins, circulate in the blood and bind to specific pathogens or their toxins, neutralizing them, promoting phagocytosis, or activating complement.
343
Describe immunological memory.
Immunological memory refers to the ability of T cells and B cells to develop memory cells that remember specific pathogens, allowing for a quicker and more effective immune response upon re-exposure.
344
What is the role of regulatory T cells in the immune system?
Regulatory T cells help control the immune response by preventing excessive inflammation and maintaining tolerance to self-antigens.
345
Describe colonization.
Colonization refers to the presence and multiplication of microorganisms on or within a host organism without causing disease.
346
Define latent infection.
Latent infection occurs when a microorganism, typically a virus, persists within the host without causing active disease.
347
What is an asymptomatic infection?
An asymptomatic infection is one in which the individual is infected with a microorganism, but no clinical symptoms or signs of illness are present.
348
Describe infection.
Infection refers to the invasion and multiplication of microorganisms within a host organism, which can result in a range of outcomes from asymptomatic to severe illness.
349
Describe clinical infection.
Clinical infection refers to an active and symptomatic manifestation of a microbial infection within a host organism.
350
What are some common symptoms of clinical infection?
Common symptoms of clinical infection include fever, fatigue, pain, inflammation, respiratory symptoms, gastrointestinal symptoms, and other signs of illness.
351
Define signs of inflammation in clinical infections.
Signs of inflammation in clinical infections can include redness, swelling, heat, and pain at the site of infection. Systemic inflammation can lead to symptoms such as fever.
352
Describe pathogenicity.
Pathogenicity refers to the ability of a microorganism to cause disease in a host organism.
353
Define infectivity.
Infectivity is a measure of the ability of a pathogen to establish an infection in a susceptible host and spread within the host organism.
354
What is virulence?
Virulence is a measure of the severity of disease caused by a pathogen.
355
What are some factors that can influence infectivity?
Factors may include the pathogen's ability to evade host defenses, enter host cells, and replicate within the host.
356
Describe the role of virulence factors.
Virulence factors, such as toxins, enzymes, or mechanisms for evading the immune system, contribute to the pathogen's ability to cause harm.
357
Describe pathogenic toxins.
Pathogenic toxins are substances produced by certain microorganisms that have the ability to cause harm to the host organism.
358
What are the two types of pathogenic toxins?
The two types of pathogenic toxins are exotoxins and endotoxins.
359
Give an example of an exotoxin and the bacteria that produces it.
An example of an exotoxin is botulinum toxin, which is produced by Clostridium botulinum.
360
What is an endotoxin?
An endotoxin is part of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and is released when the bacteria die
361
How do pathogenic toxins cause cellular damage?
Pathogenic toxins often target specific cells or tissues, leading to damage or dysfunction.
362
What are the effects of neurotoxins and enterotoxins?
Neurotoxins affect nerve cells, while enterotoxins affect the digestive system.
363
What cellular processes can toxins interfere with?
Toxins can interfere with essential cellular processes, such as protein synthesis, by disrupting ribosomes or blocking key enzymes.
364
How are exotoxins and endotoxins released?
Exotoxins are often released during bacterial growth and are actively produced by the bacterium. Endotoxins are released when the bacterial cell wall is disrupted, such as during cell death.
365
Describe botulism.
Botulism is a toxin-mediated disease caused by botulinum toxin, which leads to muscle paralysis.
366
What are the symptoms of diphtheria?
Diphtheria is a toxin-mediated disease that results in respiratory and systemic symptoms.
367
Define cholera.
Cholera is a toxin-mediated disease caused by cholera toxin, which leads to severe diarrhea and dehydration.
368
What are the effects of tetanus toxin?
Tetanus is a toxin-mediated disease caused by tetanus toxin, which causes muscle stiffness and spasms.
369
How do antitoxins work?
Antitoxins neutralize the effects of toxins and can be used to treat diseases caused by toxins.
370
Describe how respiratory viruses can enter the body.
Respiratory viruses can enter the body through inhalation of respiratory droplets containing the virus or by touching surfaces contaminated with respiratory secretions and then touching the nose or mouth.
371
What are some common sites of viral entry in the gastrointestinal tract?
The oral cavity is a common site of viral entry in the gastrointestinal tract. Contaminated food, water, or surfaces can serve as sources of viral entry.
372
How can sexually transmitted viruses enter the body?
Sexually transmitted viruses can enter the body through the genital mucosa during sexual activity.
373
What is the ocular surface and how can viruses enter through it?
The ocular surface refers to the eyes. Certain viruses, such as adenoviruses, can enter through the eyes by touching them with contaminated hands or exposure to respiratory secretions.
374
Describe how bloodborne viruses can enter body through breaks in the skin.
Bloodborne viruses, such as HBV, HCV, and HIV, can enter the body through cuts, abrasions, or needlestick injuries.
375
What is vertical transmission?
Vertical transmission is when certain viruses cross the placental barrier and infect the developing fetus during pregnancy.
376
Define vector in the context of viral transmission.
In the context of viral transmission, a vector is an organism, such as a mosquito, that carries and transmits the virus to a host through a bite.
377
Describe the characteristics of acute viral infections.
Acute viral infections are characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms, a relatively short duration, and an active viral replication phase within the host.
378
What is the role of viral replication in acute viral infections?
Acute infections involve active viral replication within the host, leading to a high viral load in the early stages of infection.
379
Name two specific viruses that cause acute respiratory symptoms.
Influenza virus and rhinovirus are two examples of viruses that cause acute respiratory symptoms.
380
What are some examples of acute viral infections?
Examples of acute viral infections include influenza, the common cold, norovirus infection, chickenpox, and measles.
381
Describe enteroviruses.
Enteroviruses are a group of viruses that primarily infect the gastrointestinal tract but can also affect other systems, including the respiratory and nervous systems.
382
Name some common enteroviruses.
Common enteroviruses include coxsackieviruses, echoviruses, and enteroviruses.
383
How are enteroviruses typically transmitted?
Enteroviruses are typically transmitted through the fecal-oral route, often via contaminated food, water, or surfaces.
384
When do enterovirus infections often peak?
Enterovirus infections often exhibit a seasonal pattern, with higher incidence during the summer months.
385
Describe Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease (HFMD).
HFMD is caused by coxsackieviruses and is characterized by sores in the mouth and a rash on the hands and feet. It is common in children.
386
Define Herpangina.
Herpangina is an illness caused by coxsackieviruses and is characterized by ulcers in the throat and mouth.
387
What are the cardiac complications associated with enteroviruses?
Enteroviruses can cause inflammation of the heart (myocarditis) or the lining around the heart (pericarditis), leading to chest pain and cardiac symptoms.
388
Describe why certain viruses are known as oncoviruses.
Certain viruses are known as oncoviruses because they have the potential to contribute to the development of cancer.
389
What is insertional mutagenesis and how does it relate to oncoviruses?
Insertional mutagenesis is when oncoviruses integrate their genetic material into the host cell's DNA, disrupting the normal regulation of cellular genes and leading to uncontrolled cell growth.
390
Provide an example of an oncovirus that can integrate its DNA into the host genome.
Human Papillomavirus (HPV) can integrate its DNA into the host genome, contributing to the development of cervical and other cancers.
391
Describe how Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) contributes to the development of lymphomas.
EBV can inhibit the function of the tumor suppressor gene p53, which promotes tumor development.
392
Define genomic instability and how it relates to tumor development.
Genomic instability refers to the increased likelihood of genetic mutations within host cells, which can promote tumor development.
393
Describe humoral immunity.
Humoral immunity is a branch of the immune system that involves B cells and the production of antibodies. It takes place in the blood and lymph and functions to neutralize pathogens, activate the complement system, enhance phagocytosis, and eliminate toxins.
394
Define cell-mediated immunity.
Cell-mediated immunity is a branch of the immune system that involves T cells, specifically cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells. It primarily takes place in infected cells and tissues and functions to directly kill infected cells.
395
How does humoral immunity activate the complement system?
Humoral immunity activates the complement system, which is a group of proteins that enhance the immune response. Antibodies produced by B cells bind to pathogens, triggering the complement system to eliminate the pathogens.
396
Describe the mechanism of Type 1 Hypersensitivity.
Type 1 Hypersensitivity involves the activation of effector cells- mast cells and basophils by antigen-specific IgE antibodies.
397
Give an example of Type 2 Hypersensitivity.
An example of Type 2 Hypersensitivity is hemolytic transfusion reactions.
398
What is the timing of Type 3 Hypersensitivity?
Type 3 Hypersensitivity can be acute or chronic, depending on the immune response.
399
Define Type 3 Hypersensitivity.
Type 3 Hypersensitivity is immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity where antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues, activating complement and attracting inflammatory cells.
400
What are the effector cells in Type 3 Hypersensitivity?
The effector cells in Type 3 Hypersensitivity are neutrophils and macrophages.
401
Describe the mechanism of Type 2 Hypersensitivity.
Type 2 Hypersensitivity involves antibodies (IgG or IgM) binding to antigens on host cells, leading to cell destruction or dysfunction.
402
Give an example of Type 1 Hypersensitivity.
An example of Type 1 Hypersensitivity is hay fever.
403
Describe the mechanism of Type 4 hypersensitivity.
Type 4 hypersensitivity involves sensitized T cells recognizing antigens, leading to the recruitment of inflammatory cells.
404
What are the effector cells in Type 4 hypersensitivity?
T cells and macrophages cause tissue damage in Type 4 hypersensitivity.
405
Define delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH).
Delayed-type hypersensitivity is a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction that has a delayed onset, typically appearing 24 to 72 hours after exposure.
406
Describe the process of sensitization.
Sensitization is the initial exposure to an allergen, which leads to the activation and differentiation of CD4+ T helper cells into Th2 cells.
407
What is the role of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) in sensitization?
APCs process and present allergenic peptides to CD4+ T helper cells during sensitization.
408
How do Th2 cells contribute to sensitization?
Th2 cells release cytokines, particularly interleukin-4 (IL-4) and interleukin-13 (IL-13), which promote B cell class switching to produce IgE antibodies.
409
Define class switching in the context of sensitization.
Class switching refers to the process in which B cells produce IgE antibodies specific to the allergen during sensitization.
410
Describe the process of re-exposure to an allergen after sensitization.
Upon subsequent exposure to the same allergen, it binds to multiple IgE antibodies on the surface of sensitized mast cells and basophils, leading to the release of inflammatory mediators.
411
What is degranulation and what triggers it?
Degranulation is the release of pre-formed granules containing inflammatory mediators, such as histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins. It is triggered by the activation of mast cells and basophils.
412
What are the effects of histamine release during an allergic response?
Histamine causes vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and smooth muscle contraction.
413
How do leukotrienes and prostaglandins contribute to an allergic response?
Leukotrienes and prostaglandins contribute to inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and increased mucus production.
414
What is the early phase of the allergic response?
The early phase of the allergic response refers to the immediate immune responses that occur within minutes of allergen exposure.
415
Define Fc receptors.
F receptors are the high-affinity receptors for IgE found on the surface of mast cells, basophils, and a subset of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) like dendritic cells.
416
What is the sensitisation function of the IgE-Fc interaction?
The binding of IgE to Fc sensitizes mast cells and basophils to specific antigens.
417
What is the function of IgG antibodies?
IgG antibodies are involved in various immune functions, including opsonization and neutralization.
418
Define opsonization.
Opsonization is the process in which IgG antibodies bind to pathogens, marking them for phagocytosis by immune cells that express Fc receptors.
419
How do IgG antibodies contribute to immune complex formation?
IgG antibodies can form immune complexes with antigens, which are recognized and cleared by cells expressing Fcγ receptors.
420
Describe the role of Fcγ receptors.
Fcγ receptors are receptors for the Fc region of IgG antibodies and are expressed on various immune cells, including macrophages, neutrophils, monocytes, and B cells.
421
What is the most abundant class of antibodies in the circulation?
Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is the most abundant class of antibodies in the circulation.
422
What is the function of Fcγ receptors on phagocytes?
Fcγ receptors on phagocytes, such as macrophages and neutrophils, bind to the Fc region of IgG antibodies attached to pathogens, facilitating phagocytosis.
423
Describe the role of Fcγ receptors in immune complex clearance.
Fcγ receptors on various immune cells are involved in the clearance of immune complexes, preventing their deposition in tissues.
424
What is the function of opsonization in immune complex clearance?
Opsonization of bacteria by IgG antibodies enhances phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils.
425
What immune responses are triggered by the binding of antibodies to Fc receptors?
The binding of antibodies to Fc receptors triggers various immune responses, such as degranulation, phagocytosis, and immune complex clearance.
426
Define atopy.
Atopy refers to a genetic predisposition to develop allergic reactions.
427
Summarise Type 2 hypersensitivity
Type 2: Involves direct cell damage, cytotoxic T cells, and macrophages. Rapid onset.
428
Summarise Type 3 hypersensitivity
Type 3: Involves immune complex formation, neutrophils, and macrophages. Delayed onset.
429
What are autoimmune diseases?
Autoimmune diseases result from an immune response against the body's own tissues.
430
Define central tolerance in T cell development.
Central tolerance is the process in the thymus where T cells with high affinity for self-antigens are eliminated through negative selection.
431
How can autoreactive T cells become activated in peripheral tissues?
Autoreactive T cells may become activated in peripheral tissues due to exposure to self-antigens that are not encountered in the thymus.
432
Describe the role of proinflammatory cytokines in autoimmune diseases.
Proinflammatory cytokines contribute to inflammation and tissue damage, especially in organs targeted by autoimmune responses.
433
Define molecular mimicry in the context of T cell responses.
Molecular mimicry refers to the ability of T cells to respond to both foreign antigens and self-antigens due to molecular similarities.
434
Describe chronic stimulation in the context of autoimmune diseases.
Chronic stimulation refers to persistent antigen exposure and continuous inflammation, which can sustain T cell activation and contribute to tissue damage in autoimmune diseases.
435
What are some examples of autoimmune diseases where T cells play a significant role in tissue damage?
Some examples of autoimmune diseases where T cells play a significant role in tissue damage include rheumatoid arthritis, multiple sclerosis, type 1 diabetes, and systemic lupus erythematosus.
436
What is immune tolerance?
Immune tolerance refers to the immune system's ability to recognize and tolerate the body's own tissues and molecules, preventing harmful immune responses against self-antigens.
437
Describe systemic autoimmune disease.
Systemic autoimmune disease affects multiple organs and presents with diverse and often systemic symptoms.
438
Describe organ-specific autoimmune disease.
Organ-specific autoimmune disease targets a specific organ or tissue, leading to symptoms related to that organ.
439
What does MIC stand for?
MIC stands for Minimum Inhibitory Concentration.
440
How is MIC determined?
MIC is determined through laboratory testing, often using techniques like broth dilution or agar dilution.
441
What does a lower MIC value indicate?
A lower MIC value indicates greater potency, as it means that a lower concentration of the antimicrobial agent is needed to inhibit bacterial growth.
442
What does MBC stand for?
MBC stands for Minimum Bactericidal Concentration.
443
What does MBC represent?
MBC represents the lowest concentration of an antimicrobial agent that kills a specified percentage (commonly 99.9% or more) of the bacterial population.
444
Describe the difference between MIC and MBC.
MIC is the concentration that inhibits visible growth, while MBC is the concentration that kills a specified percentage of the bacterial population.
445
What is the purpose of MBC testing?
To assess the bactericidal activity of an antimicrobial agent.
446
Describe the clinical relevance of MBC testing.
MBC helps assess the ability of an antibiotic to kill bacteria. Some antibiotics are considered bacteriostatic at concentrations near the MIC and bactericidal at concentrations significantly above the MIC.
447
Describe the term 'sensitive' in the context of antimicrobial susceptibility testing.
A microorganism is considered sensitive or susceptible to an antimicrobial agent if it can be inhibited or killed by concentrations of the agent that are achievable with normal dosages.
448
What is the clinical implication of a microorganism being sensitive to an antibiotic?
When a microorganism is sensitive to an antibiotic, it means that the antibiotic is likely to be effective in treating an infection caused by that particular microorganism.
449
How is sensitivity often denoted in susceptibility reports?
In susceptibility reports, the interpretation of sensitivity is often denoted as 'S' or 'Susceptible.'
450
Define the term 'resistant' in the context of antimicrobial susceptibility testing.
A microorganism is considered resistant to an antimicrobial agent if it cannot be inhibited or killed by concentrations of the agent that are achievable with normal dosages.
451
What is the clinical implication of a microorganism being resistant to an antibiotic?
Resistance implies that the microorganism is not responsive to the antibiotic in question, and an alternative treatment may be necessary.
452
Describe the interpretation of resistance in susceptibility reports.
Resistance is often denoted as 'R' or 'Resistant' in susceptibility reports.
453
Define intermediate susceptibility.
Intermediate susceptibility indicates that the microorganism may be inhibited by higher-than-normal doses of the antibiotic.
454
What is the clinical implication of intermediate susceptibility?
Intermediate susceptibility suggests that the effectiveness of the antibiotic may be limited, and its use should be approached with caution.
455
Describe synergy.
Synergy occurs when the combined effect of two or more substances is greater than the sum of their individual effects.
456
Define antagonism.
Antagonism occurs when the combined effect of two or more substances is less than the sum of their individual effects.
457
Describe the mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics.
Beta-lactam antibiotics inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs).Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems:
458
What is the effect of quinolones on bacterial cells?
Quinolones prevent DNA unwinding and replication, leading to bacterial cell death.Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin:
459
Define the mechanism of action of macrolides.
Macrolides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit.Erythromycin, Azithromycin:
460
How do tetracyclines disrupt bacterial protein synthesis?
Tetracyclines prevent aminoacyl-tRNA binding by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit.Doxycycline, Minocycline:
461
Describe the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides.
Aminoglycosides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by causing misreading of mRNA.Gentamicin, Amikacin:
462
What is the mechanism of action of azoles?
Azoles inhibit fungal cytochrome P450 enzymes, disrupting ergosterol synthesis.
463
What effect do azoles have on fungal cell membranes?
Azoles alter fungal cell membrane integrity, leading to cell death.
464
Do beta-lactam antibiotics weaken or strengthen the bacterial cell wall?
Beta-lactam antibiotics weaken the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell lysis.
465
Beta-lactam antibiotics weaken the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell lysis.
Binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes.
466
What is the effect of Amphotericin B on fungal cells?
Forms pores, causing leakage of cellular contents and fungal cell death.
467
How do Echinocandins work?
They inhibit fungal cell wall synthesis by targeting beta-glucan synthesis.
468
What is the effect of Echinocandins on fungal cells?
They weaken the fungal cell wall, leading to cell lysis.
469
Define Nucleoside/Nucleotide Analog Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs).
They are antiviral drugs that incorporate into viral DNA, terminating chain elongation.
470
Describe the mechanism of action of Protease Inhibitors.
They inhibit viral protease, preventing maturation of viral proteins.
471
How do Neuraminidase Inhibitors work?
They inhibit the neuraminidase enzyme, preventing the release of viral progeny.
472
Describe the spectrum of penicillins.
Penicillins are effective against a broad range of Gram-positive bacteria, including Streptococcus and Staphylococcus species.
473
What is the spectrum of azoles, such as Fluconazole?
Broad-spectrum antifungal activity.
474
What viruses are Neuraminidase Inhibitors, such as Oseltamivir, effective against?
Influenza viruses (Type A and B).
475
Describe the resistance mechanism of beta-lactam antibiotics known as beta-lactamase production.
Bacteria produce enzymes (beta-lactamases) that hydrolyze the beta-lactam ring, inactivating the antibiotic.
476
What is the resistance mechanism of quinolones?
Changes in target enzymes reduce the binding affinity of quinolones.
477
Define the resistance mechanism of macrolides called ribosomal modification.
Modification of the bacterial ribosome prevents binding of macrolides.
478
How do bacteria develop resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics through altered Penicillin-Binding Proteins (PBPs)?
Bacteria modify PBPs, reducing the binding affinity of beta-lactam antibiotics.
479
What is the resistance mechanism of beta-lactam antibiotics involving efflux pumps?
Bacteria pump out antibiotics, reducing intracellular drug concentrations.
480
What is the resistance mechanism of tetracyclines in bacteria?
Bacteria pump out tetracyclines using efflux pumps and proteins bind to the bacterial ribosome, preventing tetracycline binding.
481
How does the site of infection influence the choice of antimicrobial treatment?
Different body sites may require different antimicrobials due to variations in tissue penetration and bioavailability.
482
Do host factors play a role in selecting the appropriate antimicrobial treatment?
Yes, patient-related factors such as age, weight, renal and hepatic function, and immune status should be considered when choosing antimicrobial dosages.
483
Describe the importance of assessing the severity of an infection when selecting antimicrobial treatment.
Assessing the severity helps determine the appropriate choice of antimicrobial and dosage, based on the clinical presentation and potential complications.
484
What should be checked for when considering allergies to specific antimicrobials or drug classes?
Known allergies to specific antimicrobials or drug classes should be checked.
485
Do microbial sensitivity testing help guide antibiotic selection?
Yes, microbial sensitivity testing can help guide antibiotic selection.
486
Describe the importance of avoiding unnecessary prolonged courses of antimicrobial treatment.
To minimize the risk of resistance.
487
How should the route of administration be determined for antimicrobial treatment?
Based on the patient's condition and the severity of the infection.
488
How can patient compliance be enhanced in antimicrobial treatment?
By choosing antimicrobials with convenient dosing regimens and educating patients on the importance of completing the prescribed course of treatment.
489
Describe the common side effects of beta-lactam antibiotics.
Allergic reactions and gastrointestinal upset are common side effects of beta-lactam antibiotics.
490
What are the common side effects of quinolones?
Gastrointestinal upset and central nervous system effects, such as headache and dizziness, are common side effects of quinolones.
491
Define macrolides and list their common side effects.
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics, and their common side effects include gastrointestinal upset, liver enzyme abnormalities, and QT interval prolongation.
492
What are the common side effects of tetracyclines?
Gastrointestinal upset and increased sensitivity to sunlight (photosensitivity) are common side effects of tetracyclines.
493
Describe the common side effects of aminoglycosides.
Nephrotoxicity (kidney damage) and ototoxicity (hearing loss) are common side effects of aminoglycosides.
494
What are the common side effects of azoles?
Gastrointestinal upset, liver enzyme abnormalities, and QT interval prolongation are common side effects of azoles.
495
Define polyenes and list their common side effects.
Polyenes are a class of antifungal drugs, and their common side effects include infusion-related reactions (fever, chills) and nephrotoxicity.
496
Describe the role of laboratories in pathogen identification.
Laboratories identify the causative pathogens in clinical samples.
497
How does knowing the specific pathogen impact antimicrobial usage?
Knowing the specific pathogen allows for targeted and appropriate antimicrobial therapy. It helps avoid broad-spectrum empiric treatments, minimizing the risk of resistance and reducing unnecessary drug exposure.
498
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