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Infectious Disease > Infecitous Disease Chart/Sykes > Flashcards

Infecitous Disease Chart/Sykes Flashcards

1
Q

What is the reservoir for Lepto interrogans?

A

Renal tubules, can be shed for life

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2
Q

Which Lepto interrogans has the worse renal disease?

A

POMONA

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3
Q

Why do lepto dogs have increased bleeding tendency?

A

Endothelial dysfunction and coagulopathy

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4
Q

Which electrolyte changes can be seen with Lepto resulting in acute interstitaial nephritis?

A

Dysfunction of Na/K ATPase = HypoK!

Glucosuria (77%)

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5
Q

Which Lepto Serovar has been associated with chronic active hepatitis?

A

Grippo

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6
Q

How long can a MAT titer from a lepto infection persist?

A

1 year

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7
Q

What two factors can result in poor prognosis in lepto dogs?

A

Resp signs or severe azotemia (needing dialysis)

But 80% survival with dialysis

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8
Q

What % of infections with Lyme result in dz?

A

Only 10%

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9
Q

Which tick s transmit Borrelia?

A

Ixodes (scapularis and pacificus)

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10
Q

What happens in the tick gut with Borrelia?

A

Adult tick has OspA and is converted to OspC once a blood meal is obtained

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11
Q

A co-infection with which infectious disease can make Lyme dz worse?

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

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12
Q

Is Borrelia found in kidney of dogs with Lyme Nephritis? Which dogs get it?

A

NO, not found in kidney
PROTEINURIA - Membranoproliferative GN (subendothelial IgM, IgG, C3)
Labs, goldens (shelties and BMD)

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13
Q

What is the diagnostic of choice for Lyme?

A

C6 ELISA (found on SNAP 4Dx) - BUT does NOT always correlated with clinical dz

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14
Q

What does the Lyme vxn do to Osp production?

A

Increased OspA

Infection would be an increased in OspC

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15
Q

What Osp can be seen with chronic infections of Lyme?

A

OspF

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16
Q

What are the 3 recommendations for treating Lyme? What is the treatment?

A

Doxycycline

  1. If CS (lameness, LN)
  2. Proteinuria
  3. C6 > 30
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17
Q

How does the vxn for Lyme work?

A

OspA - Induced ABs to OspA that when tick takes blood meal neutralize(complement mediated lysis) OspA in midgut of tick = Preventing transmission

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18
Q

What is the prognosis for Lyme nephritis?

A

POOR - Recommend immunosuppression with Mycophenolate

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19
Q

What is the transmission of M. tuberculosis?

A

Inhalation (dogs, rare in cats)

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20
Q

What is the transmission of the most common Mycobacterium in cats?

A

M. microti and M. bovis = Ingestion or inoculation

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21
Q

What Mycobacterium are SLOW growing?

A

MTBC (tuberculosis, bovis, microti) - Associated with reservoir host
MAC (avium and intracellulare) - Associated with environment (opportunistic)

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22
Q

What electrolyte change is associated with poor prognosis with Mycocaterium?

A

HyperCa (Vit D activation within MPs)

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23
Q

What types of drugs are given for Mycobacterium?

A 
Rifampin
Ethambutol
Marbo
Clarthromycin
Azithromycin
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24
Q

Which breeds can get MAC (Mycobacterium avium)?

A 
Siamese
Abyssinian
Bassets
Min Schanzer
Yorkies
(IFN gamma def)
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25
Q

What causes Feline leprosy?

A

Mycobacterium lepraemurium - rodent bite wounds

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26
Q

What causes Canine leproid granuloma syndrome and which breeds do we see it in?

A

Mycobacterium simiae
GSD, Boxers, short haired dogs
Can spontaneously resolve

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27
Q

How do you diagnosis Brucella?

A

Need combo of tests
RSAT - Rapid Slide Agglutination (can X-react with other bacteria)
Need to confirm:
1. TAT (tube agglutination) 1:200 = Active infection
2. AGID (agar gel, reacts with cell wall and cytoplasmic)

Culture
PCR

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28
Q

What is the recommended tx of Brucella canis?

A

NOT effective bc it is sequestered - Euthanasia recommended dt zoonotic potential
Spay and neuter = tetracycline, streptomycin, gentamicin

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29
Q

What happens with Clostridium tetani in dogs?

A

Neurotoxin = Tetanospasmin

Related to blocking SNARE proteins = No release of glycine and GABA = Loss of inhibition

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30
Q

What happens with C. tetani in cats?

A

Usually only localized infection in cats

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31
Q

What are the 3 stages of C. tetani?

A

1: Hypersensitive to light, sound = Facial spasms (erect ears, lips back)
2. Stiff gait, muscle stiffness, ridge limb extension
3. Recumbency +/- seizures
* Survival decreased with class*

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32
Q

Does Antitoxin help with C. tetani?

A

NO, only helps with unbound toxin (does not hasten recovery) = Since binding is irreversible recovery = SLOW, new nerve terminal growth needed
TX: Metronidazole

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33
Q

What is the most common toxin of C. botulinum?

A

Type C1 toxin (there are 7 toxins)

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34
Q

What is the MOA with C. botulinum?

A

Toxin binds to chlolinergeric nn. and interferes with AcH release (cleaving SNARE protein) = LMN signs
Acute and rapidly progressive

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35
Q

What is the tx for C. botulinum?

A

Supportive care = Spontaneous recovery in 2-3 weeks
Antitoxin = No help
ABX can lyse bacteria releasing toxin = WORSE CS

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36
Q

Which infectious disease is associated with dysautonomia in cats?

A

C. botulinum (toxin specific IgA detected in feces and food of affected cats)

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37
Q

Can animals with Bartonella have ANA +?

A

YES

Also ANA+ with E. canis

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38
Q

How many dogs seroconvert with bartonella?

A

ONLY 50%, therefore need serology and BAPGM

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39
Q

What infectious disease is associated with splenic nodules?

A

Bartonella
HSA: 25%
Fibrohisto Nodules: 30%

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40
Q

Should you treat every Bartonella + cat?

A

NO! Only treat cats with CS

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41
Q

In which breed does E. canis have a worse prognosis?

A

GSD

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42
Q

What factors are associated with poor prognosis in E. canis?

A

Leukopenia WBC

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43
Q

What is the reservoir and vector of E. canis?

A

R: Fox and coyotes
V: Rhipacephalus sanguineus (Brown Dog Tick)

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44
Q

What happens with chronic form of E. canis? What is the tx?

A

Pancytopenia (BM hypoplasia)
Hyperglobs (mono OR poly gammopathy)
TX: Doxy, EPO, G-CSF, pred, desmopressin

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45
Q

Where are the morulae of E. canis found?

A

Within monocytes (Can’t differentiated from E. chaffeensis)

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46
Q

What is the problem with IFA-Ab for E. canis?

A

Can croxx react with other Ehrlichia spp

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47
Q

What is the reservoir and vector of E. chaffeensis?

A

R. White tailed deer
V: Amblyomma americanum (Lone Star Tick)
Causes - thrombocytopenia
Dogs may be reservoir too

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48
Q

What is the reservoir and vector of E. ewingii?

A

R: White tailed deer
V: Amblyomma americanum (Lone Star Tick)

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49
Q

Where are the morulae of E. Ewingii found?

A

Granulocytes (neutrophils)

Looks like A. phagocytophilum

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50
Q

Where are the morulae of E. chaffeensis found?

A

Monocytes (can’t differentiate from E. canis

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51
Q

Where are the morulae of A. phagocytophilum found?

A

Granulocytes (neutrophils) - Can inhibit neutrophil function

Looks like E. ewingii

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52
Q

What is the reservoir and vector of A. phagocytophilum,?

A

R: Small animals
V: Ixodes

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53
Q

Which organism causes canine cyclic thrombocytopenia?

A

A. platys (thrombocytopenia for 1-2 weeks then normalize for 3-4 days)

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54
Q

Where are the morulae of A. platys found?

A

Platelets

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55
Q

What is the causative agent of Salmon Poisoning in dogs?

A

Neorickettsia helminithoeca which is within fluke (Nanphyetus salmincola)

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56
Q

How are dogs infected with Neorickettsia helminithoeca?

A

Dog eats fish with fluke in it (that has bacteria)

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57
Q

What is the treatment for Neorickettsia helminithoeca?

A

Doxy and praziquantel (mortality rate: 14%)

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58
Q

Which infectious disease can result in disease esp in Springer spaniels with PFK def?

A

RMSF

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59
Q

What are the vectors for RMSF?

A 
Dermacenter variabilis (American Dog tick)
Rhip sang, Amblyomma
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60
Q

Why does hypoNa result in RMFS?

A

Syndrome of Inapporpriate ADH secretion

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61
Q

What are the vectors for Hepatozoon and how are dogs infected?

A

Hepatozoon Americanum - Ambylommma
H. canis - Rhipicephalus
Ingestion of TICK

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62
Q

What is the classic CBC findings in Hepatozoon animals?

A 
Neutrophilic leukocytosis (200K)
Low platelets are uncommon
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63
Q

What does Hepatozoon look like on blood smear?

A

Within neutrophils and monocytes = Jellybean (HUGE) = Gamonts
Check buffy coat

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64
Q

How do you diagnose Hepatozoon?

A

Check buffy coat for gamonts
Antibodies OK
PCR of muscle bx (best)

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65
Q

What is the tx of Hepatozoon?

A

TMS, pyrimethamine, clindamycin = Decoquinate

NO TX eliminated disease but improved CS

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66
Q

What can increased sen of seeing giardia trophozoites?

A

Look at duodenal contents

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67
Q

Which Giardia test is NOT recommended in cats?

A

SNAP (Ag ELISA)

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68
Q

How can you diagnose Giardia?

A
  1. 3 ZnSO4 floats
  2. SNAP (Ag ELISA)
  3. FAb Coproscopy (gold standard)
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69
Q

What diet change can help with Giardia and do probiotics work?

A

High fiber diet = inhibits trophozoites attachment to SI

Fortiflora did NOT help

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70
Q

Which infectious disease can result in cerebellitis with cerebellar atrophy?

A

Neospora caninum

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71
Q

What happens with Neospora caninum congenital infections vs older dogs reactivation infection?

A

Congenital: Ascending paralysis, multifocal CNS, dysphagia, ME, death
Old dogs: Multifocal CNS +/- polymyositis

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72
Q

What is diagnostic for Neospora infection?

A

IFA: IgG > 1:200

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73
Q

What is the treatment for Neospora?

A

TMS + pyrimethamine +/- clindamycin

NO STEROIDS!!

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74
Q

The ocular form of toxoplasmosis is more common in which coinfections?

A

FIV, FeLV, FIP + cats

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75
Q

What is the best for diagnosis of toxoplasmosis?

A

IgM correlated best with dz, since it is rarely seen in normal animals
BUT 20% do NOT develop IgM!!
IgM >1:64 or IgG 4 fold increase = recent or active infection
MOST sero+ for life!

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76
Q

In which disease in dogs is there are increased in prevalence of toxoplasmosis?

A

Polyradiculoneuritis

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77
Q

How long can a sporulated oocyst survived in environment?

A

Months to years

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78
Q

Is toxoplasmosis associated with cat ownership in HIV + humans?

A

NO!

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79
Q

Can dogs pass oocysts of toxoplasmosis?

A

ONLY if they eat feline feces that has oocysts in it

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80
Q

What is the vector for Leishmania infantum?

A

Sand fly

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81
Q

Which breed of dog gets Leishmania?

A

Foxhound

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82
Q

What are the classic bloodwork changes with Leishmania?

A 
Hyperglobulinemia (poly OR mono)
Hypoalbuminemia
Proteinuria = PLN
Thrombocytopenia
Can be ANA +
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83
Q

What are the 3 forms of Leishmania?

A

Cutaneous
Mucocutaneous
Visceral

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84
Q

What does Leishmania look like?

A

Amastigotes (small, look like fist with middle finger up) within MPs from skin, LNs, joints

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85
Q

Are Abs to Leishmania consistent with an infection?

A

YES, since the organism is NEVER eliminated

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86
Q

What is the treatment for Leishmania?

A

Antimony and allopurinol

Relapse likely since organism is NOT eliminated

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87
Q

What is the causative agent of Chaga’s disease? What is the vector?

A

Trypanasoma cruzi

Vector: Reduvvid bugs - Kissing bugs

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88
Q

What are CS of Chaga’s disease in dogs?

A 
Cardiomyopathy
Arrhythmia (AV block!!)
Myocarditis
Lar Par, neuro signs
If chronic = DCM +/- CHF
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89
Q

How is Chaga’s disease diagnosed?

A

Flagellated trypomastigotes in blood, LN, effusion

Serology = If + = infection (can cross react with Leishmania and the vaccine)

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90
Q

What is the treatment of Chaga’s disease?

A

No approved drugs
Allopurinol
Benznidazole

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91
Q

Which Babesia is found in pit bulls?

A

B. gibsoni

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92
Q

Which Babesia is found in gray hounds?

A

B. canis

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93
Q

Can Babesia result in Coomb’s + IMHA?

A

YES

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94
Q

What is the treatment for B canis?

A

Imdiocarb

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95
Q

What is the treatment for B. gibsoni?

A

Atovoquone and azithromycin

+/-clindamycin

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96
Q

What happens with co-infections with Babesia?

A

Can results in worsen pathogenicity

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97
Q

What happens if you remove the spleen of a dog with Babesia?

A

They will NEVER clear the organism!!

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98
Q

What does B. canis and B. gibsoni look like?

A

Check capillary blood (ear tip)
B. canis = LARGE, paired piroplasms in RBC
B. gibsoni = Single piroplasms in RBC

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99
Q

Which Babesia has been associated with mucosal hemorrhage?

A

Babesia conradae

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100
Q

What is the natural host of C. felis?

A

Bobcat

101
Q

Which ticks transmit C. felis?

A

Amblyommma

Dermacenter (exp)

102
Q

Which phase of C. felis is associated with disease?

A

Schizogenous phase = Occlude vessels within liver, lung, spleen, LNs

103
Q

What is the treatment of C. felis?

A

Atovaquone and azithromycin
Heparin
Survival 60%

104
Q

Are there cats that have C. felis with no history of CS?

A

YES

105
Q

Cats with Mycoplasma hemofelis are 6X more likely to have which disease?

A

FIV

106
Q

What is the most pathogenic Mycoplasma spp in cats?

A

M. hemofelis, BUT least prevalent!!

107
Q

How frequent do you see Mycoplasma on cytology?

A
108
Q

Can you use marbofloxacin to tx Mycoplasma in cats?

A

Yes, it will decrease # bugs, but will recur when stopped

109
Q

What does Mycoplasma look like?

A

Epierythocytic parasite

110
Q

What is the most common Mycoplasma in cats?

A

M. haemonminutum = Least pathogenic (mild anemia if at all)
Worse if FeLV infection!
Common carrier state

111
Q

Which Mycoplasma in cats cannot be seen with microscope?

A

Mycoplasma turicensis

112
Q

Which Mycoplasma is in chains?

A

M. hemocanis - Kennel dogs

Generally normal but anemia in dogs w/o spleens

113
Q

Can cats be infected with CPV?

A

Yes, CPV-2a, b, c (can even have mixed infections)

114
Q

How do you diagnosis panleukopenia in cats?

A

ELISA Viral Antigen in feces (SNAP parvo test)

115
Q

What are the prognostic factors for nonsurvivors of panleukopenia?

A

Low Plts
Low WBCs
Hypoalbuminemia
HypoK

116
Q

How effective is the panleukopenia vxn and does it cover any KP parvo?

A 
Very effective (esp MLV)
Protects against CPV2b
117
Q

What happens if you give a MLV to a prego or kitten with panleuk?

A

Cerebral hypoplasia

118
Q

Which virus is associated with cerebellar hypoplasia in cats?

A

Panleukopenia virus = Parvo

119
Q

What clades are the most common in FIV cats in US?

A

A, B, C (A-F - 6 clades)

120
Q

Which sex is more likely with FIV?

A

Males (4.7X more likely)

121
Q

What % of FIV cats remain asymptomatic for year to life?

A

88%

122
Q

What are the 3 phases of FIV infection?

A
  1. Acute - Fever leukopenia
  2. Subclinical
  3. Terminal = Opportunistic infections, neoplasia, myelosuppresion, neurologic (IM dz and IC dz!) = Live
123
Q

What CS are seen with chronic FIV infection?

A
  1. Wt Loss

2. Ulceroproliferative stomatitis (can have co-infection with calcivirus) - Lymphoplasmocytic

124
Q

What is the diagnostic of choice for FIV?

A 
Ab test (ELISA, SNAP) - Abs within 60 days
NOTE: Can revert to seronegative at end-stage dt such HIGH viral load
Confirm with second test: ELISA, or western/IFA = Complete 60 days apart
PCR not great (high false -) since viral load low in most cats
125
Q

What is the tx for FIV?

A

NONE!
AZT - Improved CD4/CD* ratio, reduced severity of stomatitis
hINF-alpha - Improved survival

126
Q

Are FIV cats more likely to develop LSA and Leukemia?

A

YES, 5X more likely

127
Q

What % of shelter cats have FHV-1?

A

11% sero+

More likely if > 6 months, neutered, or owner surrender

128
Q

Which virus is mainly oculonasal d/c and keratitis?

A

FHV-1

Esoinsophilic keratitis *symblepharons

129
Q

Which drug is known to reduce CS, shedding, and disease severity in FHV-1 cats?

A

Famciclovir

130
Q

Does the FHV-1 vxn protect against infection?

A

NO!!! It does not protect against infection or prevent the carrier state, BUT it does decreased dz severity

131
Q

How many cats in the shelter have Ab for calicivirus?

A

About 37% - Persistent shedding (unlikely herpes that is intermittent)

132
Q

Which virus is mainly oral uclerations and stomatitis?

A

Calicivirus

133
Q

What was seen in cases with virulent calicivirus?

A

Systemic Disease - Vasculitis (disruption of intracellular tight junctions) - Edema fever, jt pain, icterus, HIGH mortality (>50%)

134
Q

What resulted in improvement with calicivirus?

A

Fel-IFN-omega (w)

135
Q

Which protein of FeLV is there a ton of in plasma?

A

p27

136
Q

Which subgroup of FeLV is infectious and transmistted from cat to cat?

A

A (but B/C required A to replicate - developed de novo)

137
Q

What are focal infections of FeLV:

A

Provirus DNA in some tissue (NOT in blood or BM)

138
Q

How is FeLV transmitted cat to cat?

A

Saliva - grooming, eating, etc

139
Q

Does susceptibility to FeLV decrease with age?

A

YES, highest in kittens

140
Q

What are the 3 outcomes after a cat is infected with FeLV?

A
  1. Abortive Infection - Virus eliminated (Ab + but Antigen neg)
  2. Transient infection - Virus cleared (Antigen and Ab +)
  3. Chronic infection - Persistent viremia (Ag+, Ab+, IFA +) - Die within 3 years OR Latent infection (clear viremia but persists in BM, Antigen neg, PCR BM+, IFA -) can recrudesce
141
Q

How many cats exposed to FeLV do NOT develop true infection?

A

About 60-80%

142
Q

What risk are FeLV cats for LSA?

A

HIGH, 60X risk within 2 years (mainly T cell) - Esp mediastinal LSA

143
Q

Which FeLV subgroup results in macrocytic anemia?

A

A

144
Q

Which FeLV subgroup results in neoplasia?

A

B

145
Q

Which FeLV subgroup results in asplastic (pure red cell asplasia)?

A

C

146
Q

What are the diagnostics of choice for FeLV?

A
  1. ELISA - p27 soluble Antigen (+ within 30 days infection)

Need to confirm with IFA of BM (detected intracellular p27 antigen) or recheck in 1-3 months

147
Q

For FeLV what does ELISA +, IFA- mean?

A

Early or transient infection

148
Q

For FeLV what does ELISA +, IFA + mean?

A

Persistent infection

149
Q

For FeLV what does ELISA - , IFA + mean?

A

ALWAYS false result

150
Q

What % of cases are PCR + but antigen negative?

A

About 10% latent infections

151
Q

What tx options are there for FeLV?

A

felIFN-omega - improved survival
IFN-alpha - decreased viremia, decreased CS, and improved survival
(AZT no effect!)

152
Q

What are the 5 main diseases with FeLV?

A
  1. Neoplasia (leukemia and LSA (ALL))
  2. Anemia (myelodysplastic/myelofibrosis +/- blasts; anemia of inflammatory dz, secondary IMHA
  3. IM diseases (IM cytopenias, GN, uveitis, polyarthritis)
  4. Neuro (envelop may be neurotoxic)
  5. GI (eneteritis that resembles FPV)
153
Q

What can result in sarcomas in cats with FeLV?

A

Feline sarcomas virus

154
Q

What % of cats develop FIP in mutlicat households?

A

Only 5%

155
Q

Which regions of the genome in coronavirus result in the ability of the virus to replicate in MPs?

A

3C or 7B mutation in these regions

156
Q

What are the two main syndromes with FIP?

A
  1. Effusive (50%) - unable to mount immune response

2. Dry form (70%) - Partial CMI - Pyogranulomatous

157
Q

Which area of the intestine is common to get lesions of FIP?

A

Ileocecal junction

158
Q

What is the Rivalata test? When can you get a false +?

A

Test for FIP - High protein with inflammatory mediators

False +: LSA, bacterial peritonitis

159
Q

What type of gammopathy is seen in FIP cats?

A

Can be poly or monocolonal

Results in Alb: Glob ratio 0.8

160
Q

Which protein was increased >3 in FIP cats?

A

Alpha1-acid glycoprotein (electrophoresis)

161
Q

What is the problem with testing CPR in blood of FIP cat?

A

Avirulent virus can be found in the blood of some cats!!!

162
Q

What is the gold standard to dx FIP?

A

Immunofluoroscent of FCoV antigen in MPs

163
Q

What are the most effective treatments for FIP?

A

Steroids and IFN-alpha

164
Q

What are negative prognostic indicators in FIP?

A 
Low plt
High bilirubin
High Lymphoyctes
Lots of effusion
Seizures
165
Q

What is the recommendations if a cat died of FIP in a house?

A

Wait 3 months to get a new cat (since FIP can persist in environment)

166
Q

Which virus is very common in cats and results in NO CS?

A

Feline Foamy Virus (Syncytium forming virus)

167
Q

Which viruses are ssDNA?

A

Panleukopenia and parvo

168
Q

Which viruses are ssRNA?

A

Influenza, distemper, rabies

169
Q

What virsus are +ssRNA?

A

Calici, corona

170
Q

Which viruses affects the villus tips vs crypts?

A

Tips: Corona and rota
Crypts: Parvo

171
Q

What is the most common form of CPV?

A

CPV-2b

172
Q

Which virus can result in cerebellar hypoplasia in dogs?

A

Parvo

173
Q

Does the SNAP test get all variants of CPV?

A

YES! But only intermittently shed and can be + with recent vxn

174
Q

Which treatment has been shown to decreased severity of GI signs and mortality in dogs with parvo?

A

Feline IFN-omega

sadly not as effective in cats

175
Q

How do neurominidase inhibitors work with parvo?

A

Oseltamivir - Prevent neuraminidase dependent bacteria from translocating

176
Q

What was associated with poor prognosis in dogs with parvo?

A

Leukopenia
SIRS
Rotties

177
Q

Which breeds are at an increased risk of parvo?

A 
Rotties
Dobies
Pit Bulls
Labs
GSD

MALES

178
Q

Does the parvo vxn work fro CPV-2c?

A

YES :)

179
Q

Which virus is associated with decreased citrulline?

A

Parvo in dogs

180
Q

After infection do parvo dogs have protection?

A

YES, natural immunity following infection

181
Q

How long is distemper shed in feces?

A

Up to 3 months!!

182
Q

Which virus is associated with myoclonus?

A

Distemper

183
Q

Which virus can result in metaphyseal lesions consistent with HOD?

A

Distemper

184
Q

In which breed has MLV distemper vxn been associated with HOD?

A

Weimaraners

185
Q

What is old dog encephalitis?

A

Animals that recover from distemper can maintain virus in CNS and develop disease later

186
Q

What neurologic signs has the MLV distempter vxn been associated with?

A

Encephalitis

187
Q

What is the virus that causes infectious K9 hepatitis?

A

Adenovirus 1

188
Q

What 3 cells does adenovirus have tropism for?

A
  1. Endothelial cells
  2. Epithelial cells
  3. Hepatocytes
189
Q

Can you see icterus in adenovirus 1 in dogs?

A

Icterus is uncommon!!! Mainly increased LEs and prolonged clotting times

190
Q

How is adenovirus 1 prevented?

A

Cross protection with CAV-2 vxn

191
Q

Is adenovirus within the environment?

A

YES, it can survive for months!!!

192
Q

Which two viruses cause epithelial destruction by killing Type II pneumocytes?

A

Adenovirus-1

Parainfluenza

193
Q

What is the cause of canine influenza?

A

H3N8

194
Q

What are risk factors of getting K9 influenza?

A

Boarded dogs, doggy daycare, longer time in shelter

195
Q

What breed was hemorrhagic pneumonia of K9influenza seen in?

A

Greyhounds

196
Q

What is the best way to diagnosis K9 influenza?

A

Paired serology

197
Q

How is the K9 influenza vnx helpful?

A

Significantly reduces severity and duration of CS

198
Q

What infectious agents are associated with canine infectious resp diz complex (CIRDC)?

A 
Mycoplasma
Bordetlla
Strep equi zooepidemicus
K9 Herpes virus
K9 Adenovirus-2
K9 distemper virus
K( parinfluenza
K9 Influenza
K9 resp coronavirus
Reovirus
199
Q

In what population of dogs is enteric coronavirus seen?

A

CS in very young dogs

NOT pancytotropic coronavirus (lungs, LN, kidney, liver, GI, spleen, CNS)

200
Q

Which virus can result in fatal enteritis in puppies

A

Rotavirus

201
Q

What allows herpes virus to spread in neonates?

A

Lower body temp

202
Q

What causes fading puppy syndrome?

A

Herpesvirus

203
Q

what virus results in featl resorption, abortion, and still births?

A

Hepresvirus

204
Q

How long is rabies shed in saliva before CS?

A

2 weeks

205
Q

What are the 3 phases of rabies infection?

A
  1. Prodromal: Behavior changes (2-3 days)
  2. Furious Form = Forebrain signs, photophobia, aggression, voice change
  3. Dumb form = Paralytic (flaccid)
    Death within 10 days!!!
206
Q

What is the diagnostic of choice for rabies?

A

Direct IFA on fresh brain, can see Negri bodies too

207
Q

After rabies vxn when is dog immunized?

A

Killed vxn, immunized 28 days later

208
Q

What type pf virus is pseudorabies?

A

Herpes virus - Results in CNS signs, pruritus of head and hypersalivation; almost always fatal

209
Q

What is the spp for Blasto?

A

Blastomyces dermatitides

210
Q

What is the route of infection for Blasto?

A

Inhalation of conidiophores that are phagocytsed by MPs

211
Q

What is associated with a negtaive prognosis for blastmycosis?

A

CNS signs
Severe lung changes
Lots of Bands

212
Q

What is the budding pattern of blasto?

A

Broad based budding

213
Q

What is the test of choice for diagnosis of blasto?

A

Miravista Antigen - Detects cell wall galactomannan - Performed on urine

214
Q

What is the treatment for blasto? Success?

A

Itraconazole (90%), fluconazole (75%)
20-25% relapse!!!
Monitor tx with urine antigen test

215
Q

What is the route of infection of Cryptococcus?

A

Inhalation of basisiospores
C. neoformans (dogs) - Bird poop (pigeon)
C. gatti (cats) - Hardwords

216
Q

What is considered a negative prognostic indicator for Crypto in cats?

A

Altered mentation!!!

217
Q

What is the budding pattern of crypto?

A

Thick clear capsule with narrow budding

218
Q

How do you diagnose Crypto?

A
  1. Cyto/histo (60%)

2. Serology: LAT for polysac capsular Antigen (can monitor during tx)

219
Q

What is the treatment of Cyrpto?

A

AmphoB, fluconazole

Up to 60% cure in cats and 30% cure in dogs

220
Q

What is the prognosis of Cyrpto with CNS signs?

A

32% alive at 1 year :(

221
Q

Which fungal infection results in skin fragility in cats?

A

Histo

222
Q

What is the appearance of Histo?

A

Yeast with clear halo

223
Q

What is the name of histo?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

224
Q

What test can be performed for histo?

A

Galactomannan Antigen on urine (cross reacts with blasto)

225
Q

What is the treatment for histo?

A

Itraconazole, poor prognosis for disseminated disease

226
Q

What is the name of coccidiodes?

A

Coccidiodes immitis

227
Q

What is the most common CS seen with coccidiodes?

A

resp signs (cough, pneumonia), hilar lymphadenopathy

228
Q

What is the appearance of coccidiodes?

A

Spherule with endospores

229
Q

Can you use the urine antigen for coccidiodes?

A

NO

230
Q

What % of cats with Sporothrix are fungemic?

A

34%!!

231
Q

What is the name of Sporothrix?

A

Sporothrix schenki (ZOONOTIC)

232
Q

What is the appearance of Sporothrix?

A

Cigar shaped

233
Q

What is the tx for Sporothrix?

A

Potassium iodide, terbinafine (cure rate 38-80%)

234
Q

What are main sites of Pythium insidiosum infection?

A

GI - Gastric outflow, ileocolic jxn, root of mensentery

235
Q

What can be used to diagnose Pythium insidiosum?

A

Cyto/histo
ELISA for Antibodies (serology - that can be monitored with tx)
Culture

236
Q

What is the treatment of Pythium insidosum?

A

Sx

Itraconazole, terbinafine, amphoB, mefenoxame, immunotherapy

237
Q

What is the mosquite larval pathogen?

A

Lagenidium spp

238
Q

Which disease is associated with low to borderline low globulins (hypogammaglobulinemia)?

A

Pneumocystis carinii

239
Q

What is the treatment for Pneumocystis carinii?

A

TMS* or pentamidine

240
Q

What are the two forms of Prototheca (and spp)?

A 
Prototheca wickerhammi (skin)
Prototheca zopfi (diseeminated)
241
Q

How do you diagnosed Angiostongylus? What is the treatment?

A

Baermann

Fenbendazole

242
Q

What do cats eat to get Eureytram procyonis?

A

Snail to grasshopper to cat (pancreatic fluke)

243
Q

What do cats eat to get Amphimerus pseudofelis?

A

Snail to fish to cat (bile duct fluke)

244
Q

What is the best way to diagnose C. difficile?

A

Fecal toxin and get organism (PCR, antigen ELISA, culture)

245
Q

What is the best way to diagnose C. perfringens?

A

C. perfringens enterotoxin (CPE)

246
Q

What is the treatment fro Campylobacter?

A

Macrolides (azithromycin) or Fluoroquinolones

247
Q

Which type of E.coli results in granulomatous colitis?

A

Adherent-invasive E. coli

Boxer, Frenchies, Border Collies

248
Q

What is the pathognomonic signs for granulomatous colitis?

A

Muscoal infiltration with PAS + MPs and E. coli (FISH tissue)

249
Q

How many E. coli from granulomatous colitis are resistant to fluoroquinolones?

A

43%!!! Need to culture to know how to treat

Infectious Disease (3 decks)

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