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Infectious Disease > CVT Infectious Disease > Flashcards

CVT Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is a concentration dependent abx?

A

o Clinical efficacy determined by Cmax:MIC and AUC:MIC o Generally have prolonged postantibiotic effects = can do SID dosing o Fluoroquinolones, aminoglycosides, metronidazole, azithromycin

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2
Q

What is a time dependent abx?

A

o Clinical efficacy determined by T>MIC o Penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides/lincosamides, tetracyclines, chloramphenicol, sulfonamides

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3
Q

What should you suspect if you have alkaline urine?

A

Urease-producing bacteria (Staph if gram+ cocci and Proteus if gram - rod)

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4
Q

What should you suspect if you have acidic urine?

A

E. coli (Gram - rods), Enterococcus (gram+ cocci)

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5
Q

What is the only oral abx that is effective against pseudomonas?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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6
Q

What is the most common cause of UTI?

A

E. coli

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of pyoderma?

A

Staph intermedius

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8
Q

What is the major concern for upper respiratory tract infections in cats?

A

Bordetellas, Mycoplasma, Chlamydophila

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9
Q

If you are trying to treat B-lactamase Bacteroides fragilis what should you consider?

A

Clindamycin and Metronidazole

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10
Q

Name 2 resp infectious dz where steroids may be helpful.

A

Tracheobronchitis - Anti-inflammatory Fungal pneumonia - as ogranisms die off - anti-inflammatory

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11
Q

What is the most common veneral disease in dogs?

A

Brucella canis

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12
Q

How is Brucella transmitted?

A

Direct exposure through body fluids

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13
Q

What disease can result in scrotal dermatitis?

A

Brucella canis

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14
Q

How is Brucella diagnosed?

A

o Screening: RSAT, tube agglutination (semiquantitative), AGID, or ELISA § Sensitive but nonspecific (cross-reaction w/ Bordetella, Pseudonomas, Moraxella o Confirmatory blood cultures: if screening test positive § Recent PCR assay developed

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15
Q

What is the treatment for Brucella?

A

Neuter and abx

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16
Q

What is the most prevalent serovar of Lepto in US?

A

Grippotyphosa

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17
Q

What breed may have a predisposition to Lepto?

A

GSD

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18
Q

What is the classic presentation of Lepto?

A

Acute renal failure (90%) - May be PU/PD profound even if not azotemic Hepatic Failure in 10-20% of cases

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19
Q

What has an important role in pathogenicity in Lepto?

A

Outer membrane protein

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20
Q

What is the major concern for upper respiratory tract infections in dogs?

A

Bordetella

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21
Q

What is the gold standard for Lepto diagnosis?

A

MAT (microagglutination test) Tier > 1:800 with CS

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22
Q

IF animal recently vaccinated for lepto what can happen with diagnosis?

A

MAT (microagglutination test) Vaccine can induce titer 1:3200

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23
Q

What is recommended for lepto testing now?

A

MAT (microagglutination test) and PCR (urine)

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24
Q

Which abx eliminated leptospiremic phase but does NOT eliminate organism from renal tubules?

A

Ampicillin

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25
Q

Which abx elimiated all phases of Lepto and eliminated leptospiruria?

A

Doxycycline

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26
Q

What is the current recommendation for treatment of lepto?

A

ampicillin IV in hospital and then transitions to oral doxycycline x 3-4 weeks

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27
Q

Why do some animals with lepto have thrombocytopenia?

A

Kuppfer cell phagocytosis

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28
Q

What type of bacteria is Bartonella?

A

Gram Negative

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29
Q

Which Bartonella spp results in persistent intravascular infection in dogs? What is the vector?

A

Bartonella vinsonii ssp berkhoffii Rhipicephalus sanguineus (other ticks)

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30
Q

Which Bartonella spp results in persistent intravascular infection in cats? What is the vector?

A

Bartonella henselae and clarridgeiae Fleas

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31
Q

When should you consider tx for Bartonella in a cat?

A

Consider abx treatment in cats who are seropositive or bacteremic (culture or PCR+) and have clinical manifestations, but not healthy seropositive cats

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32
Q

What is the most thoroughly estimated disease associated with Bartonella vinsonii?

A

Endocarditis

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33
Q

Name other diseases that occur with Bartonellosis.

A

epistaxis, dermatologic lesions indicative of cutaneous vasculitis, anterior uveitis, polyarthritis, meningoencephalitis, granulomatous lymphadenitis, IMTP, IMHA, probably others

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34
Q

What improves sensitivity of diagnosing Bartonella?

A

BAPGM followed by PCR

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35
Q

What infectious disease is associated with acute hemolytic anemia in cats?

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis

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36
Q

What is the preferred method to diagnose Mycoplasma infections?

A

PCR

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37
Q

Where is Mycoplasma haemofelis and M. haemocanis locations?

A

On surface of RBCs

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38
Q

What is the tx of choice for Mycoplasma?

A

Doxycycline (fluoroquinolones can decrease organism #)

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39
Q

What is the caustive agent of Infectious canine thrombocytopenia?

A

Anaplasma platys o Infects thrombocytes à cyclic TCP (lessens in severity with each cycle); 1-2 week cycles o Tick vector: suspect Rhipicephalus o Often discovered incidentally; can cause epistaxis/petechiae

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40
Q

What is the vector for Anaplasma platys infections?

A

suspect Rhipicephalus

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41
Q

Which organism results in granulocytic anaplasmosis?

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum o Infects WBCs (neutrophils > eosinophils) o Tick vector is Ixodes; most transmission in spring/summer and fall

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42
Q

Which cell does Anaplasma platys infect?

A

Platelets

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43
Q

Which cell does Anaplasma phagocytophilum infect?

A

WBCs (neutrophils > eosinophils)

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44
Q

What is the vector of Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

A

Ixodes

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45
Q

What is the most common bloodwork finding with Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

A

Thrombocytopenia

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46
Q

If you find basophilic inclusion bodies within platelets you should be thinking of….

A

Anaplasma platys

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47
Q

If you find basophilic morulae in cytoplasma of granulocytes you should be thinking of…..

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum and E. ewingii

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48
Q

Which organism has indistinguishable morule with Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

A

E. ewingii

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49
Q

What are the 4 organisms that are tested for on the SNAP 4Dx?

A

D. immitus, A. phagocytophilum, B. burgdorferi, E. canis

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50
Q

Will A. platys cross react on the SNAP 4Dx?

A

YES, it will cross react with A. phagocytophilum in this test

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51
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Anaplasmosis?

A

Doxycycline (28 days)

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52
Q

What organism causes North American canine visceral leishmaniasis (CVL)?

A

· North American canine visceral leishmaniasis (CVL) → protozoan parasite Leishmania infantu

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53
Q

What are the life stages of Leishmania?

A

Intracellular within macrophages
Excellular promastigotes (infective stage) - within skin
Amastigotes (binary fission within macrophages)

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54
Q

If an animal presents with these CS (Wt loss, generalized lymphadenopathy, periocular, facial, auricular dermatitis with exfoliation and development of cutaneous ulcers over boney protuberances (extension to trunk/extremities), ocular d/c (from KCS)) what should you consider?

A

Leishmania

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55
Q

If an animal has cutaneous lesions from Leishmania, whar can be implies?

A

There is also visceral involvement

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56
Q

What disease can result in a purulent exudative synovitis?

A

Leishmania

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57
Q

What CS should alert you to suspect that a dog has Leishmania?

A

chronic skin lesions, ocular discharge, generalized lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, wt loss

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58
Q

What form of Leishmania can you see on FNA of spleen, LN, BM, skin imprints?

A

Amastigotes

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59
Q

In Leishmania why is there a hyperproteinemia?

A

hypergammaglobulinemia, hypoalbuminemia

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60
Q

What is considered to be a postive IFAT for Leishmania?

A

Titer of 1:64

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61
Q

In the Leishmania PCR (blood, BM. LN) what is amplified that is common in all Leishmania spp?

A

conserved minicircle of kinetoplast = extracellular DNA structure of parasitic flagellates

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62
Q

In what samples should PCR be performed for Leishmania?

A

Higher in BM and LN than in blood

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63
Q

What is a more rapid testing method that is available for Leishmania?

A

Recombinant Antigen Immunassay (rK39)Repetitive immunodominant epitope that mimics kinesin-related protein that is highly conserved among viscerotropic Leishmania spp - Detected in 90% of infected dogs

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64
Q

Which oragnism cross reacts with Leishmania on IFAT?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

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65
Q

What is the tx for Leishmania?

A

Meglumine antimoniate (Glucantime)
Sodium Stibogluconate (Pentostam)
Need to get through CDC - Controversial if we should treat
· Parasitic cures are UNCOMMON, but CLINICAL IMPROVEMENTS do result
Also consider allopurinol; marbofloxacin??

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66
Q

How can Leishmania be prevented?

A

Commerical vaccine - proven effective in reducing infection rates in dogs and humans in endemic regions = LeishmuneR

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67
Q

Can dogs produce oocyts of T. gondii?

A

§ Dogs DO NOT produce oocysts, but can mechanically transmit oocysts after ingesting feline feces

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68
Q

What are the life stages of Toxoplasmosis?

A

o Sporozoites develop in occysts after 1-5 days after exposure to oxygen and environmental temps/humidity
§ Store feces in fridge to protect staff
o Tachyzoites: Rapidly dividing stage; disseminate in blood or lymph during active infection and replicate rapidly intracellularly until cell is destroyed
§ Tachyzoites can be detected in blood, aspirates, effusions
o Bradyzoites: Slowly dividing, persistent tissue stage that form in extraintestinal tissue of infected hosts (as immune response attenuate tachyzoite replication)
§ Readily in CNS, muscle, visceral organs
§ Can be a source of reactivated acute infection (during immune suppression by FIV, high dose cyclosporine, etc) or chronic disease (uveitis)

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69
Q

What is true about the bradyzoites that are in tissue in dogs, cats, and humans?

A

Persist for LIFE, regardless of drugs given

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70
Q

T/F. Chronic GI disease in cats from toxo is UNCOMMON

A

TRUE

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71
Q

What are the most commonly invaded tissues in toxoplasmosis?

A

Hepatic, pulmonary, CNS, pancreatic tissue commonly invaded

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72
Q

Although steroids do NOT appear to activate toxoplasmosis, which drug can?

A

Cyclosporine! Fatal disseminated toxo

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73
Q

What CS are present in a cat with chronic toxoplasmosis?

A

Anterior or posterior uveitis, fever, muscle hyperesthesia, weight loss, anorexia, seizures, ataxia, icterus, diarrhea, or pancreatitis

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74
Q

What is the most common infectious cause of uveitis in cats?

A

Toxoplasmosis

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75
Q

Are there drugs that can clear Toxoplasmosis?

A

NO drugs totally clear toxoplasmosis from body - Need to tell owner this

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76
Q

What are the 3 main body systems affected with diseeminated toxoplasmosis?

A

Respiratory, GI, Neuromuscular

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77
Q

What correlated best with clinical toxoplasmosis?

A

IgM titer, BUT □ Failure to detect an increasing IgG titer or + IgM titer does NOT exclude toxo

Esp in chronic dz

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78
Q

Is the magnitude of the titer important in Toxoplasmosis?

A

NO, since you can’t clear the organism, you will have Abs for life

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79
Q

What is recommended for a diagnosis of Toxoplasmosis?

A
  1. CS of toxo; 2. Abs in serum (exposure to organism); 3. IgM titer > 1:64 or 4X or greater increased in IgG (recent or active infection); 4. Exclusion of other common causes of clinical syndrome; 5. Positive response to tx
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80
Q

What are the 2 main treatments for toxoplasmosis?

A

Clindamycin and TMS (pentrates CNS better

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81
Q

What is the prognosis for hepatic and pulmonary toxoplasmosis?

A

POOR, esp if immunocompromised

82
Q

Which infectious organism can alter behavior of prey?

A

Toxoplasmosis

83
Q

Why is owning a cat not a common way to get toxoplasmosis?

A

o Cats generally shed oocysts for day to several wks following primary inoculation
o Repeat oocyst shedding is rare (even in cats on steroids/cyclosporine or infected with FIV/FeLV)
o Cats inoculated with tissue cysts 16 months after primary inoculation do not shed oocysts
o Cats are very fastidious, do not allow feces to remain on skin for long periods (NOT enough time for oocyst to sporulate) – Not isolated from fur of cats
o Increased risk of acquired toxo is NOT associated with cat ownership
§ However, some cats will repeat shed oocysts and thus feces should always be handled carefully

84
Q

Can serologic testing help to predict if a cat will shed toxoplasmosis?

A

NO, Most cats that are shedding oocysts are seronegative

85
Q

What is the mode of transmission of Pneumocystis?

A

Airborne droplets btwn hosts

86
Q

What are the life stages of Pneumocystis carinii?

A

Completed within alveolar space (organism adhere in clusters to pneumocytes)

  • 2 Main Forms: Trophozoite; Cyst
87
Q

Which organism is thought to be intraalveolar?

A

Pneumocystis carinii

88
Q

Which infectious disease should you think of with miniature dachshunds?

A

Pneumocystis carinii

89
Q

What is a risk factor for developing Pneumocystis carinii?

A

Immunodeficiency

90
Q

What are the methods for diagnosing Pneumocystis carinii?

A

Direct identification (lung bx, BALF), IFA, PCR, Serology

91
Q

What is the treatment for Pneumocystis carinii?

A

TMS

92
Q

What is an intracellular protozoan that is found in feline RBCs?

A

Cytauxzoon felis

93
Q

What are the 2 forms of Cytauxzoonosis?

A

§ Erythrocyte Phase (piroplasm)
§ Tissue Phase (Schizont)

94
Q

What is the reservoir host of Cytauxzoon felis?

A

Wild bobcat

95
Q

What is the vector of Cytauxzoon felis?

A

Dermacentor variabilis- American Dog Tick

96
Q

What time of year is Cytauxzoon felis found?

A

Early spring to early summer

97
Q

What is a hyperendemic foci with Cytauxzoon felis?

A

infection in 1+ cats in multiple households = Likely resulting from common exposure to ticks rather than cat-cat transmission

98
Q

What determines clinical dz in cats with Cytauxzoon felis?

A

Clinical dz in cats depends on exposure to schizogenous tissue phase of C. felis

99
Q

What is required for the life cycle of Cytauxzoon felis?

A 
Piroplasms cannot progress through life cycle without passing through tick (TICK NEEDED for life cycle → Transtadial transmission)
 o Schizogony (asexual reproduction) in mononuclear phagocytic cells associated with vessels in almost EVERY organ
 o As Schizonts undergo schizogony/binary fission → Macrophages lining blood vessels enlarge = Occlude venules in liver, spleen, lung, LNs → Thrombus-like mechanical obstruction of blood flow and tissue hypoxia
 § Suspected to release toxin, pyrogenic, and vasoactive products that contribute
 § Detected by 12 days after infection = Venous congestion, thrombotic dz, organ failure → DEATH within 3 weeks of infection
 o Schizonts = DISEASE (more schizonts = more severe illness)
 o Schizonts develop merozoites that are released when infected macrophages rupture
 § Merozoites undergo endocytosis by erythrocytes → Late-stage erythroparasitemia = Piroplasms
100
Q

What disease should be considered if a cat presents with Depression, dehydration, anorexia followed by fever (as high as 107° F), icterus, anemia, dark urine, tachycardia, splenomegaly, variable hepatomegaly, reluctance to move, vocalizing with generalized pain?

A

Cytauxzoon felis

101
Q

If you notice a § Pleomorphic, 1-2um “signet ring” (round to oval with single peripherally located nucleus)
□ Or as elongated bipolar nucleus (“safety pin”), comma-shaped, linear, or tetrad (“Maltese cross”), it is likley that you have?

A

= C. felis

102
Q

What percentage of cases with C. felis will have low # or absent piroplasma in RBCs?

A

Up to 50%

103
Q

In a cat with C. felis what can be seen in splenic, LN, liver, and BM aspirates?

A

schizont-laden macrophages

104
Q

In what organs can the large schizont-laden macrophages of C. felis be found?

A

lungs, spleen, liver, kidneys, LNs, BM, heart, brain

105
Q

What disease should be considered if you have the following: acute onset fever, depression, icterus, anemia, hepatosplenomegalyFree-roaming cat with exposure to ticks in endemic area?

A

C. felis

106
Q

T/F. Dz from schizogenous phase may precede detectable erythroparasitemia.

A

True - § Dramatic increases in piroplasms within 24 hrs (keep checking smear)

107
Q

What is the current tx recommendation for C. felis?

A

Atovaquone and azithromycin

108
Q

What organ systems do coccidioides immitis infects?

A

Resp tract, skeleton, skin, percardium

109
Q

What organ systems do Histoplasma capsulatum infect?

A

Resp tract, liver, spleen, GIT (dog), skeleton, eyes

110
Q

What organ systems do Blastomyces dermatitidis infect?

A

Resp tract, bone, LN, eyes, brain, skin/SQ tissue, external nares

111
Q

If pericardial effusion with pyogranulomatous pericarditis, think of…..

A

Coccidiodomycosis

112
Q

IF myocardial or conduciton system dz, think……

A

Blastomycosis

113
Q

What is the diagnostic of choice for Cryptococcosis?

A

Serology detect capsular antigen

114
Q

What us the diagnostic of choice for blastomycosis?

A

Urine antigen assay (more sensitive than serum) -

§ Sensitivity: 93%
§ Specificity: 98%
o May be helpful to determine duration of tx
o Cross-reactivity between the Histoplasma and Blastomyces organisms

115
Q

In the blastomycosis urine antigen test which organism can cross-react?

A

Histoplasma

116
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Coccidioides immitis?

A

ketoconazole or fluconazole

117
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Histoplasma capsulatum?

A

Itraconazole (Amphotericin B if in GIT)

118
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Blastomyces dematitidis?

A

Itraconazole

119
Q

What is the treatment of choice of Cryptococcus neoformans?

A

Itraconazole and terbinafine

120
Q

What is the organism that results in fatal GI and cutanous lesions in dogs/cats?

A

Pythium insidiosum

121
Q

What is the infective form of pythium?

A

· Infective form: motile biflagellate zoospore → Released into aquatic environments
o Infection by encysting damaged skin and GI mucosa

122
Q

What should be considered in a patient that has recurrent exposure to warm freshwater habitats and has GI signs and cutaneous lesions?

A

Pythium insidiosum

123
Q

What is the most common location for GI Pythium insidiosum?

A

Gastric outflow, proximal duodenum, ileocolic junction = Segmental thickening

124
Q

T/F. For pythium: Cutaneous + GI lesions RARELY seen together in same patient

A

TRUE

125
Q

What is an organism that can result in nasopharyngeal lesions and invasive SQ masses in cats?

A

Pythium insidiosum

126
Q

What organism can be missed on endoscopic bx?

A

Pythium insidiosum

127
Q

What is a highly sensitive and specific method to detect Pythium?

A

ELISA - Detects anti–P. insidiosum antibodies (dogs/cats) = Also very useful for monitoring response to tx

128
Q

Why is medical tx for Pythium NOT rewarding?

A

o Likely because ergosterol (target for most currently available anti-fungals) – Generally LACKING in oomycete cell membrane

BUT, some clinical and serologic cures in patients tx with itraconzole and terbinafine BUT

129
Q

What is Lagenidium giganteum?

A

Mosquito larval pathogen that EPA approved biologic pesticide to control mosquito populations

130
Q

Which organism Pythium or lagenidium can be seen on H &E?

A

Lagenidium

131
Q

What is needed to diagnose Lagenidium?

A

Serology + histopath with negative pythium serology
BUT best made by culture (differenitate bwtn 2 pathogenic spp)

132
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Lagenidium?

A

SX - Medical treatment is NOT effective!

133
Q

What are the 4 core vaccines for dogs?

A

Canine distemper virus (CDV), canine parvovirus (CPV), canine adenovirus-2 (CAV-2) (for its ability to protect against canine hepatitis [CAV-1]), and rabies vaccines

134
Q

What are the serovars in the lepto vaccines?

A

canicola, icteroharmorrhagiae, pomona, grippotyphosa

135
Q

What are the core vaccines for cats?

A

Parvovirus, Herpesvirus-1, Calcicivirus, Rabies

136
Q

What type of virus is FIV?

A

Lentivirus

137
Q

What type of virus is FeLV?

A

Oncornavirus (MOST pathogenic)

138
Q

Which feline retrovirus is difficult to transmit?

A

FIV = Biting and fighting

139
Q

Which feline retrovirus is transmitted via fomites?

A

FeLV - Fomites, grooming, close contact

140
Q

What will occur with cats that are vaccinated with FIV?

A

The serology will be +

141
Q

What occurs in naïve cats when they are exposed to FeLV?

A

production of virus neutralizing Ab – either infection cleared or latent or persistently viremic

142
Q

What can be given to FIV and FeLV + cats to increased RBCs (and WBCs)?

A

rHu-EPO

143
Q

What did FeLV+ cats get that resulted in longer survival?

A

Feline Interferon Omega

144
Q

If a cat presents with fever, conjunctivitis, rhinitis, oral ulcerations and/or chronic stomatitis, you should consider?

A

Feline Calicivirus

145
Q

If a cate has lameness what viral infection should you consider?

A

Feline Calicivirus

146
Q

What type of virus is calicivirus?

A

RNA = Rapid mutation

147
Q

What are the possibilities once a cat is infected with calicivirus?

A

Shedding of virus may terminate in wks to months
Development of persistent oropharyngeal infection with continous shedding = carrier state

148
Q

What virus should be considered in a cat that has severe respiratory distress, GIT signs, icterus, and ulcerations on nose, lips, pinnae?

A

FCV-associated virulent systemic disease = HIGH moratlity rate (50%)

149
Q

What is the test of choice to diagnose feline calicivirus?

A

FCV virus isolation and culture from oronasal swabs/secretions (PCR is hard since it is an RNA virsu)

150
Q

What disease is likely with intraRBC protozoan parasites in dogs?

A

Babesiosis

151
Q

Which Babesia is found in greyhounds?

A

Babesia canis

152
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Babesia canis?

A

Imidocarb - clearance of parasite

153
Q

Which Babesia is found in pit bulls?

A

Babesia gibsoni

154
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Babesia gibsoni?

A

Atovaquone and azithromycin - resulted in parasite clearance in 85% of cases

155
Q

What are the classic CS of Babesiosis?

A

anemia, thrombocytopenia, hyperglobulinemia, hyperbilirubinemia, fever and splenomegaly, rarely bilirubinuria = Should be considered for all IMHA or IMTP

156
Q

What is the most virulent Babesia?

A

B. canis rossi (S. Africa)

157
Q

What is the diagnostic of choice for Babesia?

A

PCR (once on tx recheck 2 PCR 30 days apart)

158
Q

What is considered the vector of Babesia canis?

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

159
Q

What type of virus is Canine influenza?

A

• Orthomyxoviridae family – influenza A virus (hemagglutinin and neuraminidase envelope glycoproteins)

160
Q

What percentage of asympatomatic dogs may shed influenza virus?

A

10-20%

161
Q

What is the most common CS of canine influenza?

A

Cough (other fever, nasal dc)

162
Q

What is the treatment for canine influenza?

A

Most cases are self-limiting, occasionally complicated by secondary bacterial pneumonia and antibiotic therapy based on C&S may be required

163
Q

What is the breakdown of feline coronavirus in the cat population?

A

○ Transient FCoV infection (65% of cats)
○ Persistent infection (13% of cats)
○ FIP (5-10% of cats)
○ Resistant to FCoV infection (~3% of cats)

164
Q

What drives clinical disease in feline coronavirus?

A

• FoCV infected macrophages release cytokines that drive clinical disease

IL-6 = acute phase proteins (AGP)

165
Q

What could be considered to treat FIP?

A

Steroids and interferon-w

166
Q

What is the vaccine for feline coranavirus and is it recommended?

A

Primucell - Not recommended

167
Q

What is important about getting a + FeLV test?

A

Cat can RECOVER at any stage of infection so you need to RETEST in TWELVE WKS = § Since disease prevalence is low PPV is low (ie. False positives are high)

168
Q

What breeds do you think of when Mycobacterium avium?

A

Siamese cats and Basset hounds

169
Q

What is the definitive host of Hepatozoan canis?

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineus (Brown Dog tick)

170
Q

What is the definitive host of Hepatozoan americanum?

A

Amblyomma maculatum (Gulf Coast Tick)

171
Q

What is the intermediate host of Hepatzoan?

A

Dog!

172
Q

How are dogs infected with Hepatozoan?

A

Dog must ingest the tick!! To become infected - Once into macrophages = Meronts - merozoites are formed within meronts and released and then infect leukocytes to become gametocytes (tick ingests these)

173
Q

What are the most common CS assoicated with Hepatozian americanum infections?

A

Fever, chronic wt loss, mucopurulent ocular d/c, gait changes

174
Q

What disease should you think of with MARKED leukocytosis with mature neutrophilia?

A

Hepatozoan americanum

175
Q

What are common findings on Chemistry for hepatozoonosis?

A

Elevated ALP, hypoglycemia, and hypoalbuminemia

176
Q

How do we diagnose Hepatozoonosis?

A

Directly seeing gametocytes on bloodsmear
Muscle bx =Cysts
PCR (Auburn)

177
Q

Why may radiographs of long bones help with Hepatozoonosis?

A

Periosteal proliferation may be seen on various bones

178
Q

What is the treatment for Hepatozoonosis?

A

No treatment that will eliminate organism from host!!! Remission with TMS, pyrimethamine, clindamycin for 14 days

179
Q

What can be used to keep dogs with Hepatozoonosis in remission?

A

Decoquinate (coccidiostat) - yrs, without it 10-12 months

180
Q

What percentage of dogs with H. americanum will have concurrent disease?

A

About 50% will have other tick borne disease - use doxy too

181
Q

What virus causes dendritic keratitis?

A

Feline herpesvirus

182
Q

What is the full name of Lepto and what are the serovars?

A

Leptospira interogans
Canicola, ictero, grippo, bratislava, pomona, australis, autumalis

183
Q

Where is Lepto present in reservoir?

A

Within Renal tubules - Can be shed for life!!

184
Q

Does the lepto vaccine result in a + PCR?

A

No

185
Q

What is the overall survival with Lepto?

A

About 80% worse with respiratpry or severe azotemia

186
Q

Which Lepto serovar has the worset renal disease?

A

Pomona

187
Q

Which Lepto serovar has the worest pulmonary signs?

A

Ictero

188
Q

Which Lepto serovar has the worest liver signs?

A

Grippo

189
Q

What percentage of dogs in endemic area with tick exposure will be Ab+ for Lyme disease?

A

About 20%

190
Q

What is the caustive agent of Lyme?

A

Borrelia burgdoferi

191
Q

What ticks transmit Lyme?

A

Ixodes = Converts OspA into OspC

192
Q

Which breeds get Lyme nephritis?

A

Labs and goldens - No Borrelia in kidney = GN, tubular necrosis, LP nephritis

193
Q

What is the best diagnostic for Lyme disease?

A 
c6 ELISA (drops with tx too) - But does not always correlated with dz
Western Blot (Osp) = Vaccine: OspA; Infection: OspC
194
Q

What is the treament of choice for Lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline for 30 days
TX if CS, if proteinuria, or if C6>30

195
Q

What type of virus is feline panleukopenia?

A

Parvovirus, Non-envel, ssDNA

196
Q

What are several prognostic factors for feline panleukopenia virus?

A

Non-survivors had lower plts, leukocytes, albumin, and hypokalemia

197
Q

What type of virus is FIV?

A

Lentivirus, ssRNA (retrovirus)

198
Q

What is a major problem of chronic FIV infection in cats?

A

Chronic ulceroproliferative stomatitis (esp if co-infection with calicivirus)

199
Q

What type of virus is FeLV?

A

Retrovirus - ssRNA

200
Q

What does the ELISA for FeLV test for?

A

p27 soluble antigen

201
Q

What is the Rivalta’s test?

A

Used for FIP
High protein, fibrin, and inflammatory mediators leads to + result

202
Q

What are negative prognostic factors for FIP?

A

Low Plt count, high bilirubin, high lymphocyte coung, large amount of effusion, and seizures

Infectious Disease (3 decks)

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