INDOC Flashcards
1
Q
How many hours is type must at least one crew member have?
A
Either the PIC or SIC must have at least 75 hours of line experience in type.
2
Q
What line experience is required in the days following Aircraft check ride?
A
All pilots must acquire 100 hours of line experience within 120 days following aircraft check ride. (IOE included)
3
Q
When may a passenger not be served alcohol?
A
- when they appear intoxicated
- when they are acting as an escort or being escorted
- when they are authorized to carry a weapon
4
Q
What constitutes a complete airworthiness check of the aircraft?
A
- internal and external preflight of the aircraft
- an airworthiness release signature on white flight log sheet
- review of the MX log, DMI sheet, and CDL compliance.
5
Q
Before flight the PIC should become familiar with the following…
A
- wx reports and forecasts
- fuel requirements
- alternates if flight can not be completed
- known traffic delays
- runways and lengths at airports of intended use
- required take of and landing distances
- NOTAMS
6
Q
What information is required on the release?
A
- ID of aircraft
- trip number
- VFR or IFR
- min. Fuel supply
- departure, destination, alternate, and intermediate stop airports.
- latest WX roots for airports of intended use
- all active MEL and CDL items
7
Q
When is a new or amended release required?
A
- a flight originates or is delayed more than one hour
- a flight departs an intermediate station after a ground time of more than one hour
- a flight can not depart in accordance with the release
- the PIC or dispatcher request
- change of aircraft
- return to field
- crew member change
- a deferral affecting performance
8
Q
How can an amendment be made to a release?
A
- both PIC and dispatcher both agree
- strike through the old entry and note changes.
- dispatcher does same to their copy.
9
Q
What weights must the load manifest contain?
A
- aircraft
- fuel
- oil
- cargo
- baggage
- passengers
- crew members
10
Q
What paper work must the PIC carry to the destination?
A
What paper work must the PIC carry to the destination? -manifest
- release
- flight plan
- CLR of available
PIC may discard at destination unless and incident, accident, or emergency was declared.
11
Q
What are the requirements for fuel increase/decrease?
A
- any increase must be coordinated with the dispatcher
- a fuel decrease of 200 lbs or 50% of the contingency fuel (whichever is less)may be made without notifying the dispatcher.
12
Q
What flight changes should be reported to the dispatcher as soon as practical?
A
- late by more than 45 min. Of ETA
- change of altitude of 4,000 ft
- 100 miles or more off of intended course
13
Q
When must the PIC declare N emergency due to fuel?
A
When it is determined that landing at the nearest suitable airport will result in landing with less than 30 min of fuel.
Crj 200-1250
Crj 700-1800
Crj 900-190
14
Q
Conditional weather language includes…
A
Tempo
Prob.
Becmg
15
Q
What defines main body weather?
A
Main weather body tarts with a FM and ends with another FM or at the end of a BECMG.
16
Q
Before dispatch weather at the destination must be_____.
A
At or above the the minimums for the airport at the ETA. (Visibility only)
17
Q
Explain exemption 3585 and when it is applied.
A
The exemption gives relief to dispatch when conditional weather exists.
The conditional weather can be below minimums but not less than 1/2 the minimum at you ETA.
Main body must be above min. And conditional weather must be at least 1/2 min. At the ETA.
The exemption can only be used on the first and second ALT.
The exemption can not be used
- at a second AlT or take of alt.
- on conditional language BECMG
- by high min. Captains
A second alternate must be listed and PIC must obtain most recent METAR and TAF for all 3 airports.
18
Q
Where can exemption 3585 be used?
Ex. Destination, alternates?
A
Destination and First alternate only.
19
Q
When can exemption 3585 not be used?
A
- on a second alternate
- conditional weather BECMG (it is main body)
- by high MIN. Captain.
20
Q
What additional requirements are there if exemption 3585 is used?
A
- a second alternate must be listed
- PIC while enroute must obtain most recent, METAR and TAF for all 3 airports.
21
Q
When may the IAP minima for a GPS/RNAV approach be used or dispatch?
A
At either the destination or alternate. Not at both
22
Q
When exemption 3585 is used to qualify an alternate, what weather is required?
A
1/2 half the required ceiling AND visibility for the IAP for that airport.
23
Q
What is defined as a ceiling?
A
OVC, BKN, VV
24
Q
Explain the single approach method for planning an elder ate.
A
The single approach method requires on instrument approach and the airport. It can be straight in, circling, precision, or non precision.
25
Explain how to derive alternate mins using the dual approach method.
Using two separate approaches with different navaids, both straight in..
Add 200 ft to DA or MDA of the two approaches and add 1/2 to the higher min of the 2 approaches.
Runways must be suitable, meaning winds and gusts within operating limits.
Use the most restrictive.
26
When is an alternate required?
1-2-3 rule
An alternate is required under IFR unless with in 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA the weather is forecast to be at or above 2,000 ft and at or above 3 miles vis.
Anything below requires an alternate.
27
When is a second alternate required?
Anytime exemption 3685 has been used.
When weather is forecast to be marginal at both the destination and first alternate.
Marginal is defined as equal to landing mins at destination (vis)and equal to filing mins at Alternate. (Vis and ceiling)
28
When is a take off alternate required?
If the weather at the departure airport is below the mins for appch to that airport (including CAT II) then a take off alternate is required.
The alternate must be within one hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
29
If an engine fails or mechanical failure endangers the safety of the flight what must the PIC do?
Proceed to the nearest suitable airport in point of time.
30
If given priority handling by ATC what must you do?
Submit a written report through the VP of Flight Ops within 48 hours.
31
If you declare an emergency what reports are required?
A verbal report to the MOD as soon as possible and a written report within 48 hours.
32
Who must be notified if an aborted take off is performed?
MX control. It can wait until the destination if it was not due to something mechanical.
33
Who must be notified if an aborted take off is performed?
MX control. It can wait until the destination if it was not due to something mechanical.
34
What must you report if you encounter severe turbulence?
Notify MX over Atlanta Radio or ACARS and write up the event in the aircraft MX log.
35
What events require an IOR?
```
Accidents
Aircraft damage
Incidents
ATC - safety concerns
Bird or wildlife strike
Diverts
Emergencies
Engine shut down in flight
Fires
Severe or greater turbulence
Incapacitated crew member
Injury to passenger or employee
Landing at other than nearest suitable
Hard landing
Unscheduled landing
Laser
Near mid air
NTSB 830 items
On duty crew member not fit
Passenger disputes
Denied boarding
FAR violation
Passenger illness or death
PED interference
Unruly/intoxicated passenger
Possible impact to Skywest rep.
Rejected take offs
Return to field
Runway excursions
Security related items
Unsafe conditions
```
36
What is the speed limit in regards to class C and D airspace?
200 kias within 4 NM and 2500 feet
37
Class B airspace cloud clearance and VIS requirements.
3 SM vis
| Clear of clouds
38
Class C vis And cloud clearance requirements.
3 sm vis.
1,000 ft above
2,000 ft horizontal
500 ft below
39
Class D vis and cloud clearance
3 sm vis
1,000 above
2,000 ft horizontal
500 ft below
40
Class E airspace vis and cloud clearance below 10,000 ft.
3 sm vis
1,000 ft above
2,000 ft horizontal
500 ft below
41
Class E airspace at or above 10,000 ft
5 SM vis
1,000 ft above
1 sm horizontal
1,000 ft below
42
Class G airspace vis and cloud clearance above 10,000 MSL and above 1,200 AGL.
5 sm vis
1,000 ft above
1 sm horizontal
1,000 ft below
43
Class G airspace below 10,000 MSL above 1,200 agl
```
1 sm day
3 sm night
1,000 ft above
2,000 ft horizontal
500 ft below
```
44
Class G vis and cloud clearance below 1,200 agl
1 sm day clear of clouds
3 sm night
1,000 ft above
2,000 ft horizontal
500 ft below
45
Lowest Skywest altitudes-
1,000 non mountainous and 2,000 ft mountainous above the highest obstacle within 4 NM.
46
What are the Altimeter tolerances on the ground?
100 feet of each other and 75 feet of field
47
What are the altimeter requirements for RVSM?
75 feet of each other and 75 feet of field
48
What breaking requirements prohibit landing?
Nil
| Poor with crosswind > 10 kts
49
While operating in controlled airspace under IFR what reports are required to ATC?
- time and altitude crossing each compulsory reporting point ( non radar)
- points requested by ATC
- unforecast weather conditions
- any info related to safety of flight
- any malfunction of nav, approach, or comm. equipment in flight
50
What reports should be made when not in radar contact?
- each compulsory reporting point
- over each point used to define a route when operating direct
- leaving FAf inbound
- a corrected estimate for error in excess of 3 min.
51
Report to ATC anytime....
```
Vacating an assigned Alt. For new alt
Change of alt. When Vfr on top
When unable to maintain 500 fpm
Missed approach
Change in cruise TAS by 5% or 10 kts
Time and alt reaching hold fix or clearance limit
When leaving an assigned holding fix
```
52
What are standard take of mins for 2 engine aircraft?
1 sm or 5000 RVR
53
Take of mins-
1/4 SM or 5000 RVR
```
Need one of these-
HIRL
CL
RCLM
Adequate visual ref.
```
54
Take of mins-
1600 RVR TDZ
Either-
HIRL
CL
RCLM
One operative RVR is required.
TDZ is controlling
Mid may be substituted if TDZ is unavailable.
55
Take off mins -
1200 RVR TDZ
1200 RVR MID
1000 RVR RO
Day
EITHER-
RCLM
HIRL
CL
2 operative RVR required
All are controlling
Any one may be missing one a 3 or 4 RVR system
56
Take of mins-
1200 RVR TDZ
1200 RVR MID
1200 RVR RO
NIGHT
Either-
HIRL
CL
2 operative RVR required
All are controlling
Any one may be missing one a 3 or 4 RVR system
57
Take of Mins-
1000 RVR TDZ
1000 RVR MID
1000 RVR RO
Either-
CL or
HIRL & RCLM
2 RVR required
All are controlling
Any one may be out on a 3 or 4 RVR system
58
Take off mins-
600 RVR TDZ
600 RVR MID
600 RVR RO
BOTH-
HIRL & CL
2 RVR required
All are controlling
Any one may be missing on 3 or 4 RVR system
59
VMC climb information
- Request VMC climb with clearance
- No turn below 400 feet, 1000 ft. Ensures performance requirements of 121
- comply with clearance by flying to first fix. Don't cut the corner.
60
When should you begin to slow when entering a hold?
Within 3 minutes of fix to cross fix at or below hold speed.
61
What are the AIM hold speeds?
\- 14,001 MSL - 265 kias
62
What does the phrase "cleared for approach" mean?
You are cleared for any SIAP but not a visual approach.
If Non radar approach must begin at a FAF.
63
When should a PT not be used?
```
Radar vector to FAF
Timed approach from holding fix
NoPT specified
A properly aligned hold over FAF
A published tear drop
```
64
Which RVR is controlling on a CAT I approach? Are there any substitutes?
TDZ RVR is controlling
| MID RVR may be substituted only if TDZ RVR is not available.
65
Are CAT I approaches to 1800 RVR authorized with inop TDZ lights and/or CL lights?
Yes, provided the flight director is used until DA, missed approach, or runway in sight.
66
What RVR is required to do a CAT II approach assuming there are 3 RVR's?
1200 TDZ
600 MID
300 RO
67
If only the TDZ RVR is available, what RVR is required to do a CAT II approach?
1600 RVR
68
What are the non equipment requirements to conduct a CAT II approach?
-special air crew qualification
-HIRL,CL,TDZ lights
-ALSF 1 or ALSF 2
-use of auto pilot
-if only TDZ available reduced to 1600
-required RVR reports
TDZ RVR is required and controlling
Mid RVR if available is controlling
RO required below 1600 RVR unless subbed by FE or MID
Subs-
Far end or MID may be subbed for RO only if RO is unavailable.
Mid subbed for RO the mid must be 600 RVR. Far end subbed for RO can be 300 RVR.
If AP stops working then missed approach must be initiated unless other AP can be used.
69
What is the CAT II XWIND limitation?
15 kts
70
What is the minimum vis and ceiling to conduct a circling approach?
3 sm
1,000 ft ceiling
or
The published mins whichever is higher
71
What MDA should be used for a circling approach?
1,000 ft or published, whichever is higher.
72
What is required to do a visual approach?
- in class B,C, or D airspace
- within 35 miles of the destination in class E airspace
- the flight is under the control of ATC
- maintain basic cloud clearance
- establish and maintain the airport or traffic to be followed
- visibility no lower than 3 sm
- at or above 1,000 ft ceiling
73
When can you cancel IFR?
- VFR conditions
- can maintain cloud clearances
- if in controlled airspace you must remain or within 10 miles of E Nd in constant contact with ATC
- if in uncontrolled airspace stay within 10 miles of destination and maintain communication with appropriate frequency. (CTAF)
74
When may you descend below MDA OR DH?
- aircraft is continuously in a position to make a normal landing making normal maneuvers and land within the touch down zone.
```
One of the following is distinctly visible-
Threshold markings or lights
Runways, markings, or lights
Touchdown zone, markings, or lights
REIL
VASI OR PAPI
```
Approach light system - if used aircraft may not descend below 100' above TDZ Unless the red side row bars, red terminating bars,or any of the other above mentioned is in sight.
75
How do you calculate a VDP?
HAT/300 for DME
10% of HAT FOR TIME
76
What is the captain only XWIND limitation?
> 20 kias component
77
When circling when should you execute a missed approach and how should it be done?
Any time the airport is not identifiable
| A climbing turn toward the landing runway should be made and then establish aircraft on the published missed.
78
If lost COMM what route should you fly?
- Route in last clearance
- If on a vector direct to fix, route specified
- if no clearance route in expected further clearance
- route filed if no clearance or expected clearance
79
What altitude should be flown if lost COMM?
Altitude in last clearance
Lowest IFR altitude
Altitude in expect further clearance
80
When should you leave a clearance limit if lost COMM?
If clearance limit was an IAF leave IAF at EFC time if given one. Otherwise leave at ETA.
If not a FAF proceed to an IAF hold until EFC time or commence approach at ETA.
ETA is updated in radar so it's when you get there.
If non radar and hold is required for eta hold as depicted or of none use inbound course right turns.
81
What defines a high minimum/baby captain?
Less than 100 hours in type
| Does not include IOE
82
What are the baby captain requirements for departure airport?
Add 1/2 to IAP at departure airport. If weather is below, list a take off alternate.
83
What are the baby captain requirements to dispatch to the destination?
Add 1/2 mile to landing minimum at destination. If below don't depart.
84
What are the baby captain requirements to start an approach?
Add 100' to ceiling and 1/2 mile to vis.
85
What are the baby captain requirements reaching an alternate?
Do not change alternate mins however weather must be at least 300 ft ceiling 1 mile Vis.
86
When SIC has < 100 hours in type, when must the captain make all take off and landings?
```
Special airports
Visibility /- 4000
Contaminated runway
Braking action less than good
XWIND more than 15 kts
Windshear reported near
Any other time determined by PIC
```
87
When is a full physical search of the aircraft required?
FFOD
| All flights to/from Mexico
88
What should be done if a seal is found missing or broken on a secure aircraft?
Verify with customer service that an authorized representative broke the seal and has prevented unauthorized access
Or
Contact the GSC and a full aircraft search must be performed.
