Indications

Question 1

Benzocaine

Answer 1

“Short acting” ester type local anesthetics

topical

Question 2

Procaine (Novocaine)

Answer 2

“Short acting” ester type local anesthetics

infiltration, epidural, spinal

Question 3

Cocaine

Answer 3

“Short acting” ester type local anesthetic for topical use in throat and nose procedures – readily absorbed through mucous membrane

Vasoconstrictive properties that may help to limit systemic absorption

Question 4

Lidocaine

Answer 4

“Longer acting” amide type local anesthetics

infiltration, Bier block, peripheral, epidural, spinal, MC used*

Question 5

Ropivacaine

Answer 5

“Longer acting” amide type local anesthetics

peripheral

Question 6

Epinephrine

Answer 6

Reduce systemic absorption of local anesthetics by vasoconstriction

Question 7

Clonidine

Answer 7

Can be used in conjunction with LAs for epidural and spinal administration to further reduce pain transmission

Question 8

Diazepam (Valium)

Answer 8

Treat convulsions due to systemic absorption of LA into CNS

Question 9

Nitrous Oxide advantages

Answer 9

Can be useful as analgesic used 70-80% NO in O2

Rapid induction/recovery

Little toxicity

Analgesia before anesthesia

Question 10

Isoflurane advantages

Answer 10

CO maintained, systemic vessels dilate causing small ↓ in BP, potent coronary vasodil and arrhythmias are uncommon

Question 11

Sevoflurane advantages

Answer 11

Can be used for outpatient anesthesia because of rapid profile

Question 12

Desflurane advantages

Answer 12

Useful for outpatient surgery due to rapid onset and recovery

Question 13

Propofol advantages

Answer 13

Rapid metabolism and recovery

Little accumulation

“Milk of amnesia” → hypnotic and forgetful rest

Question 14

Etomidate advantages

Answer 14

Antagonist available (if OD this is good to have)

Anterograde amnesia

Cardiovascular stability → used for pts at risk of hypotension

Question 15

Ketamine advantages

Answer 15

Analgesia

No respiratory depression but may ↑ BP

Hypnotic state- dissociative anesthesia (somewhat aware of surroundings not amnesia)

Adverse effects less common in children

Question 16

Benzodiazepines

Answer 16

anxiety

↑ amnesia

Question 17

Diphenhydramine

Answer 17

Prevent allergic rxn + sedation

Question 18

Ondansetron

Answer 18

Prevent aspiration of stomach contents

↓ post surgical nausea and vomiting

Question 19

Opioids

Answer 19

analgesia

Question 20

Scopolamine

Answer 20

Amnesia, prevent bradycardia and fluid secretion (esp in trachea)

Question 21

Atropine

Answer 21

Amnesia, prevent bradycardia and fluid secretion (esp in trachea)

Question 22

Pancuronium

Answer 22

Facilitation of intubation

Question 23

Diazepam (Valium®)

Answer 23

Severe alcohol withdrawal syndrome leading to convulsions

Question 24

Clonidine, Propranolol

Answer 24

Used to treat mild alcohol withdrawal symptoms, including anxiety, insomnia, tremors, muscle aches, sweating, cramping and arrhythmias

Question 25

Disulfiram

Answer 25

Alcohol aversion therapy → prevent relapse in recovering alcoholics

Question 26

Naltrexone

Answer 26

Anti-craving therapy; prevent relapse in recovering alcoholics Dose dependent effect

Question 27

Naloxone

Answer 27

Suspect recovering alcoholic is abusing opioids → perform Narcan challenge test prior to treatment with naltrexone

Question 28

Acamprosate, Topiramate

Answer 28

Anti-craving medications for recovering alcoholics. These drugs are are also used as anti- epileptic meds

Question 29

Fomepizole, Ethanol

Answer 29

Used to treat methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning; given IV in conjunction with hemodialysis to remove poisons and bicarbonate to treat acidosis

Question 30

N- acetylcysteine (NAC)

Answer 30

Used to treat chronic alcoholics suspected of acetaminophen poisoning. Poisoning can lead to irreversible liver damage

Question 31

Ribavirin (HCV)

Answer 31

Wide activity against influenza A and B, parainfluenza, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), paramyxoviruses, HCV, and HIV-1

Question 32

Pegylated (Peg) Interferon

Answer 32

HBV and HCV, anti-tumor activity

Question 33

Simeprevir

Answer 33

One of most effective drugs for HCV Activity against all HCV genotypes (1-6) AND those resistant to Pis (pangenotypic)

Question 34

Ledipasvir

Answer 34

HCV genotype 1 (MC) Harvoni is approved for HCV/HIV co-infection

Question 35

H2 Receptor Antagonists

Answer 35

PUD GERD

Question 36

Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPI)

Answer 36

PUD GERD Multi-therapy for H. Pylori First choice in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Question 37

Antacids

Answer 37

Good choice for occasional heartburn but NOT for LT use (less compliance than H2 blockers or PPI) Dyspepsia, symptomatic relief of PUD/GERD

Question 38

Mucosal Protective Agents

Answer 38

PUD GERD

Question 39

PG Analogs

Answer 39

PUD GERD

Question 40

Metoclopramide

Answer 40

Cytotoxic drug induced emesis (chemotherapy)

Question 41

Metoclopramide

Answer 41

Cytotoxic drug induced emesis (chemotherapy)

Question 42

Lubiprostone

Answer 42

Treatment of idiopathic chronic constipation and IBS

Question 43

Linaclotide

Answer 43

Idiopathic constipation and IBS with predominant constipation

Question 44

Mg(OH)2

Answer 44

IBS-C

Question 45

Loperamide

Answer 45

IBS-D

Question 46

Alosetron

Answer 46

IBS-D | FDA approved ONLY for women with diarrhea predominant IBS

Question 47

Sulfasalazine

Answer 47

Ulcerative colitis 1st line tx most effective in SI

Question 48

Prednisone

Answer 48

IBD NOT for LT therapy

Question 49

Azathioprine

Answer 49

LT theraoy for IBD

Question 50

Infliximab (Remicade)

Answer 50

Crohn’s and ulcerative colitis