Increment 5 Flashcards
What is the AFI for Emergency Management?
AFI 10-2501
What is the purpose of the AF EM program?
Establishes responsibilities, procedures, and standards to physical threats
***What program does the AF EM adhere to
National Incident Management System (NIMS)
Who can be a PHEO?
MD/DO; DVM w/ MPH; MPH w/ 4 yrs experience
Who selects the PHEO? Who appoints the PHEO?
MTF CC; Wing CC
What is the PHEO’s responsibility?
Identify, confirm, and control PH emergencies
What constitutes a PH emergency?
Event poses a high probability of:
- sig number of deaths
- sig number of serious long-term disabilities
- Widespread exposure to inf or tox agent
- healthcare exceeds available resources
Who can declare a national PH emergency?
President, Secretary of HHS, State Governors, Military CCs
Who can declare a PHE on a military installation?
Installation CC
What are stability operations?
Maintain/reestablish a safe and secure environment
What is considered a DoD core mission of stability operations?
Medical stability operations
What are recovery operations?
Operations to search for, locate, identify, recover, and return isolated personnel, human remains, sensitive equipment, or items critical to national security.
Through the ____, the AF establishes a predictable, standardized battle rhythm to meet global CCDR requirements while ensuring rotational forces are properly organized, trained, equipped, and ready to sustain capabilities while rapidly responding to emerging crisis.
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Tempo Band Construct
What is the 5 character code assigned by the Joint Chief of Staff that uniquely identifies personnel and cargo?
Unit Training Code (UTC)
What UTCs can PHOs typically be assigned?
GRL, PAM, TET, Other medical teams, Joint/Coalition Prev Med Teams, Spec Ops Forces Medical Element (SOFME)
What does the AFMS provide to the AF and combatant commanders?
Seamless health service support
Who appoints the MRO?
Unit Medical Commander (MTF CC)
The _____ provides executive oversight for all medical readiness activities, to include the organizing, training, and equipping of all assigned personnel, and to ensure the unit is able to meet its assigned expeditionary and installation response missions.
Medical Readiness Committee
Who provides the medical intelligence function that develops the medical threat estimate and coordinates preventive medicine activities of subject matter experts and medical providers?
Public Health
____ divides medical readiness training into categories that allow for the application of requirements to specific specialties, personnel, and missions across the full spectrum of AF military medical operations.
The Comprehensive Medical Readiness Program (CMRP)
_____ will ensure the accuracy and currency of medical readiness training data by using the ____ database.
Medical Readiness Office; Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS)
How many gallons of water does a person use in a day?
30
Who is responsible for analyzing the soil composition?
BEE
How far should food facilities be from a latrines?
100 yds
How far should food facilities be from garbage and soakage pits?
30 yds
How far should latrines be placed from water sources?
100 yds
How far should latrines be placed from sleeping areas?
50 yds
Locate hospitals away from _____ targets
Tactical
What kind of trap should DFACs and kitchens have installed?
Grease traps
How many toilet seats are needed for men?
4 per 100
How many toilet seats are needed for females?
6 per 100
The MCRP mirrors which installation plan?
IEMP 10-2
T/F: Installation Medical All Hazard Response Planning (IMAHR) is based on local capabilities and mission requirements.
True
Which AFI outlines MCRP teams and definitions?
41-106
The PH MCRP team is supported by which allowance standard?
886P
The PH MCRP team allowance standard includes admin and safety equipment as well as specialized detection and surveillance equipment for investigating ____ and ____.
FBIs and vector borne dz
What is the MCRP?
The Medical Unit CC’s plan to support installation response
What is the purpose of the National Response Framework?
To establish a comprehensive, national, all-hazards approach to domestic incident management.
T/F. The National Incident Management System is the framework for coordinating (standardized vocab, systems, and process) emergency response activities among federal, state, local, tribal, nongovernmental, and private sector organizations.
True
Who is tasked with coordination of emergency response at a federal level?
FEMA
The AF Emergency Management Program must align and comply with both the ___ and the ____.
NIMS and NRF
What system does AFEM use that has the. Same key features and NIMS and proves the AF with the coordinating structures, processes and protocols required to integrate its specific authorities into the collective framework of federal departments and agencies?
AF Incident Management System (AFIMS)
What local publication is an all-hazards plan designed to support pre-incident preparedness, mitigation, emergency response, and recovery?
IEMP 10-2
The PHEO is appointed in writing by the ___.
Installation CC
AD alt PHEO should be a ___.
Senior MC officer or PHO w/ 4 yrs exp or MPH
Who can initiate a PH Emergency declaration?
President, Secretary of Dept of HHS, state governors, Installation CC
PHEs will terminate after ____ days if not renewed.
30
What is the purpose of the SNS?
Contain emergency medication, prophylaxis, and medical supplies in the event of a PHE
Separation of individuals or groups infected and/or suspected to be infected with a CD from those who are healthy, to prevent the spread of the CD is known as ____.
Isolation
What is the purpose of the DCP?
Coordinates unit capabilities and integrates medical and non-medical measures implemented by all personnel before, during, and after public health emergency or incident of public health concern
DCPs should be incorporated with which base plan?
IEMP 10-2
Which Kx sites can you use to assist with DCP management?
PHEM Kx and PH Kx
T/F: Air Force medical entomologists are only concerned with insect-related medical effects.
False
Which AFI governs the medical entomology program?
AFI 48-102
____ is responsible for surveillance and identification of medically important vectors.
PH
Who is responsible for surveillance and ID of non-medical pests?
CE
What entity provides guidance on pesticide procurement, usage, storage, and disposal?
EPA
What entity provides guidance on pesticide procurement, usage, storage, and disposal?
BE
Which AF guidance governs the CE Pest Management Program?
AFMAN 32-1053
What document is signed by the Wing CC, ties together the installation’s plans, programs and tactics, techniques, and procedures to execute an effective pest management program?
IPMP
What is the goal of the IPM?
Use the least hazardous to human health method to control pest and vector populations
How often is the IPMP completely reviewed and formally staffed?
Every 5 yrs
Which control method changes the environment to prevent pests?
Cultural Control
What type of control are screens and snap trap?
Mechanical
Which organization provides aerial application of pesticides for the DoD?
910th Airlift Wing in Youngstown, OH
What is the purpose of risk-based surveillance?
To create a risk estimate that describes how likely it is that a person will be exposed to a disease vector
T/F: Determining appropriate sampling methods involves understanding the vector’s ecology and knowing when and where to trap and also which type of trap to use.
True
T/F: You should set your mosquito traps where you are most likely to catch the most mosquitos.
False
Hard ticks can be ID by the presence of the scutum and the ability to the the ___ from the dorsal aspect
Mouthparts
What can occur in mammals if certain tick species attach to the base of the neck for several days
Tick paralysis
What is the best way to remove a hard tick?
Tweezers at the point of insertion and pull straight up
How would you educate personal protection from ticks?
Tuck pants in socks/boots, permethrin treating clothes, proper uniform wear, DEET on skin, buddy checks
Larval ticks and mites have ____ legs, while adults have ____ legs
6 & 8
How do filth flies transmit disease?
Mechanically
What sand-fly vectored dz can cause red papules and lesions and has historically affected troops stationed in the Middle East?
Leishmaniasis
Which flea-transmitted dz still occurs in the US today and can cause die off in rodent populations?
Plague
T/F: Head lice are not known to be a dz vector
True (body lice only)
This bug transmits Chagas dz and poses a threat to both the Airmen and MWD populations
Kissing Bugs
This cockroach is the main culprit for food facility infestations in the US and Europe
German
What is the best way to control a cockroach infestation?
Sanitation- remove food and water source
Mice are pretty cute but some can transmit ____ virus through urine and feces.
Hanta virus
What is accidental myiasis?
Accidental ingestion of maggots
Male mosquitos can be distinguished from females by their____.
Feathery antennae
What is the morphological characteristic that sets an Anopheles adult mosquito from the other genera?
Antannae, Proboscis, and palps are all the same length
What is the morphological characteristic that sets an Anopheles larval mosquito from the other genera?
Parallel to the water surface, no siphon tube
What does crepuscular mean?
Dusk and dawn feeder
Culex mosquitos are the major vector for which virus?
WNV
Aedes albopictus (Asian tiger mosquito) and white longitudinal line on her thorax and is what two colors?
Black and white
What traps are best for Aedes mosquitos?
BG trap and ovitrap
Aedes spp mosquitos are the primary vector for what diseases?
Yellow Fever, Dengue, Chikungunya, Zika (arboviruses)
What mosquito is responsible for vectoring plasmodium parasites?
Anopheles (malaria)
What are some bio controls for mosquitos?
BTI dunks, sterile males, mosquito fish, dragonfly nymph
Draining ditches and eliminating harborage sites is what type of control measure?
Cultural
Deadliest form of plasmodium (malaria) spp?
P. Falciparum
What drug cannot be given to those with G6PD deficiency?
Primaquine
What 2 traits are thought to be resistant to malaria?
Sickle cell and Thalassemia
____ is a chemical which is ingested to prevent disease?
Chemoprophylaxis
_____ change the immune system, assisting the body’s ability to resist the disease.
Vaccination
What test must be done prior to issuing primaquine?
G6PD
DoD insect repellant system:
- ____ or ____ or ____ on your skin
- ___ on your clothing
- Sleeves rolled down/pants tucked into boots
- DEET, picaridin, IR3535
2. Permethrin
Who is responsible to provide pre-clearance advice, consultation and training to DoD personnel?
USDA
What is aircraft disinsection?
Spraying aircraft with insecticide
What guide outlines disinsection procedures for the AF?
AFPMB TG 4
African Sleeping Sickness transmitted by what vector?
Tsetse fly
River Blindness transmitted by what vector?
Black fly
Leishmaniasis transmitted by what vector?
Sand fly
Plague, murine typhus transmitted by what vector?
Flea
Epidemic typhus and trench fever transmitted by what vector?
Body Louse
What are the top 2 deadliest diseases?
#1= malaria #2= Schistosomiasis
