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Public Health Officer Course > Increment 5 > Flashcards

Increment 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the AFI for Emergency Management?

A

AFI 10-2501

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2
Q

What is the purpose of the AF EM program?

A

Establishes responsibilities, procedures, and standards to physical threats

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3
Q

***What program does the AF EM adhere to

A

National Incident Management System (NIMS)

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4
Q

Who can be a PHEO?

A

MD/DO; DVM w/ MPH; MPH w/ 4 yrs experience

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5
Q

Who selects the PHEO? Who appoints the PHEO?

A

MTF CC; Wing CC

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6
Q

What is the PHEO’s responsibility?

A

Identify, confirm, and control PH emergencies

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7
Q

What constitutes a PH emergency?

A

Event poses a high probability of:

  • sig number of deaths
  • sig number of serious long-term disabilities
  • Widespread exposure to inf or tox agent
  • healthcare exceeds available resources
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8
Q

Who can declare a national PH emergency?

A

President, Secretary of HHS, State Governors, Military CCs

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9
Q

Who can declare a PHE on a military installation?

A

Installation CC

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10
Q

What are stability operations?

A

Maintain/reestablish a safe and secure environment

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11
Q

What is considered a DoD core mission of stability operations?

A

Medical stability operations

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12
Q

What are recovery operations?

A

Operations to search for, locate, identify, recover, and return isolated personnel, human remains, sensitive equipment, or items critical to national security.

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13
Q

Through the ____, the AF establishes a predictable, standardized battle rhythm to meet global CCDR requirements while ensuring rotational forces are properly organized, trained, equipped, and ready to sustain capabilities while rapidly responding to emerging crisis.

A

Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Tempo Band Construct

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14
Q

What is the 5 character code assigned by the Joint Chief of Staff that uniquely identifies personnel and cargo?

A

Unit Training Code (UTC)

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15
Q

What UTCs can PHOs typically be assigned?

A

GRL, PAM, TET, Other medical teams, Joint/Coalition Prev Med Teams, Spec Ops Forces Medical Element (SOFME)

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16
Q

What does the AFMS provide to the AF and combatant commanders?

A

Seamless health service support

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17
Q

Who appoints the MRO?

A

Unit Medical Commander (MTF CC)

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18
Q

The _____ provides executive oversight for all medical readiness activities, to include the organizing, training, and equipping of all assigned personnel, and to ensure the unit is able to meet its assigned expeditionary and installation response missions.

A

Medical Readiness Committee

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19
Q

Who provides the medical intelligence function that develops the medical threat estimate and coordinates preventive medicine activities of subject matter experts and medical providers?

A

Public Health

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20
Q

____ divides medical readiness training into categories that allow for the application of requirements to specific specialties, personnel, and missions across the full spectrum of AF military medical operations.

A

The Comprehensive Medical Readiness Program (CMRP)

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21
Q

_____ will ensure the accuracy and currency of medical readiness training data by using the ____ database.

A

Medical Readiness Office; Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS)

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22
Q

How many gallons of water does a person use in a day?

A

30

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23
Q

Who is responsible for analyzing the soil composition?

A

BEE

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24
Q

How far should food facilities be from a latrines?

A

100 yds

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25
Q

How far should food facilities be from garbage and soakage pits?

A

30 yds

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26
Q

How far should latrines be placed from water sources?

A

100 yds

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27
Q

How far should latrines be placed from sleeping areas?

A

50 yds

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28
Q

Locate hospitals away from _____ targets

A

Tactical

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29
Q

What kind of trap should DFACs and kitchens have installed?

A

Grease traps

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30
Q

How many toilet seats are needed for men?

A

4 per 100

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31
Q

How many toilet seats are needed for females?

A

6 per 100

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32
Q

The MCRP mirrors which installation plan?

A

IEMP 10-2

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33
Q

T/F: Installation Medical All Hazard Response Planning (IMAHR) is based on local capabilities and mission requirements.

A

True

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34
Q

Which AFI outlines MCRP teams and definitions?

A

41-106

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35
Q

The PH MCRP team is supported by which allowance standard?

A

886P

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36
Q

The PH MCRP team allowance standard includes admin and safety equipment as well as specialized detection and surveillance equipment for investigating ____ and ____.

A

FBIs and vector borne dz

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37
Q

What is the MCRP?

A

The Medical Unit CC’s plan to support installation response

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38
Q

What is the purpose of the National Response Framework?

A

To establish a comprehensive, national, all-hazards approach to domestic incident management.

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39
Q

T/F. The National Incident Management System is the framework for coordinating (standardized vocab, systems, and process) emergency response activities among federal, state, local, tribal, nongovernmental, and private sector organizations.

A

True

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40
Q

Who is tasked with coordination of emergency response at a federal level?

A

FEMA

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41
Q

The AF Emergency Management Program must align and comply with both the ___ and the ____.

A

NIMS and NRF

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42
Q

What system does AFEM use that has the. Same key features and NIMS and proves the AF with the coordinating structures, processes and protocols required to integrate its specific authorities into the collective framework of federal departments and agencies?

A

AF Incident Management System (AFIMS)

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43
Q

What local publication is an all-hazards plan designed to support pre-incident preparedness, mitigation, emergency response, and recovery?

A

IEMP 10-2

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44
Q

The PHEO is appointed in writing by the ___.

A

Installation CC

45
Q

AD alt PHEO should be a ___.

A

Senior MC officer or PHO w/ 4 yrs exp or MPH

46
Q

Who can initiate a PH Emergency declaration?

A

President, Secretary of Dept of HHS, state governors, Installation CC

47
Q

PHEs will terminate after ____ days if not renewed.

A

30

48
Q

What is the purpose of the SNS?

A

Contain emergency medication, prophylaxis, and medical supplies in the event of a PHE

49
Q

Separation of individuals or groups infected and/or suspected to be infected with a CD from those who are healthy, to prevent the spread of the CD is known as ____.

A

Isolation

50
Q

What is the purpose of the DCP?

A

Coordinates unit capabilities and integrates medical and non-medical measures implemented by all personnel before, during, and after public health emergency or incident of public health concern

51
Q

DCPs should be incorporated with which base plan?

A

IEMP 10-2

52
Q

Which Kx sites can you use to assist with DCP management?

A

PHEM Kx and PH Kx

53
Q

T/F: Air Force medical entomologists are only concerned with insect-related medical effects.

A

False

54
Q

Which AFI governs the medical entomology program?

A

AFI 48-102

55
Q

____ is responsible for surveillance and identification of medically important vectors.

A

PH

56
Q

Who is responsible for surveillance and ID of non-medical pests?

A

CE

57
Q

What entity provides guidance on pesticide procurement, usage, storage, and disposal?

A

EPA

58
Q

What entity provides guidance on pesticide procurement, usage, storage, and disposal?

A

BE

59
Q

Which AF guidance governs the CE Pest Management Program?

A

AFMAN 32-1053

60
Q

What document is signed by the Wing CC, ties together the installation’s plans, programs and tactics, techniques, and procedures to execute an effective pest management program?

A

IPMP

61
Q

What is the goal of the IPM?

A

Use the least hazardous to human health method to control pest and vector populations

62
Q

How often is the IPMP completely reviewed and formally staffed?

A

Every 5 yrs

63
Q

Which control method changes the environment to prevent pests?

A

Cultural Control

64
Q

What type of control are screens and snap trap?

A

Mechanical

65
Q

Which organization provides aerial application of pesticides for the DoD?

A

910th Airlift Wing in Youngstown, OH

66
Q

What is the purpose of risk-based surveillance?

A

To create a risk estimate that describes how likely it is that a person will be exposed to a disease vector

67
Q

T/F: Determining appropriate sampling methods involves understanding the vector’s ecology and knowing when and where to trap and also which type of trap to use.

A

True

68
Q

T/F: You should set your mosquito traps where you are most likely to catch the most mosquitos.

A

False

69
Q

Hard ticks can be ID by the presence of the scutum and the ability to the the ___ from the dorsal aspect

A

Mouthparts

70
Q

What can occur in mammals if certain tick species attach to the base of the neck for several days

A

Tick paralysis

71
Q

What is the best way to remove a hard tick?

A

Tweezers at the point of insertion and pull straight up

72
Q

How would you educate personal protection from ticks?

A

Tuck pants in socks/boots, permethrin treating clothes, proper uniform wear, DEET on skin, buddy checks

73
Q

Larval ticks and mites have ____ legs, while adults have ____ legs

A

6 & 8

74
Q

How do filth flies transmit disease?

A

Mechanically

75
Q

What sand-fly vectored dz can cause red papules and lesions and has historically affected troops stationed in the Middle East?

A

Leishmaniasis

76
Q

Which flea-transmitted dz still occurs in the US today and can cause die off in rodent populations?

A

Plague

77
Q

T/F: Head lice are not known to be a dz vector

A

True (body lice only)

78
Q

This bug transmits Chagas dz and poses a threat to both the Airmen and MWD populations

A

Kissing Bugs

79
Q

This cockroach is the main culprit for food facility infestations in the US and Europe

A

German

80
Q

What is the best way to control a cockroach infestation?

A

Sanitation- remove food and water source

81
Q

Mice are pretty cute but some can transmit ____ virus through urine and feces.

A

Hanta virus

82
Q

What is accidental myiasis?

A

Accidental ingestion of maggots

83
Q

Male mosquitos can be distinguished from females by their____.

A

Feathery antennae

84
Q

What is the morphological characteristic that sets an Anopheles adult mosquito from the other genera?

A

Antannae, Proboscis, and palps are all the same length

85
Q

What is the morphological characteristic that sets an Anopheles larval mosquito from the other genera?

A

Parallel to the water surface, no siphon tube

86
Q

What does crepuscular mean?

A

Dusk and dawn feeder

87
Q

Culex mosquitos are the major vector for which virus?

A

WNV

88
Q

Aedes albopictus (Asian tiger mosquito) and white longitudinal line on her thorax and is what two colors?

A

Black and white

89
Q

What traps are best for Aedes mosquitos?

A

BG trap and ovitrap

90
Q

Aedes spp mosquitos are the primary vector for what diseases?

A

Yellow Fever, Dengue, Chikungunya, Zika (arboviruses)

91
Q

What mosquito is responsible for vectoring plasmodium parasites?

A

Anopheles (malaria)

92
Q

What are some bio controls for mosquitos?

A

BTI dunks, sterile males, mosquito fish, dragonfly nymph

93
Q

Draining ditches and eliminating harborage sites is what type of control measure?

A

Cultural

94
Q

Deadliest form of plasmodium (malaria) spp?

A

P. Falciparum

95
Q

What drug cannot be given to those with G6PD deficiency?

A

Primaquine

96
Q

What 2 traits are thought to be resistant to malaria?

A

Sickle cell and Thalassemia

97
Q

____ is a chemical which is ingested to prevent disease?

A

Chemoprophylaxis

98
Q

_____ change the immune system, assisting the body’s ability to resist the disease.

A

Vaccination

99
Q

What test must be done prior to issuing primaquine?

A

G6PD

100
Q

DoD insect repellant system:

  1. ____ or ____ or ____ on your skin
  2. ___ on your clothing
  3. Sleeves rolled down/pants tucked into boots
A
  1. DEET, picaridin, IR3535

2. Permethrin

101
Q

Who is responsible to provide pre-clearance advice, consultation and training to DoD personnel?

A

USDA

102
Q

What is aircraft disinsection?

A

Spraying aircraft with insecticide

103
Q

What guide outlines disinsection procedures for the AF?

A

AFPMB TG 4

104
Q

African Sleeping Sickness transmitted by what vector?

A

Tsetse fly

105
Q

River Blindness transmitted by what vector?

A

Black fly

106
Q

Leishmaniasis transmitted by what vector?

A

Sand fly

107
Q

Plague, murine typhus transmitted by what vector?

A

Flea

108
Q

Epidemic typhus and trench fever transmitted by what vector?

A

Body Louse

109
Q

What are the top 2 deadliest diseases?

A 
#1= malaria
#2= Schistosomiasis

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