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Public Health Officer Course > Increment 4 > Flashcards

Increment 4 Flashcards

1
Q

2 types of food spoilage

A
  1. Chemical

2. Microbiological

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2
Q

Which type of spoilage is the 2nd largest cause of spoilage?

A

Chemical

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3
Q

Are all spoilage microbes pathogens?

A

NO!

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4
Q

What are the factors that affect growth of harmful pathogens?

A

FATTOM

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5
Q

What does “FATTOM” stand for?

A

Food, Acid, Temp, Time, Oxygen, Moisture

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6
Q

At what pH do pathogens not grow?

A

<4.6

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7
Q

What is one of the most important environmental conditions influencing microbial growth?

A

Temperature

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8
Q

What is the temperature danger zone?

A

41-135 F

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9
Q

____ organisms grow in the presence of oxygen.

A

Aerobic

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10
Q

____ organisms grow in the absence of oxygen.

A

Anaerobic

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11
Q

____ organisms grow in either the presence or absence of oxygen.

A

Facultative aerobes

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12
Q

Foodborne pathogens do not grow or produce toxins in foods with an Aw ______ even if held in the temperature danger zone.

A

= 0.85

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13
Q

Examples of TCS foods are:

A

raw or cooked animals products; processed FFV

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14
Q

Other than controlling FATTOM, what are 2 ways to prevent pathogens in food?

A

Foodhandler hygiene and health

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15
Q

Goal of food preservation?

A

Increase shelf-life and gives food flavor/color we expect

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16
Q

What type of pathogen is not killed with freezing?

A

Viruses

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17
Q

At what temp will start to kill pathogenic bacteria? What temp will most organisms die?

A

140 & >179 F

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18
Q

What is the time required to decrease a specific bacterium population by 90% at a given temp?

A

Thermal death time

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19
Q

What type of food preservation does not result in a commercially sterile product?

A

Pasteurization

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20
Q

What type of food preservation does result in a commercially sterile product?

A

Canning

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21
Q

What food preservation method is also called “cold pasteurization”?

A

irradiation

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22
Q

What dose of irradiation is approved for FFV?

A

low dose (<1 kGy)

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23
Q

What dose of irradiation is approved for poultry and red meat?

A

medium dose (1-10 kGy)

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24
Q

What dose of irradiation is approved for spices and astronaut food?

A

high dose (> 10 kGy)

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25
Q

T or F: Irradiation makes food radioactive

A

False

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26
Q

Method of packaging to reduce the amount of O2

A

Reduced Oxygen Packaging (ROP)

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27
Q

What are the 2 forms of ROP?

A

Vacuum packaging and Modified Atmosphere Packaging (MAP)

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28
Q

What replaces O2 in MAP?

A

Nitrogen or CO2

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29
Q

Food preservation method to reduce the water activity of foods

A

Dehydrating or Drying

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30
Q

What food preservation consists of a chemical change that lowers the pH to < 4.6?

A

Fermentation

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31
Q

What food preservation method is defined as any substance added to food to result in its becoming a component or otherwise affecting the characteristics of any food?

A

Food additives

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32
Q

2 types of food additives

A
  1. Organic Acids

2. Curing

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33
Q

What is the only approved bacteriocin?

A

Nisin

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34
Q

What is Nisin effective against?

A

Gram +

35
Q

What is PH’s role with approved sources?

A

Verify approved sources and locally approve sources (as requested)

36
Q

What are types of foods requiring an approved source?

A
  • Cut/processed FFV
  • Meat, fish, poultry, shellfish
  • Dairy and eggs
  • Ice/Water
  • Certain bakery items
37
Q

What are types of foods exempt from an approved source?

A
  • Intact FFV
  • Confectionary, nuts, sugars
  • Jams, jellies, preserves
  • Soups
  • Alcoholic beverages
38
Q

What is the only code considered to be approved for shellfish?

A

Shucker-Packer (SP)

39
Q

What kind of eggs require USDA approval?

A

shelled eggs

40
Q

What must be on meat or poultry products that have been inspected and approved for DoD?

A

USDA wholesome stamp

41
Q

What are the 2 federal grades for beef?

A
  1. Quality

2. Yield

42
Q

What does the quality grade of beef describe?

A

estimates of tenderness, juiciness, and flavor

43
Q

What does the yield grade of beef describe?

A

estimates ratio of lean meat to fat and bone

44
Q

What is the highest yield grade?

A

1 is the highest (5 is the lowest)

45
Q

If there is a locally approved source, who is allowed to use that source?

A

Only the approving installation

46
Q

What are the 3 finding categories for sanitation audits?

A

Critical, Major, and Observation

47
Q

What are the types of local audits?

A
  1. Initial
  2. Special
  3. Directed Routine
  4. Corrective Action Requests
48
Q

What is food defense?

A

protection of food products from intentional contamination with harmful agents or materials that are not reasonably likely to occur or appear in food

49
Q

What is the most targeted and possibly the most lethal contamination of food products?

A

Intentional Adulteration

50
Q

T or F: Chemical agents are not likely to be destroyed if part of an intentional adulteration.

A

True

51
Q

What are the 5 steps to Operational Risk Management?

A
  1. ID Hazards
  2. Assess Hazards
  3. Develop Controls & Make Decisions
  4. Implement Controls
  5. Supervise & Evaluate
52
Q

What is the purpose of Operational Risk Management?

A

Deter, Delay, Detect, and Respond

53
Q

How are FVAs submitted to USAFSAM?

A

Through SIPR

54
Q

How often do HHQ FVAs occur?

A

3 yrs (AD); 6 yrs (ANG)

55
Q

What is the date used to trigger further inspection of semi-perishable food items?

A

Inspection Test Date (ITD)

56
Q

T or F: the Inspection Test Date is used as an expiration date.

A

False. It is NOT used as an expiration date.

57
Q

What is the terminology that estimates how long a product can be held in certain storage conditions?

A

Approximate Storage Life (ASL)

58
Q

What is the term used for perishable food that is calculated by adding the ASL to the date of pack?

A

Approximate Keeping Time (AKT)

59
Q

How often do perishable foods get inspected?

A

Every 90 days

60
Q

How often do semi-perishable foods get inspected?

A

Every 180 days.

61
Q

How long can AKTs (perishable foods) be extended?

A

Up to 180 days.

62
Q

How long can ITDs be extended?

A

Up to 180 days; unless semi-perishable then only 30 days

63
Q

What is one reason PH would have to do a special surveillance inspection with DeCA?

A

Customer Complaint

64
Q

What is the DoD’s hazardous food and non-Rx drug recall system?

A

ALFOODACT

65
Q

How long does PH have to report an ALFOODACT in VSIMS?

A

72 hrs

66
Q

What is the form used by customers to report a complaint with the commissary?

A

DeCA Form 40-45

67
Q

What are the 3 categories of reservoirs?

A

Human, animal, environmental

68
Q

What is the only potential FBI agent that has a vaccine?

A

Typhoid

69
Q

Which type of bacteria can survive tough conditions and survive cooking?

A

Spore-forming

70
Q

What non-spore forming bacteria is NOT destroyed by normal cooking?

A

S. Aureus

71
Q

What are 3 examples of easily transmitted viruses on food?

A

Hep A & E, Noro

72
Q

What protozoa is commonly associated with undercooked meats contaminated by cat feces?

A

Toxoplasma

73
Q

What protozoa is associated with contaminated water and produce?

A

Cryptosporidium

74
Q

What protozoa is associated with imported berries?

A

Cyclospora

75
Q

What is it called when finfish ingest and concentrate the Red Tide toxin?

A

Ciguatera Poisoning

76
Q

What is it called when shellfish ingest and concentrate the Red Tide toxin?

A

Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning

77
Q

What is it called when worm larvae are present in marine fish?

A

Anisakis Simplex

78
Q

What disease usually happen with temperature abuse of finfish and causes a systemic allergic reaction?

A

Scrombroid poisoning

79
Q

Who is responsible for receipt inspections?

A

food facility manager

80
Q

What kind of inspection is done on food already owned by the govt?

A

Surveillance

81
Q

What life stages of beetles are we concerned about with food safety?

A

Larvae and adults

82
Q

What life stages of moths are we concerned about with food safety?

A

Larvae only

83
Q

What are the 3 medical effects of bug infestations in food?

A

Irritation, Allergens, Quinones

Public Health Officer Course (4 decks)

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