In-Class Quizzes 1-5 (A&P Final Exam) Flashcards by Mike Krieg

When two atoms bond they form a _________ which is integral to the structural organization in the body to make an organism.

a. tissue
b. molecule
c. organ system
d. cell

b. molecule

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The meninges are membranes that line the cranial cavity. This cavity is located within the _____________.

a. thoracic cavity
b. ventral body cavity
c. dorsal cavity
d. abdominal cavity

c. dorsal cavity

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The gallbladder is located inferior to the liver. Which of the following statements is true about this organ?

a. the gallbladder is located within the left hypochondriac region
b. the gallbladder is proximal to the spleen
c. the gallbladder is located within the hypogastric region
d. the gallbladder is located within the right hypochondriac region

d. the gallbladder is located within the right hypochondriac region

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In order for homeostasis to be maintained within the body, what is the specific pH for blood?

a. less than 7.25 - 7.30
b. between 7.35 - 7.45
c. greater than 6.8 - 7.20
d. between 7.45 - 7.65

b. between 7.35 - 7.45

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An amputation along the sagittal plane of the left acromial region means ____________.

a. the deltoid, brachial, antecubital, carpal and manus of the left arm do not remain.
b. only the umbilical, left femoral and right inguinal region remain
c. only the crural, sural, and tarsal regions have been amputated
d. only the antebrachial region of the left arm has been amputated

a. the deltoid, brachial, antecubital, carpal and manus of the left arm do not remain.

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Which of the following planes slices the body into upper and lower halves?

a. frontal
b. transverse
c. sagittal
d. coronal

b. transverse

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The plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior is the ____________.

a. frontal
b. sagittal
c. transverse
d. mid-sagittal

a. frontal

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___________ are the structures within a cell that are responsible for synthesizing proteins, conducting aerobic metabolism and packaging lipids into vesicles.

a. chromosomes
b. enzymes
c. receptors
d. organelles

d. organelles

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The spleen is located within the __________

a. epigastric region
b. umbilical region
c. LUQ
d. LLQ

c. LUQ

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A patient who is unconscious and facedown on the ground is in a _________ position.

a. supinated
b. lateral
c. prone
d. semi-fowlers

c. prone

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The sternal region is ________ to the pectoral region and _______ to the umbilical region.

a. medial, dorsal
b. distal, lateral
c. medial, superior
d. lateral, inferior

c. medial, superior

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The appendix is located within the ____________.

a. LLQ
b. LUQ
c. RUQ
d. RLQ

d. RLQ

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Which of the following is not a subdivision of the ventral body cavity?

a. pelvic
b. spinal
c. abdominal
d. thoracic

b. spinal

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At the tissue level aerobic metabolism produces the reactants CO2 + H2O combine to make H2CO3 (carbonic acid). This reaction is an example of a(n) ____________.

a. overreaction
b. catabolic reaction
c. decomposition reaction
d. exchange reaction

d. exchange reaction

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Hypertrophied liver can be palpated on the _______.

a. RUQ
b. RLQ
c. LUQ
d. LLQ

a. RUQ

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_________ are negatively charged particles surrounding the nucleus of an atom.

a. protons
b. neutrons
c. electrons
d. valence shells

c. electrons

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An ionic bond is formed _____________.

a. between a cation and an anion
b. between hydrogen bonds and polar molecules
c. between compatible anions
d. between electrons of covalent bonds.

a. between a cation and an anion

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Atoms that have nuclei containing the same number of protons as the orbiting electrons are __________.

a. anions
b. ions
c. cations
d. neutral

d. neutral

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DNA is found on chromosomes within the ___________ of a cell.

a. cell membrane
b. nucleus
c. ribosome
d. cytoplasm

b. nucleus

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What type of bonds allow electrons between two elements to be shared equally?

a. covalent bonds
b. ionic bonds
c. polar bonds
d. hydrogen bonds

a. covalent bonds

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When hydrostatic pressure pushes solute-containing fluid from a high-pressure area to a low-pressure area it is called ______________.

a. inverted diffusion
b. active transport
c. filtration
d. osmosis

c. filtration

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As the lung level in order to get rid of the CO2 waste in the blood, H2CO3 (carbonic acid) returns to its individual reactants of CO2 + H2O this is an example of a chemical reaction that _______________.

a. induces gastric acidosis
b. triggers positive feedback
c. reduces rectal alkalosis
d. maintains homeostasis

d. maintains homeostasis

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Which of the following statements is true?

a. covalent bonds can form between anions with positive charges
b. single, double or triple ionic bonds can form between atoms to form molecules
c. ions are atoms that never gain or lose electrons
d. atoms can gain, lose or share electrons

d. atoms can gain, lose or share electrons

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Gases move from high concentration to low concentration by the process of ___________.

a. active transport
b. protein transport
c. diffusion
d. osmosis

c. diffusion

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Positively charged particles in an atom's nucleus are __________. a. neutrons b. protons c. cations d. electrons

b. protons

Neutral particles in an atom's nucleus are _____________. a. electrons b. neutrons c. protons d. cations

b. neutrons

Facilitated diffusion does not require _______. a. ATP b. acidosis c. ventilation d. alkalosis

a. ATP

Which of the following organelles uses aerobic metabolism to produce the most ATP in a cell? a. cytoplasm b. endoplasmic reticulum c. ribosomes d. mitochondria

d. mitochondria

Extracellular substances are engulfed by a cell through the process of _____________. a. endocytosis b. mitosis c. exocytosis d. osmosis

a. endocytosis

The process by which water moves down its concentration gradient is called _______. a. active transport b. meiosis c. mitosis d. osmosis

d. osmosis

A net of 2 ATP are generated by what type of cellular metabolic process? a. metabolic alkalosis b. anaerobic metabolism c. aerobic metabolism d. respiratory acidosis

b. anaerobic metabolism

The heart is located specifically within the _________ of the thoracic cavity. a. mediastinum b. epigastric c. pectoral d. hypochondriac

a. mediastinum

Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) occurs when the body uses fatty acids for gluconeogenesis. This can cause __________________. a. respiratory acidosis b. metabolic alkalosis c. respiratory alkalosis d. metabolic acidosis

a. metabolic acidosis

___________ reduce the activation energy needed for a chemical reaction. a. enzymes b. ribosomes c. mitochondria d. fatty acids

a. enzymes

What specifically does pH measure? a. sodium levels b. hydrogen ion concentration c. alcohol concentration d. oxygen free radicals

b. hydrogen ion concentration

How is respiratory acidosis determined? a. PaCO2 < 35 mmHg and pH < 7.35 b. PaCO2 > 45 mmHg and pH < 7.35 c. PaCO2 < 35 mmHg and pH < 7.45 d. PaCO2 > 45 mmHg and pH > 7.45

b. PaCO2 > 45 mmHg and pH < 7.35

How is respiratory alkalosis determined? a. PaCO2 < 35 mmHg and pH < 7.35 b. PaCO2 > 45 mmHg and pH > 7.45 c. PaCO2 < 35 mmHg and pH > 7.45 d. PaCO2 > 45 mmHg and pH < 7.35

c. PaCO2 < 35 mmHg and pH > 7.45

The primary tissue type that covers and lines body cavities is called ___________. a. epithelial b. muscle c. connective d. meningeal

a. epithelial

Any pH imbalance not caused by abnormal blood PaCO2 levels and results in a pH < 7.35 is called _____________. a. respiratory alkalosis b. metabolic acidosis c. respiratory acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis

b. metabolic acidosis

Any pH imbalance not caused by abnormal blood PaCO2 levels and results in a pH > 7.45 is called _______________. a. metabolic acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis c. respiratory acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis

d. metabolic alkalosis

Hypertonic solutions can cause fluid within a cell to ______________. a. ignore the fluid outside the cell b. absorb more fluid from outside the cell and cause the cell to swell c. draw more fluid from within the nucleus of the cell into the cytoplasm d. leave the cell and cause the cell to shrink

d. leave the cell and cause the cell to shrink

Hypotonic solutions can cause a cell to _______________. a. absorb fluid from outside the cell and cause the cell to swell b. lose fluid and cause the cell to shrink c. dilute the cholesterol rings within its lipid bilayer d. maintain fluid equilibrium between the fluid inside the cell and the fluid outside the cell

a. absorb fluid from outside the cell and cause the cell to swell

Compounds that dissociate and release H+ into water _____________. a. are acids b. are alkaline c. are the cause of respiratory alkalosis d. cause blood pH to be greater than 7.45

a. are acids

The popliteal region is dorsal to the ___________. a. gluteal region b. scapular region c. tarsal region d. patellar region

d. patellar region

The tissue that composes the brain and the spinal cord is ___________. a. connective tissue b. nervous tissue c. epithelial tissue d. muscle tissue

b. nervous tissue

Cardiac muscle is __________________. a. involuntary, striated and has intercalated discs b. voluntary, striated and multinucleated c. involuntary, not striated and single nucleated d. voluntary, not striated and multinucleated

a. involuntary, striated and has intercalated discs

The epiglottis is composed of elastic cartilage that contains ___________. a. osteocytes b. chondrocytes c. erythrocytes d. simple squamous epithelial tissue

b. chondrocytes

The sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system innervates systemic arteries to regulate blood flow and pressure to vital organs. Smooth muscle is _______________. a. an involuntary connective tissue b. a voluntary muscle tissue c. an involuntary epithelial tissue d. an involuntary muscle tissue

d. an involuntary muscle tissue

The diaphragm separates the ______________. a. pelvic cavity from the thoracic cavity b. ventral cavity from the dorsal cavity c. thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity d. abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity

c. thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity

The correct position of the hands when standing in the anatomical position is ___________. a. supinated with the arms hanging at the sides of the trunk b. lateral and pronated on the left lumbar region c. medial and superior to the scapular region d. pronated and posterior to the gluteal region

a. supinated with the arms hanging at the sides of the trunk

The CNS is composed of the brain and the spinal cord. Which of the following statements is true? a. beta receptors in the heart and bronchioles are specific cholinergic receptors. b. all sensory neurons exit the spinal cord through the ventral root. c. sympathetic postganglionic cholinergic fibers that innervate sweat glands secrete acetylcholine. d. sympathetic preganglionic neurons originate from the midbrain of the brainstem.

c. sympathetic postganglionic cholinergic fibers that innervate sweat glands secrete acetylcholine.

Local depolarization of a target cell/organ involves ______________. a. making less neurotransmitter available for receptors. b. an inhibitory neurotransmitter binds to the receptors on the chemical gates that allow chloride (Cl-) to exit repolarizing the cell. c. blocking the receptors on chemical gates so they remain closed. d. a stimulatory neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the chemical gates that allow sodium (Na+) to enter depolarizing the cell

d. a stimulatory neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the chemical gates that allow sodium (Na+) to enter depolarizing the cell

Which of the following substances facilitate clearing neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft once the nerve signal has ended? a. acids b. bases c. filtered water d. enzymes specific to the neurotransmitter

d. enzymes specific to the neurotransmitter

Which of the following ions is responsible for repolarization of a neuron's membrane? a. bicarbonate (HCO3) b. Calcium (Ca2+) c. potassium (K+) d. sodium (Na+)

c. potassium (K+)

CSF is made within the brain ventricles by the ____________. a. microglia b. astrocytes c. ependymal cells d. oligodendrocytes

c. ependymal cells

The resting membrane potential of cells is _______________. a. maintained by the hydro:bicarbonate pumps b. maintained by the sodium:potassium pumps c. more susceptible to hyperpolarization by H+ d. significantly disrupted by normal CSF secretion

b. maintained by the sodium:potassium pumps

How do norepinephrine and epinephrine affect heart rate? a. these catecholamines have a neutral effect not affecting heart rate b. these corticosteroids have a stimulatory effect decreasing heart rate c. these corticosteroids have an inhibitory effect decreasing heart rate d. these catecholamines have a stimulatory effect increasing heart rate

d. these catecholamines have a stimulatory effect increasing heart rate

NorEPI is a neurotransmitter that _______________________. a. is secreted by preganglionic adrenergic fibers of the sympathetic branch that target nicotinic receptors and increase heart rate. b. is secreted by postganglionic cholinergic fibers of the parasympathetic branch that target cholinergic receptors in the heart, lungs and blood vessels. c. is secreted by postganglionic adrenergic fibers of the sympathetic branch that target adrenergic receptors in the heart, lungs and blood vessels. d. is secreted by preganglionic cholinergic fibers of the parasympathetic and sympathetic branches that target nicotinic receptors on the postganglionic neuron of the parasympathetic and sympathetic branches.

c. is secreted by postganglionic adrenergic fibers of the sympathetic branch that target adrenergic receptors in the heart, lungs and blood vessels.

Skeletal muscle movement is controlled by the _______________ of the peripheral nervous system. a. autonomic motor branch b. autonomic sensory branch c. somatic motor branch d. somatic sensory branch

c. somatic motor branch

Acetylcholine is secreted by _______________ of the parasympathetic system to stimulate target organs in the digestive system. a. somatic motor fibers b. preganglionic adrenergic fibers c. postganglionic adrenergic fibers d. postganglionic cholinergic fibers

d. postganglionic cholinergic fibers

Muscarinic receptors are found on _____________________. a. postganglionic neurons that must be inhibited. b. target cells/organs that can be stimulated or inhibited by H+ c. target cells/organs that can be stimulated or inhibited by ACh d. preganglionic adrenergic fibers that secrete acids.

c. target cells/organs that can be stimulated or inhibited by ACh

When is an action potential generated along an axon? a. following repolarization when the threshold of depolarization has not been reached b. following depolarization, when voltage gates for potassium open and potassium exits quickly making the outside of the membranemore positive and the inside more negative c. following repolarization, when a neurotransmitter blocks the opening of voltage gates for sodium and prevents sodium from entering d. following depolarization, when voltage gates specific for sodium open and sodium rushes in changing the inside of the membrane to positive, thereby making the outside of the membrane negative

d. following depolarization, when voltage gates specific for sodium open and sodium rushes in changing the inside of the membrane to positive, thereby making the outside of the membrane negative

The brain lobe responsible for judgement and impulse control is the __________. a. temporal lobe b. frontal lobe c. parietal lobe d. occipital lobe

b. frontal lobe

The frontal and parietal lobes are separated by the ___________. a. tempomandibular sulcus b. parietoccipital sulcus c. central sulcus d. optic chiasm

c. central sulcus

Which of the following statements is correct? a. the parietal lobe processes sensory information, and the occipital lobe is in charge of hearing and memory b. the frontal lobe processes visual information, and the occipital lobe is in charge of balance and hearing c. the temporal lobe processes visual information, and the occipital lobe is in charge of hearing and memory d. the temporal lobe is in charge of hearing and memory, and the occipital lobe processes visual information

d. the temporal lobe is in charge of hearing and memory, and the occipital lobe processes visual information

The hypothalamus is the major homeostatic and ____________ of the brain. a. hormonal center b. least critical center c. brain stem d. amygdala center

a. hormonal center

The ____________ originates from the medulla oblongata, and is responsible for maintaining resting homeostatic functions of the body. a. broca area b. pituitary gland c. hypoglossal nerve d. vagus nerve

d. vagus nerve

Which of the following cranial nerves have specific roles in the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system? a. IV (trochlear), Il (optic), VIl (facial), and X (vagus) b. VI (abducens), VII (facial), and IX (glossopharyngeal), XI (accessory) c. III (oculomotor), VIl (facial), IX (glossopharyngeal), and X (vagus) d. V (trigeminal), VI (abducens), VIll (vestibulocochlear), and X (vagus)

c. III (oculomotor), VIl (facial), IX (glossopharyngeal), and X (vagus)

The vasomotor, cardiac, and respiratory centers are located primarily within the _____________. a. cerebellum b. basal ganglia c. premotor cortex d. medulla oblongata

d. medulla oblongata

The dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater are collectively the ___________. a. meninges membranes that line and protect the nervous tissue in the cranial and spinal cavities b. serous membranes that line and protect the lungs and heart in the thoracic cavity c. mucus membranes that protect the sinuses in the nasal cavity d. mesentery membranes that line and protect the digestive tissue in the abdominal and pelvic cavities

a. meninges membranes that line and protect the nervous tissue in the cranial and spinal cavities

Which of the following statements is true? a. sensory nerves enter the spinal cord via the ventral root and motor nerves exit through the dorsal root b. sensory nerves enter the spinal cord via the dorsal root and motor nerves exit through the ventral root c. both sensory and motor nerves enter and exit the spinal cord via the ventral root d. both sensory and motor nerves enter and exit the spinal cord via the dorsal root

b. sensory nerves enter the spinal cord via the dorsal root and motor nerves exit through the ventral root

All of the following statements are true, EXCEPT: a. the cochlea of the inner ear contains the neural receptors for hearing b. the malleus, incus, and stapes are auditory cranial nerves that synapse in the temporal lobe c. rod photoreceptors are located in the retina and allow us to see grey tones d. cone photoreceptors are located in the retina and allow us to see color

b. the malleus, incus, and stapes are auditory cranial nerves that synapse in the temporal lobe

The phrenic nerve __________________. a. branches from L1 of the lumbar plexus and innervates the intercostal muscles b. branches from C3 of the cervical plexus and innervates the diaphragm c. branches from C8 of the brachial plexus and innervates the diaphragm d. branches from T4 of the thoracic plexus and innervates the diaphragm

b. branches from C3 of the cervical plexus and innervates the diaphragm

A patient can shrug his shoulders and slightly elevate his arms laterally, but is unable to flex his elbows. He likely has suffered a spinal cord injury along __________. a. C1-C2 b. C5-T1 c. S1-S4 d. T12-L5

b. C5-T1

The knee jerk reflex is mediated by which of the following sequences? a. receptors > sensory neuron > interneuron > motor neuron > skeletal muscle action b. skeletal muscle action > receptors > interneuron > sensory neuron > motor neuron c. interneuron > receptors > sensory neuron > skeletal muscle action > motor neuron d. sensory neuron > receptors > motor neuron > interneuron > skeletal muscle action

a. receptors > sensory neuron > interneuron > motor neuron > skeletal muscle action

Cranial nerve that innervates muscles of the neck that allow the head to pivot left and right, and muscles that allow elevation/shrugging of the shoulders. a. IV - Trochlear b. Ill - Oculomotor c. XII - Hypoglossal d. Xl - Accessory

d. Xl - Accessory

Cranial nerve found in the medulla oblongata that innervates the tongue for movement. a. X - Vagus b. XIl - Hypoglossal c. VIl - Facial d. XI - Accessory

b. XIl - Hypoglossal

Cranial nerve that helps you identify the wafting smell of freshly baked chocolate chip cookies at midnight. (A booter specialty) a. IX - Glossopharyngeal b. X - Vagus c. XII - Hypoglossal d. I - Olfactory

d. I - Olfactory

Cranial nerve that innervates the muscle of the eye that causes it to move inferiorly/down and laterally/at an angle. (See the creepy bug that just crawled by your foot). a. V - Trigeminal b. IV - Trochlear c. VIll - Vestibulocochlear d. VIl - Facial

b. IV - Trochlear

Cranial nerve that allows you to see the beautiful sunrise for those 06:00 calls. a. IV - Trochlear b. V - Trigeminal c. VI - Abducens d. Il - Optic

d. II - Optic

Cranial nerve with parasympathetic properties that constricts the pupil. a. Ill - Oculomotor b. VIll - Vestibulocochlear c. V - Trigeminal O d. Il - Optic

a. Ill - Oculomotor

Cranial nerve with 5 branches that innervate muscles in the face, salivary, and lacrimal glands. a. X - Vagus b. IX - Glossopharyngeal c. VIl - Facial d. VI - Abducens

c. VIl - Facial

Cranial nerve with three branches that conducts sensory signals from the face, and innervates muscles for movement of the jaw. a. I - Olfactory b. Vl - Abducens c. V - Trigeminal d. Vill - Vestibulocochlear

c. V - Trigeminal

Cranial nerve that carries sensory signals from the carotid arteries, and also innervates the throat to promote swallowing. a. Xl - accessory b. IX - Glossopharyngeal c. V - Trigeminal d. VIl - Facial

b. IX - Glossopharyngeal

Cranial nerve that maintains equilibrium and allows you to hear, when your number's called at the taco stand! a. Vill - Vestibulocochlear b. X - Vagus c. VIl - Facial d. Il - Optic

a. Vill - Vestibulocochlear

Cranial nerve that abducts/moves the eye laterally. a. XI - Accessory b. VI - Abducens c. IX - Glossopharyngeal d. Il - Optic

b. VI - Abducens

Cranial nerve responsible for most of the parasympathetic functions in the body such as digestion, urination, and resting cardiorespiratory functions. a. X - Vagus b. Vill - Vestibulocochlear c. Ill - Oculomotor d. IX - Glossopharyngeal

a. X - Vagus

The ____________ are cells that protect and form the blood-brain barrier. a. microglia b. astrocytes c. oligodendrocytes d. Schwann cells

b. astrocytes

White matter found in the columns of the spinal cord contains ascending and descending nerve tracts that ________________. a. are not myelinated to reduce the speed of conduction b. are myelinated to enhance the speed of conduction c. are modified smooth muscle tissue d. perform best using anaerobic metabolism

b. are myelinated to enhance the speed of conduction

The specialized ____________ is found at the base of the pre-central gyrus of the frontal lobe and is critical for our ability to speak. a. Central Sulcus b. Broca Area c. Pons d. Wernicke Area

b. Broca Area

___________ is located in the left temporal lobe and allows us to recognize and comprehend words. a. Broca's Area b. Basal ganglia c. Wernicke's Area d. Schwuann's cell

c. Wernicke's Area

Communication between the left and right hemispheres of the brain is carried out by _________________. a. somatic motor fibers b. projection fibers c. commissural fibers d. association fibers

c. commissural fibers

___________________ connect areas within one brain hemisphere, and do not run from the cerebrum through the brainstem. a. commissural fibers b. association fibers c. projection fibers d. postganglionic adrenergic fibers

b. association fibers

The ___________ is located in the epithalamus and secretes melatonin to help us fall asleep. a. hypothalamus b. pineal gland c. pituitary gland d. basal ganglia

b. pineal gland

A subdural hematoma involves the collection of blood ______________. a. above the dura mater membrane and below cranial bones of the skull b. between the Schwann cell and the axon of a neuron c. below the dura mater within the arachnoid mater membranes in the brain d. below the pia mater and ependymal cells of the ventricles

c. below the dura mater within the arachnoid mater membranes in the brain.

Hyperpolarization of a membrane causes the outside of a neuron's cell membrane to become _____________________. a. more positive and the inside to become more positive making the cell more difficult to depolarize b. more positive and the inside to become more negative making the cell more difficult to depolarize c. more negative and the inside to become more positive making the cell easier to depolarize d. more negative and the inside to become more positive making the cell more difficult to repolarize

b. more positive and the inside to become more negative making the cell more difficult to depolarize

Medications that stimulate Alpha1 receptors in blood vessels will have ____________________________. a. a similar effect to acetylcholine that causes vasodilation and decreases systemic blood pressure b. a similar effect to acetylcholine that causes vasoconstriction and increases systemic blood pressure c. a similar effect to norEpinephrine that causes vasoconstriction and increases systemic blood pressure d. a similar effect to norEpinephrine that causes vasodilation and decreases systemic blood pressure

c. a similar effect to norEpinephrine that causes vasoconstriction and increases systemic blood pressure

Medications that are Beta1 antagonists will cause heart rate to ___________. a. decrease b. always stop c. never change d. increase

a. decrease

Medications that are Beta2 agonists ________________. a. are parasympathomimetics that cause bronchodilation in the lungs worsening ventilation b. are sympathomimetics that cause bronchodilation in the lungs improving ventilation c. are sympathomimetics that cause bronchoconstriction in the lungs worsening ventilation d. are parasympathomimetics that cause bronchoconstriction in the lungs improving ventilation

b. are sympathomimetics that cause bronchodilation in the lungs improving ventilation

______________ located on the postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the ANS are always stimulatory. a. cholinergic nicotinic receptors b. adrenergic beta receptors c. adrenergic alpha receptors d. cholinergic muscarinic receptors

a. cholinergic nicotinic receptors

ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic Hormone) is secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland and targets the adrenal cortex. Which of the following hormones/neurotransmitters increase blood pressure? a. norEpinephrine, dopamine, and epinephrine b. acetylcholine, estrogen, and prolactin c. histamine and ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) d. acetylcholine, dopamine, and aspirin

a. norEpinephrine, dopamine, and epinephrine

The Renin-Angiotensin System/Mechanism causes _________________. a. the production of Angiotensin-Il that causes generalized systemic vasoconstriction, which increases blood pressure b. the production of aldosterone that causes K+ reabsorption in the adrenal cortex, which increases blood pressure c. the production of Angiotensin-I that causes generalized systemic vasodilation, which increases blood pressure d. the production of ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone) from the posterior pituitary that causes generalized systemic vasodilation, which decreases blood pressure

a. the production of Angiotensin-Il that causes generalized systemic vasoconstriction, which increases blood pressure

Which of the following is correct regarding the hypoglycemic and hyperglycemic hormones that regulate blood glucose? a. insulin is made by the alpha cells of the pancreas, and glucagon is made by the beta cells of the pancreas b. insulin is made by the alpha cells of the gallbladder, and glucagon is made by the alpha cells of the liver c. insulin is made by the beta cells of the pancreas, and glucagon is made by the alpha cells of the pancreas d. insulin is made by the alpha cells of the liver, and glucagon is made by the beta cells of the pancreas

c. insulin is made by the beta cells of the pancreas, and glucagon is made by the alpha cells of the pancreas

Which of the following is correct regarding the antagonistic hormone pair that regulates sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) homeostasis? a. aldosterone secreted by the adrenal cortex targets the kidney to reabsorb Na+ (sodium) into the blood and secrete K+ (potassium) into the urine; ANP (Atrial Natriuretic Peptide) secreted by the heart atria targets the kidney to secrete Na+ (sodium into the urine and reabsorb K+ (potassium) into the blood b. glucagon secreted by the pancreas targets the kidney to reabsorb Na+ (sodium) into the blood and secrete K+ (potassium) into the urine; insulin secreted by the pancreas targets the kidney to secrete Na+ (sodium) into the urine and reabsorb K* (potassium) into the blood c. OT (oxytocin) secreted by posterior pituitary targets the kidney to reabsorb K+ (potassium) into the blood and secrete Na+ (sodium) into the urine; PRL (prolactin) secreted by the anterior pituitary targets the kidney to secrete sodium (Na+) into the urine and reabsorb potassium (K+) into the blood d. testosterone secreted by the testes targets the kidney to reabsorb Na+ (sodium) into the blood and secrete K+ (potassium) into the urine; estrogen secreted by the ovaries targets the kidney to secrete K+ (potassium) into the urine and reabsorb Na+ (sodium) into the blood

a. aldosterone secreted by the adrenal cortex targets the kidney to reabsorb Na+ (sodium) into the blood and secrete K+ (potassium) into the urine; ANP (Atrial Natriuretic Peptide) secreted by the heart atria targets the kidney to secrete Na+ (sodium into the urine and reabsorb K+ (potassium) into the blood

Which of the following series of hormones or chemicals have a role in the regulation of systemic blood pressure? a. ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone), Angiotensin-Il, norEPI, Aldosterone, and Thyroid Hormone increase blood pressure, and ANP (Atrial Natriuretic Peptide) decreases blood pressure b. estrogen, progesterone, glucagon, and PRL (prolactin) decrease blood pressure, and GH (Growth Hormone) increases blood pressure. c. ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone), Angiotensin-I, insulin, Oxytocin, and Glucagon increase blood pressure, and parathyroid hormone decreases blood pressure d. ANP (Atrial Natriuretic Peptide), estrogen, aldosterone, and Insulin decrease blood pressure, and PRL (prolactin) and acetylcholine decrease blood pressure

a. ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone), Angiotensin-Il, norEPI, Aldosterone, and Thyroid Hormone increase blood pressure, and ANP (Atrial Natriuretic Peptide) decreases blood pressure

Which of the following antagonistic hormone pairs regulate calcium homeostasis in the blood? a. calcitonin secreted by the thyroid gland targets osteoblasts to reabsorb Ca2+ (calcium) from the blood into the bone when blood Ca2+ (calcium) is elevated, and parathyroid hormone (PTH) secreted by the parathyroid glands targets osteoclasts to secrete Ca2+ (calcium) from the bone into the blood when blood Ca2+ (calcium) is low b. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) is secreted by posterior pituitary gland in response to hypocalcemia, and AN (atrial natriuretic peptide) is secreted by the heart atria in response to hypercalcemia c. insulin secreted by the pancreas targets osteoblasts to secrete Ca2+ (calcium) from the bone into blood when blood calcium is high, and glucagon secreted by the pancreas targets osteoclasts to reabsorb Ca2* (calcium) from the blood into the bone when blood calcium is low d. epinephrine is secreted by the adrenal gland medulla in response to hypocalcemia, and acetylcholine is secreted by the vagus nerve in response to hypercalcemia

a. calcitonin secreted by the thyroid gland targets osteoblasts to reabsorb Ca2+ (calcium) from the blood into the bone when blood Ca2+ (calcium) is elevated, and parathyroid hormone (PTH) secreted by the parathyroid glands targets osteoclasts to secrete Ca2+ (calcium) from the bone into the blood when blood Ca2+ (calcium) is low

Hyperparathyroidism causes _________ leading a patient to experience signs/symptoms of depressed nerve signals, skeletal muscle weakness/fatigue, bradycardia, and osteoporosis. a. hyponatremia b. hypernatremia c. hypocalcemia d. hypercalcemia

d. hypercalcemia

Tachycardia, hypertension, nervousness, exophthalmus, and rapid weight loss are signs/symptoms of ____________. a. hypothyroidism b. Addison's Disease c. Cretinism d. hyperthyroidism

d. hyperthyroidism

Bradycardia, hypovolemia, hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are signs of adrenal cortex insufficiency called ________________. a. Exophthalmus b. Cushing's Syndrome c. Addison's Disease d. Cretinism

c. Addison's Disease

A patient with undiagnosed Type I diabetes will likely present with the following signs/symptoms, EXCEPT: a. polydipsia b. polyphagia c. hypoglycemia d. hyperglycemia

c. hypoglycemia

Hormones classified as amines or peptides are ___________________. a. hydrophobic, have intracellular receptors and function through a secondary messenger b. hydrophillic, have intracellular receptors and function through direct gene activation in the DNA c. hydrophillic, have intracellular receptors and function through a secondary messenger d. hydrophillic, have receptors located on the plasma membrane and function through a secondary messenger

d. hydrophillic, have receptors located on the plasma membrane and function through a secondary messenger

All of the following are incorrect regarding steroid hormones, EXCEPT: a. they function through a secondary messenger b. they are hydrophillic c. their membrane receptor is intracellular d. their membrane receptor is on the plasma membrane

c. their membrane receptor is intracellular

Throughout the day cortisol levels decrease as the body copes with various stressors. Overnight while asleep, CRH (Corticotropic Releasing Hormone) secreted by the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to produce ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic Hormone) that stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol and peak by morning. This is an example of a homeostatic mechanism regulated by ________________. a. negative feedback b. positive feedback c. diabetes insipidus d. hemostasis

a. Negative feedback

In addition to the parasympathetic system regulating blood pressure homeostasis, which of the following has a parasympathomimetic effect? a. Aldosterone b. ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) c. Angiotensin-Il d. ADH (antidiuretic hormone)

b. ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)

The testes in males and ovaries in females make and secrete sex steroids. Which of the following also makes and secretes sex steroids in both males and females? a. adrenal cortex of the adrenal gland b. C-cells of the thyroid gland c. posterior pituitary of the pituitary gland d. adrenal medulla of the adrenal gland

a. adrenal cortex of the adrenal gland

Hemostasis is a series of positive feedback reactions that stop bleeding. Which of the following is the correct order of steps for hemostasis? a. platelet plug formation, coagulation, and vasospasm b. coagulation, vasospasm, and platelet plug formation c. vasospasm, platelet plug formation, and coagulation d. vasospasm, coagulation, and platelet plug formation

c. vasospasm, platelet plug formation, and coagulation

Coagulation includes the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways that make ________, which is a key step in the reaction cascade that leads to the formation of the fibrin mesh clot that stops bleeding. a. the hemocytoblast b. the embolus c. the platelet plug d. prothrombin activator

d. prothrombin activator

____________ is a significant vasodilating chemical secreted by basophils of the immune system and mast cells within tissue that increases blood flow to the site of infection or injury. a. histamine b. epinephrine c. ketamine d. erythropoietin

a. histamine

Which of the following is most correct regarding the carrying capacity of a gas on a hemoglobin molecule? a. hemoglobin can carry a maximum of 4 molecules of O2 (oxygen gas) for a total of 4 molecules b. hemoglobin can carry a maximum of 2 molecules of CO2 (carbon dioxide gas) plus 3 molecules of O2 (oxygen gas) for a total of 5 molecules c. hemoglobin can carry a maximum of 3 molecules of N2 (nitrogen gas) plus 3 molecules of CO2 (carbon dioxide gas) for a total of 6 molecules d. hemoglobin can carry a maximum of 2 molecules of CO2 (carbon dioxide gas) plus 4 molecules of CO (carbon monoxide gas) for a total of 6 molecules

a. hemoglobin can carry a maximum of 4 molecules of O2 (oxygen gas) for a total of 4 molecules

________________ is caused by the lack of intrinsic factor secretion that limits the ability to absorb vitamin B12. a. Pernicious anemia b. Aplastic anemia c. Hemolytic anemia d. Polycythemia vera

a. Pernicious anemia

A blood donor with AB+ blood can donate to which of the following blood type recipients? a. only O- and O+ b. A-, A+, B-, B+, AB-, AB+, O- and O+ c. AB- if no prior exposure to the Rh factor and AB+ always d. always to O+, A+, B+ and AB+

c. AB- if no prior exposure to the Rh factor and AB+ always

The major contributing factor to blood viscosity is _____________. a. platelet count b. leukocyte count c. erythrocyte count d. O2 and CO2 concentration

c. erythrocyte count

Which of the following factors can lead to tissue hypoxia? a. hypoxemia b. properly formed alpha and beta hemoglobin chains c. a 98% O2 saturation blood level d. a diet with adequate iron intake

a. hypoxemia

Spontaneous widespread hemorrhage can cause petechiae which is a sign of _______________. a. polycythemia b. hypervolemia c. thrombocytopenia d. hemolytic anemia

c. thrombocytopenia

When CO2 loads from the tissues onto the hemoglobin of an erythrocyte, it is transported as _____________. a. carbaminohemoglobin b. oxyhemoglobin c. thalassemic hemoglobin d. carbon monoxide

a. carbaminohemoglobin

Which of the following signs differentiate anemia from Addison's Disease? a. jaundice and fever b. hypovolemia and bradycardia c. cyanosis and shortness of breath d. hyperactivity and insomnia

c. cyanosis and shortness of breath

Individuals with the blood type O- can donate to which of the following blood type recipients? a. only A-, B-, and, AB- b. only AB+ c. only O- d. A-, A+, B-, B+, AB-, AB+, O- and O+

d. A-, A+, B-, B+, AB-, AB+, O- and O+

Individuals with blood type O+ can receive blood from ________________. a. only blood types with the Rh factor because they will never carry anti-Rh factor antibodies in their blood b. only blood types O- and O+ because O blood types carry anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their blood c. only blood type AB- and AB+ because AB blood types do not carry anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their blood d. all blood type donors because O+ is the universal recipient and recognizes all blood types because they carry anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their blood

b. only blood types O- and O+ because O blood types carry anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their blood

All blood cells are formed from the hemocytoblast stem cell in red bone marrow. Which of the following are cells specific to Adaptive Cellular Immunity? a. B-cells and basophils b. neutrophils and macrophages c. plasma cells and antibodies d. Helper T-cells and Cytotoxic T-cells

d. Helper T-cells and Cytotoxic T-cells

Which of the following cells and/or antimicrobial proteins are specific to Innate/Non-Adaptive Immunity? a. Helper T-cells and antibodies b. plasma cells and Cytotoxic T-cells c. interferon and Helper T-cells d. complement and Natural Killer cells

d. complement and Natural Killer cells

____________ are produced by plasma cells that differentiated from B-cells. a. Complement MACs b. Pyrogens c. Antibodies d. Cytokines

c. Antibodies

T-cells mature in the thymus gland, and B-cells mature in the red bone marrow. The most important factor that must occur during their maturation process is _______________. a. recognize self-antigens and destroy the cell b. ignore self-antigens and not destroy the cell c. recognize bacteria and viruses and ignore them d. recognize antibodies and destroy them

b. ignore self-antigens and not destroy the cell

Vaccines enable the immune system to develop immunity against specific viruses because ____________________. a. they trigger secretion of thrombopoietins from the posterior pituitary to target the thermostat in the hypothalamus and cause fever b. they trigger the formation of self-antigen specific platelets to target and destroy healthy tissue cells not infected with viruses c. they trigger a primary immune response that stimulates humoral immunity to form antibodies and memory cells against that specific pathogen d. they trigger an inflammatory response that inhibits humoral and cellular immunity to form interferon

c. they trigger a primary immune response that stimulates humoral immunity to form antibodies and memory cells against that specific pathogen

Erythrocytes do not contain organelles or a nucleus to make room for hemoglobin. Erythropoietin is secreted by the kidney in response to __________________. a. high hemoglobin O2 saturation, increased erythrocyte antibody count, and premature lysing of erythrocytes in the thymus b. low hemoglobin O2 saturation, decreased erythrocyte count, or premature lysing of erythrocytes in the spleen c. low hemoglobin CO2 saturation, increased erythrocyte count, or premature lysing of leukocytes in the spleen d. elevated hemoglobin O2 saturation, increased erythrocyte count, or premature production of erythrocytes in the liver

b. low hemoglobin O2 saturation, decreased erythrocyte count, or premature lysing of erythrocytes in the spleen

What type of humoral immunity results from a vaccination? a. Active - Artificially Acquired b. Passive - Artificially Acquired c. Passive - Naturally Acquired d. Active - Naturally Acquired

a. Active - Artificially Acquired

The functional units of the lymphatic system are ___________________. a. lymph nodes that are the site of platelet formation b. lymph nodes that secrete EPO (erythropoietin) c. lymph nodes that contain B-cells and T-cells d. lymph nodes that make insulin and glucagon

c. lymph nodes that contain B-cells and T-cells

An allergic reaction can can cause bronchoconstriction, systemic vasodilation and anaphylactic shock. These signs/symptoms are indicative of a __________________. a. Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cells b. Type I hypersensitivity mediated by preformed IgE antibodies c. Type Ill hypersensitivity mediated by IgG immune-antigen complexes d. Type I hypersensitivity mediated by lgG or IM antibodies

b. Type I hypersensitivity mediated by preformed IgE antibodies

An _______ is a tissue donation that can only occur between identical twins. a. xenograft b. autograft c. allograft d. isograft

d. isograft

You are dispatched for an "ill person". Upon arrival you notice the patient is an older adult male who lives alone. He is pale and having difficulty breathing. He tells you he has a fever and that his doctor said to call 911 if he ever got a fever because he has leukopenia. His lung sounds reveal crackles in the right lower lobe. His BP is 90/60 mmHg, HR 124 bpm, RR 24 b/min, glucose 100 mg/dL, and temp. of 103. He asks that you grab his medical binder that has all his info, and under Medical History you read he is susceptible to bacterial infections. Which of the following cells is the likely cause of his leukopenia? a. low osteoclast count b. high chondrocyte count c. low neutrophil count d. high platelet count

c. low neutrophil count

T-helper cells communicate with T-cytotoxic cells through specific cytokines and provide specific viral antigen information for them to attack! T-cytotoxic cells circulate and attack body cells that ______________. a. display self-antigens that T-cytotoxic cells recognize and destroy b. display non-self antigens that T-cytotoxic cells recognize and destroy c. do not display any antigens for T-cytotoxic cells to recognize or destroy d. display non-self antigens that T-cytotoxic cells ignore and do not destroy

b. display non-self antigens that T-cytotoxic cells recognize and destroy

Erythroblastosis fetalis can occur when __________________. a. anti-Rh antibodies of an Rh+ mother bind to the erythrocytes of her Rh+ fetus b. anti-Rh antibodies of an Rh- mother bind to the erythrocytes of her Rh+ fetus c. anti-Rh antibodies of an Rh+ fetus bind to the erythrocytes of its Rh- mother d. anti-Rh antibodies of an Rh- mother bind to the erythrocytes of her Rh- fetus

b. anti-Rh antibodies of an Rh- mother bind to the erythrocytes of her Rh+ fetus

The two most important aspects of the adaptive branch of the immune system are ___________________________. a. that T-cells and B-cells ignore specific self antigens and do not develop memory that prevents immunity against subsequent exposures b. that T-cells and B-cells respond to specific self antigens and develop memory that provides immunity against subsequent exposures c. that T-cells and B-cells respond to specific non-self antigens and develop memory that provides immunity against subsequent exposures d. that T-cells and B-cells ignore specific non-self antigens and do not develop memory that prevents immunity against subsequent exposures

c. that T-cells and B-cells respond to specific non-self antigens and develop memory that provides immunity against subsequent exposures

Which of the following immune cells specifically targets parasitic pathogens? a. basophils b. plasma cells c. eosinophils d. neutrophils

c. eosinophils

Macrophages consume pathogens by the process of __________, and then become Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs) that travel to the lymph nodes or spleen where they present protein remnants of the pathogen to T-Helper cells a. osmosis b. phagocytosis c. exocytosis d. mitosis

b. phagocytosis

The nasopharynx (nasal passages) and oropharynx (mouth and throat) contain the ________________ that help provide protection against bacteria that enter these cavities. a. dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater meninges b. testicular and ovarian gonads c. pharyngeal, palatine, and lingual tonsils d. oligodendrocytes, microglial, and ependymal neuroglia

c. pharyngeal, palatine, and lingual tonsils

Fever is part of the inflammatory response generated by immune cells that secrete pyrogens to elevate body temperature. Under what specific branch of the immune system does fever belong? a. innate immunity b. cellular immunity c. humoral immunity d. adaptive immunity

a. innate immunity

You get dispatched to an unconscious person. You arrive to find a 19 year-old female prone on the grass under a shade tree taking frequent deep breaths, and a fruity odor on her breath. Her vitals are: RR 30, O2 saturation 96%, HR 110, BP 132/64 and blood glucose 330 mg/dL. You place a non-rebreather with high flow O2 and start an IV. You remember from medic school that you should always measure capnography on hyperglycemic patients. Which of the following hormones is she likely not producing? a. thyroid b. insulin c. glucagon d. ADH

b. Insulin

You get dispatched to a single vehicle accident and find a young woman in a car with a dent in the front bumper from the stop sign she just hit. She tells you her uncle gave her this brand new BMW for her high school graduation, and she's really scared her dad is going to be so mad she wrecked it. Her dad is already angry and resentful that his brother did not buy him a new car. Her respiratory rate is 20, BP is 130/82, HR 130, and On saturation shows 98%. She tells you she has Addison's disease, but is super healthy because she does yoga every day and takes her medicine. You remember from medic class that Addison's disease means she cannot produce ____________________. a. aldosterone and cortisol b. PRL (prolactin) and OT (oxytocin) c. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) and ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) d. insulin and glucagon

a. aldosterone and cortisol

Patients with diabetes insipidus are often hypovolemic. Which one of the following hormones do these patients not produce? a. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) b. cortisol c. insulin d. thyroid hormone

a. ADH (antidiuretic hormone)

A hypotonic fluid given when not needed will dilute plasma fluid and can cause erythrocytes to _____________________________. a. unload oxygen from the hemoglobin into the hypotonic solution causing the plasma fluid to bubble b. absorb fluid into the cells from the hypotonic solution causing the cells to swell c. nothing detrimental will happen when a hypotonic fluid is given that is not needed d. secrete fluid from the cells into the hypotonic solution causing shrinkage/creation of the cells

b. absorb fluid into the cells from the hypotonic solution causing the cells to swell

The pulmonary circuit begins on the right side of heart. Which of the following statements is true regarding the difference between the pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit of the heart? a. branching from the pulmonary trunk the left and right pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood to the systemic circulation b. branching from the pulmonary trunk the left and right pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs c. branching from the pulmonary trunk the left and right pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated blood to the systemic circulation d. branching from the pulmonary trunk the left and right pulmonary veins carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs

b. branching from the pulmonary trunk the left and right pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs

MAP (Mean Arterial Pressure) is a function of systolic blood pressure (SBP) and diastolic blood pressure (DBP). If MAP = DBP + 1/3 Pulse Pressure, which of the following statements is true? a. DBP must be greater than SBP in order to have adequate MAP for cerebral perfusion b. MAP must be greater than 60 mmHg in order to properly perfuse the brain and prevent syncope c. MAP must be less than 60 mmHg in order to properly perfuse the brain and prevent syncope d. DBP must be 1/3 of SBP in order to maintain adequate MAP for cerebral perfusion

b. MAP must be greater than 60 mmHg in order to properly perfuse the brain and prevent syncope

Pulse Pressure = SBP (systolic blood pressure) - DBP (diastolic blood pressure). The hemodynamic relationship among Flow, Resistance, and pressure means _________________. (Hint: F = AP/R) a. when resistance increases the pressure increases, and the volume of blood flowing through the vessel decreases b. when resistance decreases the pressure increases, and the volume of blood flowing through the vessel decreases c. when resistance increases the pressure decreases and the volume of blood flowing through the vessel increases d. when resistance decreases the pressure increases, and the volume of blood flowing through the vessel increases

a. when resistance increases the pressure increases, and the volume of blood flowing through the vessel decreases

Atropine is an anti-cholinergic medication for conscious patients experiencing bradycardia, which means it _________________________. a. blocks the action of norEPI on adrenergic receptors in the heart, which allows sympathetic neurotransmitters to have a positive chronotropic effect b. increases the action of norEPI on adrenergic receptors in the heart, which allows parasympathetic neurotransmitters to have a negative chronotropic effect c. binds to cholinergic muscarinic receptors in the heart, which allows sympathetic neurotransmitters to have a positive chronotropic effect d. increases the action of ACh on muscarinic receptors in the heart, which allows parasympathetic neurotransmitters to have a negative chronotropic effect

c. binds to cholinergic muscarinic receptors in the heart, which allows sympathetic neurotransmitters to have a positive chronotropic effect

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the effect of epinephrine on blood vessels, the heart, and lungs? a. stimulates adrenergic alpha1 receptors in vessels causing vasodilation to increase blood flow; stimulates beta1 receptors in the heart causing positive chronotropic, ionotropic and dromotropic effects; and stimulates beta2 receptors in the bronchioles causing bronchiole constriction b. stimulates adrenergic alpha1 receptors in vessels causing vasoconstriction to increase blood pressure; stimulates beta2 receptors in the heart causing positive chronotropic, ionotropic and dromotropic effects; and stimulates beta1 receptors in the bronchioles causing bronchiole dilation c. stimulates adrenergic alpha1 receptors in vessels causing vasoconstriction to increase blood pressure; stimulates beta1 receptors in the heart causing positive chronotropic, ionotropic and dromotropic effects; and stimulates beta2 receptors in the bronchioles causing bronchiole dilation d. stimulates adrenergic alpha1 receptors in vessels causing vasoconstriction to increase blood pressure; stimulates beta1 receptors in the heart causing negative chronotropic, ionotropic and dromotropic effects; and stimulates beta2 receptors in the bronchioles causing bronchiole dilation

c. stimulates adrenergic alpha1 receptors in vessels causing vasoconstriction to increase blood pressure; stimulates beta1 receptors in the heart causing positive chronotropic, ionotropic and dromotropic effects; and stimulates beta2 receptors in the bronchioles causing bronchiole dilation

The most adjustable variable that controls vessel resistance is ________________. a. vessel diameter mediated by sympathetic innervation b. vessel length mediated by sympathetic innervation c. blood viscosity mediated by parasympathetic innervation d. blood viscosity mediated by sympathetic innervation

a. vessel diameter mediated by sympathetic innervation

All of the following factors are determinants of systemic blood pressure, EXCEPT: a. blood type b. hydration level c. cardiac output d. peripheral (vessel) resistance

a. blood type

A patient with right ventricular failure would likely have which of the following signs? a. tracheal deviation and/or diarrhea b. pulmonary edema and/or LLQ pain c. (JVD) jugular vein distention and/or peripheral edema d. pernicious anemia and/or hyperventilation

c. (JVD) jugular vein distention and/or peripheral edema

What homeostatic corrective mechanism will occur in the vasomotor center and cardiac centers of the medulla oblongata, when the aortic baroreceptors sense high blood pressure? a. stimulation of the vasomotor center, excitation/stimulation of the cardioinhibitory center, and inhibition of the cardioacceleratory center causing blood pressure to decrease b. inhibition of the vasomotor center, excitation/stimulation of the cardioinhibitory center, and inhibition of the cardioacceleratory center causing blood pressure to decrease c. stimulation of the vasomotor center, inhibition of the cardioinhibitory center, and stimulation of the cardioacceleratory center causing blood pressure to decrease d. inhibition of the vasomotor center, inhibition of the cardioinhibitory center, and inhibition of the cardioacceleratory center causing blood pressure to increase

b. inhibition of the vasomotor center, excitation/stimulation of the cardioinhibitory center, and inhibition of the cardioacceleratory center causing blood pressure to decrease

How do hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure on the venous side of a capillary vessel/bed work together to maintain balance between capillary filtration and reabsorption? a. on the venous side of a capillary hydrostatic pressure in the vessel is lower and oncotic/osmotic pressure is lower b. on the venous side of a capillary hydrostatic pressure in the vessel is lower and oncotic/osmotic pressure is higher c. on the venous side of a capillary hydrostatic pressure in the vessel is higher and oncotic/osmotic pressure is higher d. on the venous side of a capillary hydrostatic pressure in the vessel is higher and oncotic/osmotic pressure is lower

b. on the venous side of a capillary hydrostatic pressure in the vessel is lower and oncotic/osmotic pressure is higher

Distributive shock can be caused by which of the following conditions? a. increased generalized systemic vasoconstriction by ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) b. generalized loss of sympathetic vasomotor tone in the vessels c. increased homeostatic stimulation of the vasomotor center and cardioacceleratory center in the medulla oblongata d. decreased capillary permeability in the peripheral tissues by histamine causing an increase in blood volume

b. generalized loss of sympathetic vasomotor tone in the vessels

What is the correct flow of HHb (deoxyhemoglobin) blood as it enters the heart, travels to the lungs, and returns to the heart as HbO2 blood? a. right atrium > bicuspid/mitral valve > left atrium > tricuspid valve > left ventricle > pulmonary semilunar valve > pulmonary trunk > pulmonary arteries > lungs > pulmonary veins > left ventricle > aortic semilunar valve > aorta b. right atrium > tricuspid valve > right ventricle > pulmonary semilunar valve > pulmonary trunk > pulmonary veins > lungs > pulmonary arteries > left atrium > aortic semilunar valve > bicuspid/mitral valve > aorta c. right atrium > tricuspid valve > right ventricle > pulmonary semilunar valve > pulmonary trunk > pulmonary arteries > lungs > pulmonary veins > left atrium > bicuspid/mitral valve > left ventricle > aortic semilunar valve > aorta d. right atrium > bicuspid/mitral valve > right ventricle > tricuspid valve > left ventricle > pulmonary semilunar valve > pulmonary trunk > pulmonary arteries > lungs > pulmonary veins > left atrium > aortic semilunar valve > aorta

c. right atrium > tricuspid valve > right ventricle > pulmonary semilunar valve > pulmonary trunk > pulmonary arteries > lungs > pulmonary veins > left atrium > bicuspid/mitral valve > left ventricle > aortic semilunar valve > aorta

Repolarization of the atria is clearly indicated by which of the following waves on the EKG? a. QRS complex b. P wave c. T wave d. there is no wave for atrial repolarization on an EKG

d. there is no wave for atrial repolarization on an EKG

A junctional rhythm on an EKG will show a missing P wave. This means ____________. a. the atria did not depolarize b. the ventricles depolarized c. the atria repolarized too early d. the ventricles repolarized

a. the atria did not depolarize

The T wave on the EKG signals _______________. a. atrial depolarization b. atrial repolarization c. ventricular repolarization d. ventricular depolarization

c. ventricular repolarization

The tricuspid and bicuspid/mitral valves close following atrial systole, and stimulation of the papillary muscles attached to the chordae tendineae. The closing of these valves is the _____________. a. a bruit b. a heart murmur c. S2 - second heart sound d. S1 - first heart sound

d. S1 - first heart sound

A patient will likely present with _____________ if right ventricular output exceeds left ventricular output. a. improved preload b. pulmonary edema c. RUQ distention d. systemic edema

b. pulmonary edema

If systemic venous return is compromised, then __________________. a. afterload and cardiac contractility will significantly improve b. preload will significantly decrease c. ANP and ADH secretion by the posterior pituitary will significantly increase d. pulmonary venous return will significantly increase

b. preload will significantly decrease

During the early phase of ventricular repolarization, the absolute refractory period means the __________________________. a. myocardium generates ectopic arrhythmias improving stroke volume b. myocardium is more sensitive to depolarization c. myocardium opens more Ca2+ gates improving contractility d. myocardium cannot be depolarized

d. myocardium cannot be depolarized

What would be the effect on cardiac output if a patient is taking a negative chronotropic agent, and stroke volume remains the same? a. cardiac output would increase b. cardiac output would not change c. cardiac output would stop d. cardiac output would decrease

d. cardiac output would decrease

Parasympathetic innervation on the heart only affects ____________. a. the SA node and the Purkinje fibers b. the left and right bundle branches c. the AV bundle and the Purkinje fibers d. the SA node and the AV node

d. the SA node and the AV node

A patient with pulmonary hypertension is likely to also have _________. a. right ventricular atrophy b. right ventricular hypertrophy c. left ventricular hypertrophy d. improved cardiac output

b. right ventricular hypertrophy

Blood flow to the brain must be maintained at a constant volume and pressure. If MAP (mean arterial pressure) declines, how will cerebral vessels react to maintain adequate perfusion? a. MAP changes do not affect blood flow or perfusion in the brain b. cerebral vessels will lose vasomotor tone to increase capillary fluid permeability c. cerebral vessels will constrict to decrease blood flow and reduce perfusion d. cerebral vessels will dilate to increase blood flow and maintain perfusion

d. cerebral vessels will dilate to increase blood flow and maintain perfusion

The left coronary artery branches into the ________________. a. right marginal artery and circumflex artery b. circumflex artery and the LAD (left anterior descending artery) c. right marginal artery and the LAD (left anterior descending artery) d. right coronary artery and right marginal artery

b. circumflex artery and the LAD (left anterior descending artery)

Acute elevations in intracranial pressure can cause the physiological nervous system response called Cushing's Triad, where patients experience widening pulse pressure, bradycardia and an irregular respiratory rate. Which of the following blood pressure measurements taken 3 minutes apart indicates a widening pulse pressure? a. first BP: 110/70; second BP: 130/60 b. first BP: 120/70; second BP: 100/70 c. first BP: 110/70; second BP: 100/60 d. first BP: 100/70; second BP: 90/70

a. first BP: 110/70; second BP: 130/60

What must be present in order to call a cardiac rhythm a sinus rhythm? a. a missing P wave followed by a wide QRS complex followed by an upright T wave b. an upright P wave followed by a missing QRS complex followed by a missing T wave c. an upright P wave followed by a QRS complex followed by an upright T wave d. an upright P wave followed by a missing QRS complex followed by an inverted P wave

c. an upright P wave followed by a QRS complex followed by an upright T wave

What is the difference between ventilation and respiration? a. ventilation is the exchange of O2 and CO2 between the lungs and the blood; internal respiration is the diffusion of fluid between the tissues and the blood; and external respiration is the diffusion of O2 and CO2 between the blood and the tissues b. ventilation is the exchange of O2 and CO2 between the blood and the tissues; external respiration is the exchange of O2 and CO2 between the lungs and the blood; and internal respiration is the movement of air during inspiration and expiration c. ventilation is the movement of air during inspiration and expiration; external respiration is the exchange of O2 and CO2 between the blood and the alveoli; and internal respiration is the exchange of O2 and CO2 between blood and the tissues d. ventilation is the expiration of O2 and CO2 from the tissue to the blood; external respiration is the inspiration of O2 and CO2 as it diffuses into the tissues; and internal respiration is the expiration of O2 and CO2 as it diffuses into the alveoli

c. ventilation is the movement of air during inspiration and expiration; external respiration is the exchange of O2 and CO2 between the blood and the alveoli; and internal respiration is the exchange of O2 and CO2 between blood and the tissues

Oxygenation as opposed to ventilation and respiration refers to ______________________. a. the loading of oxygen onto hemoglobin that happens during external respiration b. the unloading of oxygen onto hemoglobin that happens during external respiration c. the unloading of carbon dioxide onto hemoglobin that happens during internal respiration d. the loading of carbon dioxide onto hemoglobin that happens during internal respiration

a. the loading of oxygen onto hemoglobin that happens during external respiration

The left primary/mainstem and right primary/mainstem bronchi branch at the ________ of the trachea. a. cricoid cartilage b. thyroid cartilage c. epiglottis cartilage d. carina cartilage

d. carina cartilage

All of the following statements are true regarding the pleural serous membranes, EXCEPT: a. the serous membranes are the parietal and visceral pleura b. negative intrapleural pressure facilitates ventilation c. positive intrapleural pressure facilitates ventilation d. intrapleural pressure must always be less than intrapulmonary/intralveolar pressure

c. positive intrapleural pressure facilitates ventilation

Epinephrine is used to treat patients in anaphylactic shock. What specifically does it do that allows patients to regain normal ventilation? a. targets beta1 receptors resulting in relaxation/dilation of smooth muscle surrounding the bronchioles b. targets alpha1 receptors resulting in relaxation/dilation of smooth muscle surrounding the bronchioles c. targets alpha1 receptors resulting in constriction of skeletal muscle surrounding the bronchioles d. targets beta2 receptors resulting in relaxation/dilation of smooth muscle surrounding the bronchioles

d. targets beta2 receptors resulting in relaxation/dilation of smooth muscle surrounding the bronchioles

The progressive buildup of air that pushes the mediastinum into the left or right side of the thorax is called a ___________. a. atelectasis b. cardiac tamponade c. tension pneumothorax d. hemopneumothorax

c. tension pneumothorax

Ventilation and perfusion must be matched (coupled) for efficient gas exchange. Perfusion refers to _________________. a. oxygen reaching the alveoli b. blood flow reaching the alveoli c. water vapor reaching the alveoli d. carbon dioxide reaching the blood

b. blood flow reaching the alveoli

The rate of loading and unloading of O2 is regulated by a number of factors. Which of the following statements is false? a. O2 dissociates more easily from Hb at sea level than at altitude b. the partial pressure of O2 affects the affinity of O2 to Hb c. an acidic blood pH < 7.35 will increase the affinity of O2 to Hb shifting the curve to the left d. O2 will dissociate more easily from Hb when an individual has a fever which shifts the curve to the right

c. an acidic blood pH < 7.35 will increase the affinity of O2 to Hb shifting the curve to the left

Changes in the partial pressure of CO2 in the alveoli will cause changes in the diameters of the bronchioles. When alveolar CO2 increases the bronchioles respond by ________. a. constricting b. dilating c. hypertrophying/lengthening d. atrophying/shortening

b. dilating

Changes in the partial pressure of O2 in the alveoli will cause changes in the diameters of the arterioles/capillaries. When alveolar O2 decreases the arterioles/capillaries respond by ______________. a. atrophying/shortening b. hypertrophying/lengthening c. vasodilating d. vasoconstricting

d. vasoconstricting

Which of the following is not a cause of hypoxemia? a. abnormal Hb b. poor intake of dietary iron c. 100% O2 Hb saturation on erythrocytes d. metabolic poisons

c. 100% O2 Hb saturation on erythrocytes

More carbon dioxide can be transported in the blood when the atmospheric partial pressure of oxygen is lower and hemoglobin is less saturated with oxygen. Which of the following signs would you expect a patient to have under these conditions? a. increased respiratory rate b. decreased respiratory rate c. bradycardia d. hypotension

a. increased respiratory rate

The transport and exchange of CO2 is possible because of the rapid reaction that converts CO2 + H2O (carbon dioxide + water): H2CO3 (carbonic acid), catalyzed by the enzyme CAH (carbonic anhydrase). Where specifically does this reaction take place? a. on an erythrocyte b. in the alveoli c. in the spleen during hemolysis d. in the atmosphere

a. on an erythrocyte

Individuals with uncontrolled Type-I Diabetes Mellitus are at high risk for metabolic acidosis. How will the body attempt to correct this pH imbalance? a. increase CO2 and H2O retention b. increase urinary reabsorption of H+ (hydrogen ion) from the urine into the blood c. increase secretion of HCO3 (bicarbonate) from the blood into the urine d. increase expiration of CO2 and H2O

d. increase expiration of CO2 and H2O

Hypercapnia is caused by _______________. a. hyperventilation b. abnormally high PaCO2 in the blood c. abnormally low PaCO, in the blood d. decreased accumulation of H+ (hydrogen ion) in the blood

b. abnormally high PaCO2 in the blood

Hyperventilation will likely result in ___________. a. metabolic alkalosis b. respiratory acidosis c. hypocapnia d. hypercapnia

c. hypocapnia

On average the value for tidal volume in both males and females is ________. a. 5000 mL b. 1200 ml c. 500 mL d. 3100 mL

c. 500 mL

The VRG (ventral respiratory group) and the DRG (dorsal respiratory group) are specifically located in the _______________. a. hypothalamus b. medulla oblongata c. midbrain d. spinal nerves C3-C4

b. medulla oblongata

The volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximal expiration is called ________________. a. tidal volume b. residual volume c. inspiratory reserve volume d. vital capacity

b. residual volume

While ventilating an intubated patient, you notice the ETCO2 reading on the monitor continues to decrease. You should _____________________. a. check the monitor b. instruct your medic partner to ventilate more rapidly c. listen to lung sounds d. push the ET tube deeper

c. listen to lung sounds

A tension pneumothorax will cause cardiac preload to ___________. a. increase b. improve c. not change d. decrease

d. decrease

When performing a cricothyrotomy, the scalpel is inserted in the cricothyroid membrane of the trachea. The trachea is located _______________. a. along the midclavicular line in the intercostal space between the 2nd and 3rd rib b. along the midaxillary in the in the intercostal space between the 4th and 5th rib c. superior to the glottis d. anterior to the esophagus

d. anterior to the esophagus

The ventilatory stimulus in individuals with low PaO2 due to chronic respiratory disease is a function of ________________. a. pulmonary edema b. the hypoxic drive c. the HbCO2 saturation d. decreased phrenic nerve stimulation

b. the hypoxic drive

Atelectasis specifically refers to _____________________. a. hypoventilation b. collapse of the alveoli in one or both lungs c. pulmonary edema in one or both lungs d. apnea

b. collapse of the alveoli in one or both lungs

Which of the following accessory digestive organs secrete amylase? a. stomach and pancreas b. salivary glands and pancreas c. gall bladder and salivary glands d. liver and gall bladder

b. salivary glands and pancreas

Which of the following anatomical structures is not part of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract/tube? a. duodenum b. rectum c. esophagus d. gall bladder

d. gall bladder

All of the following substances are secreted by the pancreas, EXCEPT: a. insulin and glucagon b. proteases and lipases c. brush border enzymes and aldosterone d. amylase and nucleases

c. brush border enzymes and aldosterone

The bile duct and the main pancreatic duct empty bile and pancreatic enzymes/juices into the duodenum through the ________________. a. gastroesophageal sphincter b. hepatopancreatic sphincter c. ileocecal sphincter d. hepatic portal vein

b. hepatopancreatic sphincter

Venous blood from the spleen, stomach, small intestine, colon, and pancreas enters the _____________. a. superior vena cava b. celiac trunk c. renal veins d. hepatic portal vein

d. hepatic portal vein

Which of the following hormones secreted by the pancreas targets the liver during a sympathetic response? a. glucagon b. insulin c. growth hormone d. gastrin

a. glucagon

Intrinsic factor secreted by the __________ of the stomach is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12. a. chief cells b. parietal cells c. enteroendocrine cells d. H. pylori

b. parietal cells

The __________ is a small appendage on the cecum, and often the cause of severe RLQ abdominal pain. a. gall bladder b. spleen c. sigmoid colon d. appendix

d. appendix

Stimulation of digestion is mediated by the __________. a. hypoglossal nerve b. phrenic nerve c. vagus nerve d. accessory nerve

c. Vagus nerve

Undigested waste passes through the colon in what order? a. cecum > ascending colon > left colic flexure > sigmoid colon > right colic flexure > descending colon > transverse colon > rectum > anal canal > potty b. cecum > ascending colon > right colic flexure > transverse colon > left colic flexure > descending colon > sigmoid colon > rectum > anal canal > potty c. cecum > sigmoid colon > right colic flexure > transverse colon > ascending colon > left colic flexure > descending colon > rectum > anal canal > potty d. cecum > ascending colon > right colic flexure > transverse colon > sigmoid colon > left colic flexure > descending colon > anal canal > rectum > potty

b. cecum > ascending colon > right colic flexure > transverse colon > left colic flexure > descending colon > sigmoid colon > rectum > anal canal > potty

_________ produced in the stomach begins the process of protein digestion. a. Insulin b. Glucagon c. Pepsin d. Bile

c. Pepsin

The function of the ___________ is to grind food into fine particles that make it easier to swallow. a. central incisors b. lateral incisors c. canines d. molars

d. molars

Shortness of breath, pallor, hypotension, fatigue, and feeling light headed are all signs/symptoms of ________________. a. hemorrhoids causing discomfort while sitting b. a gastric ulcer causing internal bleeding c. date night dinner at Los Dos Molinos d. a full urinary bladder

b. a gastric ulcer causing internal bleeding

In addition to abdominal pain, which of the following signs should you look for in a patient suffering from an infection causing peritonitis? a. fever b. dilute urine c. eupnea d. pain while urinating

a. fever

The kidneys are located ___________ and inferior to the costal cartilages. a. retroperitoneal b. intrapleural c. intraperitoneal d. interperitoneal

a. retroperitoneal

The ______________ of the nephron helps maintain systemic blood pressure homeostasis. a. PCT (proximal convoluted tubule) b. renal pelvis c. collecting duct d. JGA (Juxtaglomerular Apparatus)

d. JGA (Juxtaglomerular Apparatus)

The functional units of the kidney are the _____________________. a. cortical nephrons and juxtamedullary nephrons b. ureters and urinary bladder c. peritubular capillaries and vasa recta capillaries d. chief cells and parietal cells

a. cortical nephrons and juxtamedullary nephrons

Which of the following statements is true? a. the function of the cortical nephron is concentration of urine, and the juxtaglomerular nephron is responsible for reabsorption b. the function of the cortical nephron is reabsorption of the majority of the filtrate, and the juxtaglomerular nephron is responsible for the concentration of urine c. the vasa recta capillary network of the juxtamedullary nephron empties directly into the inferior vena cava d. ions the peritubular capillary surrounds the collecting duct of the juxtaglomerular nephron and is the target for hormones to reabsorb

b. the function of the cortical nephron is reabsorption of the majority of the filtrate, and the juxtaglomerular nephron is responsible for the concentration of urine

Filtrate flows from the glomerular capsule into the _________________. a. PCT (proximal convoluted tubule) at a net filtration pressure of approximately 10 mmHg b. DCT (distal convoluted tubule) at a net filtration pressure of approximately 50 mmHg c. collecting duct at a net filtration pressure of approximately 100 mmHg d. ureter at a net filtration pressure of approximately 20 mmHg

a. PCT (proximal convoluted tubule) at a net filtration pressure of approximately 10 mmHg

Which of the following hormones specifically regulates water reabsorption in the kidney via negative feedback? a. ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) b. PTH (parathyroid hormone) c. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) d. TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone)

c. ADH (antidiuretic hormone)

During vigorous aerobic exercise, sympathetic stimulation to the afferent arteriole increases. What effect does this have on blood flow entering the glomerulus? a. vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole causes blood flow to increase b. vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole causes blood flow to decrease c. vasodilation of the afferent arteriole causes blood flow to stop d. vasodilation of the afferent arteriole causes blood flow to decrease

b. vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole causes blood flow to decrease

Polyphagia, polyuria, and polydipsia are associated signs/symptoms of diabetes mellitus. _________ is the proper term for glucose remaining in the urine. a. hypoglycemia b. hyperglycemia c. natriuria d. glucosuria

d. glucosuria

Secretion of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) is stimulated by hypernatremia. The effect of ANP on the smooth muscle of vessels and the kidney is __________. a. vasoconstriction to increase systemic blood pressure and increase reabsorption of Na+ from the filtrate of the DCT (distal convoluted tubule) into the blood capillaries b. vasoconstriction to increase systemic blood pressure and increase reabsorption of Na+ from the filtrate of the PCT (proximal convoluted tubule) into the blood capillaries c. vasodilation to decrease systemic blood pressure and increase secretion of Na+ from the blood capillaries into the filtrate of the DCT (distal convoluted tubule) d. vasodilation to increase systemic blood pressure and increase secretion of K+ from the blood capillaries into the filtrate of the DCT (distal convoluted tubule)

c. vasodilation to decrease systemic blood pressure and increase secretion of Na+ from the blood capillaries into the filtrate of the DCT (distal convoluted tubule)

The parasympathetic postganglionic neuron targets __________ on the detrusor smooth muscle that surrounds the urinary bladder facilitating urination. a. adrenergic beta1 receptors b. cholinergic muscarinic receptors c. adrenergic beta2 receptors d. adrenergic alpha1 receptors

b. cholinergic muscarinic receptors

If the baroreceptors of the afferent arteriole sense a decrease in blood pressure, how does the kidney respond to this homeostatic imbalance? a. granular cells in the kidney secrete renin which activates the Renin-Angiotensin System/Mechanism b. granular cells in the kidney secrete ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) to increase urine output c. macula densa cells in the kidney secrete ADH to make more urine d. macula densa cells in the kidney secrete aldosterone to secrete more Ca2+

a. granular cells in the kidney secrete renin which activates the Renin-Angiotensin System/Mechanism

The afferent arteriole brings blood into the glomerular capillary and exerts __________ to drive fluid out of the glomerular capillary into the capsule. a. venous osmotic pressure b. capsular osmotic pressure c. glomerular hydrostatic pressure d. ICP (intracranial pressure)

c. glomerular hydrostatic pressure

What effect would constriction of the afferent arteriole and dilation of the efferent arteriole have on blood flow into the glomerulus and net filtration pressure? a. blood flow into the glomerulus would increase and net filtration pressure would increase b. blood flow into the glomerulus would decrease and net filtration pressure would increase c. blood flow into the glomerulus would increase and net filtration pressure would decrease d. blood flow into the glomerulus would decrease and net filtration pressure would decrease

d. blood flow into the glomerulus would decrease and net filtration pressure would decrease

What effect would dilation of the afferent arteriole and constriction of the efferent arteriole have on blood flow entering the glomerulus and net filtration pressure? a. blood flow entering the glomerulus would decrease and net filtration pressure would decrease b. blood flow entering the glomerulus would increase and net filtration pressure would increase c. blood flow entering the glomerulus would increase and net filtration pressure would decrease d. blood flow entering the glomerulus would decrease and net filtration pressure would increase

b. blood flow entering the glomerulus would increase and net filtration pressure would increase

What effect will a dangerous increase in blood volume have on the secretion of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)? a. inhibit secretion of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) to further increase blood volume and decrease urine production b. inhibit secretion of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) to reduce blood volume by decreasing urine production c. stimulate secretion of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) to reduce blood volume by increasing urine production d. no effect on the secretion of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)

c. stimulate secretion of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) to reduce blood volume by increasing urine production

Which of the following are not permeable through the filtration membrane of the glomerular capillaries? a. erythrocytes • b. Na+ ions c. K+ ions • d. glucose particles

a. erythrocytes

The capillaries surrounding the renal tubules assist in the elimination of H+ from the blood by _______________________. a. reabsorbing H+ from the filtrate in the tubules into the capillaries surrounding the tubules b. reabsorbing H+ from the capillaries surrounding the tubules into the collecting ducts c. secreting H+ from the capillaries surrounding the tubules into the filtrate in the tubules d. reabsorbing H+ from the tubules into the peritoneum

c. secreting H+ from the capillaries surrounding the tubules into the filtrate in the tubules

The micturition reflex causes _____________. a. vomiting b. defecation c. ejaculation d. urination

d. urination

Which of the following antagonistic hormones regulate blood volume by affecting GFR (glomerular filtration rate)? a. insulin and glucagon b. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) and ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) c. PTH (parathyroid hormone) and PRL (prolactin) d. hCG (human chorionic gonadotropic hormone) and OT (oxytocin)

b. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) and ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)

The countercurrent exchanger and countercurrent multiplier are the key components of the countercurrent mechanism in the _____________. a. cortical nephron b. renal pelvis c. major calyx d. juxtamedullary nephron

d. juxtamedullary nephron

The _______________ functions specifically to concentrate the filtrate in the Loop of Henle/nephron loop of the juxtamedullary nephron. a. countercurrent multiplier b. countercurrent exchanger c. cortical nephron d. renal artery

a. countercurrent multiplier

The ________________ in the juxtamedullary nephron functions specifically to maintain blood osmolality. a. renal artery b. countercurrent exchanger c. cortical nephron d. countercurrent multiplier

b. countercurrent exchanger

The descending limb of the nephron loop/Loop of Henle in the juxtamedullary nephron is only permeable to _________. a. Ions b. blood c. water d. glucose

c. water

The ascending limb of the nephron loop/Loop of Henle in the juxtamedullary nephron is only permeable to ________. a. ions b. water c. proteins d. blood

a. ions

Which of the following is the primary buffer for H+ in the blood? a. protein b. NH4+ c. HCO3- d. K+

c. HCO3-

Excessive diarrhea should be a cause for concern regarding blood pH homeostasis because _______________________. a. excessive diarrhea can cause metabolic alkalosis due to significant loss of H+ b. excessive diarrhea can cause metabolic acidosis due to significant loss of HCO3- c. excessive diarrhea can cause respiratory alkalosis due to significant loss of H+ d. excessive diarrhea can cause respiratory acidosis due to significant loss of HCO3-

b. excessive diarrhea can cause metabolic acidosis due to significant loss of HCO3-

Excessive vomiting should be a cause for concern regarding blood pH homeostasis because _________________________. a. excessive vomiting can cause metabolic acidosis due to significant loss of HCO3- b. excessive vomiting can cause respiratory alkalosis due to significant loss of H+ c. excessive vomiting can cause respiratory acidosis due to significant loss of HCO3- d. excessive vomiting can cause metabolic alkalosis due to significant loss of H+

d. excessive vomiting can cause metabolic alkalosis due to significant loss of H+

You arrive at the residence of a 62 year-old man who was found unconscious by his wife. She last saw him two hours earlier in the kitchen making a sandwich before heading to his man cave to watch the D-Backs play the Dodgers. She tells you he has high blood pressure, but has always been really good about taking care of his diabetes that he's had since he was 7. She adds that he was out in the yard mowing and pulling weeds all morning without a hat and no sunblock. She watched him take insulin before she left for Target. When she returned home, his sandwich was on the counter and he did not respond when she hollered at him. She found him slumped over sideways in his recliner and immediately called 911. Your first course of action should be ______________. a. assess his blood glucose b. provide high flow O2 using a non-rebreather c. assess his urine output d. assess his airway

d. assess his airway

You are dispatched to a large gathering at a known AirBnB party house for an unconscious person. You are met at the door by three very sunburned girls wearing Michigan football jerseys. They last saw their friend early that morning dancing on the diving board with a really cute guy that cannot be found. They tell you their friend is super awesome and the best keg stand chugger in their sorority, and that she never passes out or gets hungover. The day before was activity day, and everyone hiked Camelback with no problem. On the kitchen counter are left over tacos, chips and salsa, and a pretty bouquet of flowers in a blender being used as a vase. After quickly performing a primary assessment you ask for a set of vitals and a 4 lead. Her BP is 106/72, sinus rhythm with a HR of 92, and a RR of 22. Her lungs are clear bilaterally, and the pulse oximeter reads 93% on room air. One of the girls remembers her friend has asthma and is a diabetic, but doesn't know if she saw her do her insulin shots before the party. You request a blood glucose, and your EMT partner says he can't get one because he was in the middle of looking for glucometer batteries when the call came in, and it's dead. You place a non-rebreather with high flow O2 on the patient. What else should you do? a. administer hypertonic fluid boluses en route b. ventilate 1 breath every 3 seconds using a BVM c. attach capnography d. administer 8 oz. of orange juice by mouth

c. attach capnography

The distal convoluted tubules empty into a common ___________. a. glomerular capsule b. efferent arteriole c. vasa recta d. collecting duct

d. collecting duct

The function of the efferent arteriole is to __________________. a. reinforce glomerular capillary pressure and direct blood into the vasa recta capillary of the juxtamedullary nephron and the peritubular capillary of the cortical nephron b. reinforce glomerular capillary pressure and remove blood from the vasa recta of the juxtamedullary nephron into the DCT (distal convoluted tubule) c. reinforce glomerular capillary pressure and remove blood from the peritubular capillary of the cortical nephron into the PCT (proximal convoluted tubule) d. reinforce glomerular capillary pressure and regulate urea concentration in the capsule protecting the kidney

a. reinforce glomerular capillary pressure and direct blood into the vasa recta capillary of the juxtamedullary nephron and the peritubular capillary of the cortical nephron

Which of the following hormones are secreted by the kidney? a. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) and Leukopoietin b. ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) and aldosterone c. EPO (erythropoietin) and Renin d. insulin and glucagon

c. EPO (erythropoietin) and Renin

Hyperkalemia stimulates aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortex. Which of the following substances also stimulates aldosterone secretion? a. ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) b. PTH (parathyroid hormone) c. Angiotensin-Il d. OT (oxytocin)

c. Angiotensin-Il

Pain that moves from the flank anteriorly towards the groin with increasing intensity can be indicative of a kidney stone. Patients will often present with blood in the urine referred to as ______ if the stone is obstructing the ureter. a. pernicious anemia b. hematuria c. hypocalcemia d. cholecystitis

b. hematuria

Blood flow into the kidneys is specifically supplied by _____________. a. the celiac trunk that branches from the aorta b. the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries c. the left and right gonadal arteries d. the left and right renal arteries

d. the left and right renal arteries

Bicarbonate is the most important buffer that maintains pH homeostasis in the blood. Which of the following ions results when protein functions as a buffer? a. H+ b. NH4+ c. Na+ d. Ca2+

b. NH4+

In-Class Quizzes 1-5 (A&P Final Exam) Flashcards

Quizzes are in order 1-5 1-50 (In-Class Quiz 1) 51-100 (In-Class Quiz 2) 101-150 (In-Class Quiz 3) 151-200 (In-Class Quiz 4) 201-250 (In-Class Quiz 5)