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IMPORTANT POINTS Flashcards

1
Q
  1. anterior cruciate ligament is damaged.direction of tibial dislocation on femur is
    a. anteriolateral
    b. anteromeddiaal
    c. anterior
    d. posterromedial
    e. posterolateral
A

c. anterior (answer)

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2
Q
  1. narrowest point in pediatric airway
    a. cricoid
    b. thyroid
    c. trachea
    d. false vocal cord
    e. true vocal cords
A

a. cricoid (answer)

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3
Q
  1. regarding vertebral column
    a. intervertebral disc is thickest in thoracic and lumber regions
    b. cervical vertebrae are 7
    c. total 31 vertebrae
    d. curvature to side is caalled lordosis
    e. prolapse can occur without fracutre
A

b. cervical vertebrae are 7(answer)

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4
Q
  1. pulmonary artery supplies
    a. alveoli (answer)
    b. alveolar sac
    c. Bronchioles
    d. trachea
    e. terminal bronchioles
A

a. alveoli (answer)

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5
Q
  1. if thalamus gets damaged,which is not affected
    a. sense of olfaction
    b. vibration
    c. touch
A

a. sense of olfaction (answer)

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6
Q
  1. dorsal nucleus of vagus nerve is present
    a. upper part of pons
    b. lower part of pons
    c. medulla
    d. midbrain
A

c. medulla (answer)

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7
Q
  1. superior colliculus receives which sensation
    a. auditory
    b. visual
    c. hearing
A

b. visual (answer)

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8
Q
  1. posterior to urinary bladder
    a. anal canal
    b. prostate
    c. denonvilliers fascia
    d. completely covered by peritoneum
    e. covered by peritoneum in lower half only
A

c. denonvilliers fascia (answer)

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9
Q
  1. dorsal column damaged,which will be least affected
    a. touch
    b. sterogonosis
A

b. sterogonosis (answer-NOT SURE)

temp and vibration were not in options

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10
Q
  1. nerve involved in bell’s palsy
    a. 7
    b. 9
    c. 10
A

a. 7 (answer)

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11
Q
  1. posterior communicating artery
    a. passes below the oculomotor nerve and connects ICA and PCA
    b. passes above occulomotor nerve and connects ICA to MCA
    c. connects ICA to posterior cerebellar rtery
A

a. passes below the oculomotor nerve and connects ICA and PCA (answer)

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12
Q
  1. structure passing thru the cavernous sinus
    a. CN 3
    b. CN 6
    c. CN 4
A

b. CN 6 (answer)

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13
Q
  1. isthumus of thyroid is situated over which tracheal rings
    a. 1,2,3
    b. 2,3,4
    c. 1,2
    d. 2,3
A

b. 2,3,4 (answer)

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14
Q
  1. which muscle gets paralyzed/damaged in temporomandibular joint dislocation
    a. temporalis
    b. masseter
    c. lateral pterygoid
    d. medial pterygoid
    e. buccinator
A

c. lateral pterygoid (answer)

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15
Q
  1. fascia deep to parotid gland forms
    a. stylomandibular ligament
    b. stylohyoid ligament
    c. temporomandibular ligament
A

c. temporomandibular ligament (answer)

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16
Q
  1. cardiac plexus
    a. formed infront of trachea
    b. have preganglionic sympthetic fibers from superior cervical ganglia
    c. contain both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers
A

c. contain both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers (answer)

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17
Q
  1. 1st branch of abdominal aorta
    a. inferior phrenic
    b. celiac
A

a. inferior phrenic (answer)

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18
Q
  1. LCX blocked.area affected
    a. left atrium+left ventricle
    b. left atrium
    c. left ventricle
A

a. left atrium+left ventricle (answer)

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19
Q
  1. brachial plexus block…pt still feels pain on lateral aspect of forearm.which nerve is spared
    a. axillary nerrve
    b. musculocutaneous nerve
A

b. musculocutaneous nerve (answer)

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20
Q
  1. structure pierced during spinal tap
    a. posterior longitudinal lig
    b. ligamentum flavum
A

b. ligamentum flavum (answer)

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21
Q
  1. dilatation of aortic arch will compress
    a. left bronchus
    b. trachea
    c. esophagus
A

a. left bronchus (answer)

RLN was not in options

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22
Q
  1. muscles are connected to bones via
    a. ligaments
    b. tendons
A

b. tendons (answer)

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23
Q
  1. long thoracic nerve supplies
    a. lattisimus dorsi
    b. serratus anterior
A

b. serratus anterior (answer)

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24
Q
  1. pt with spells of dizziness and diplopia,now presented with coma.what’s the diagnosis
    a. subarachnoid hemorrhage
    b. carotid artery obstruction
    c. basilar artery thrombosis
    d. pontine hemorrhage
A

c. basilar artery thrombosis (answer)

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25
Q
  1. axillary artery is formedd by
    a. basilic vein and vena comitantes of brachial artery
    b. cephalic vein and vena commitantes of brachial artery
A

a. basilic vein and vena comitantes of brachial artery (answer)

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26
Q
  1. at which level trachea starts
    a. c6
    b. c7
    c. c5
    d. c8
A

a. c6 (answer)

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27
Q
  1. jejunum is supplied by
    a. SMA
    b. IMA
    c. pancreaticoduodenal artery
A

a. SMA (answer)

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28
Q
  1. regarding vessels of lower limb
    a. cruciate anastmosis is b/w femoral artery and external iliac artery
    b. short saphenous starts from medial side of foot
    c. long saphenous ends in mid thigh
    d. femoral vein is lateral to femoral canal
A

d. femoral vein is lateral to femoral canal (answer)

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29
Q
  1. injury to lateral hypothalamus will
    a. increases appetite
    b. no effect on hunger
    c. decreases hunger
    d. increases hunger for carbohydrates
A

c. decreases hunger (answer)

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30
Q
  1. lesion of rt lateral geniculaate body causes
    a. left homonymus hemianopia
    b. rt homonymus hemianopia
    c. bitemporal hemianopia
A

a. left homonymus hemianopia (answer)

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31
Q
  1. internal carotid artery
    a. ophthalmic branch enters thru superior orbital fissure
    b. it enters thrusquamous paart of temporal bone
    c. at bifurcation its lateral to external carotid artery then turns medially and posteriorly
    d. pierces diaphragma sella medial to optic nerve
A

c. at bifurcation its lateral to external carotid artery then turns medially and posteriorly (answer)

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32
Q
  1. bundle of his is supplied by
    a. RCA
    b. LCX
    c. rt marginal artery
A

c. rt marginal artery (answer)

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33
Q
  1. lymphatic drainage of thyroid
A

a. deep cervical lymph nodes (answer)

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34
Q
  1. in open laparotomy,surgeon recognizes left kidney by
    a. dark color
    b. begins from T12 to L4
    c. anterior relation with stomach,pancreas,descending colon,spleen,jejunum
    d. anterior relation with pancreas,descending colon,spleen,jejunum
A

c. anterior relation with stomach,pancreas,descending colon,spleen,jejunum (answer)

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35
Q
  1. pt suffering from appendicitis,having pain in right iliac fossa that is reffered to umbilicus.which spinal nerve root is involved in this reffered pain
    a. T10
    b. L5
A

a. T10 (answer)

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36
Q
  1. light thrown in rt eye,direct reflex is present but absence of indirect light reflex.which structure is involved/damaged
    a. rt occulomotor nerve
    b. left oculomotor nerve
    c. pretectum
A

b. left oculomotor nerve (answer)

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37
Q
  1. linear growth pf bone is affected if following structure is fractured
    a. metaphysis
    b. epiphyseal line
    c. epiphyseal plate
    d. diaphysis
A

c. epiphyseal plate (answer)

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38
Q
  1. abscess anterior to pretracheal fascia.infection can spread to
A

a. anterior mediastinum (answer)

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39
Q
  1. beta endorphins
A

a. hypothalamus

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40
Q
  1. typical scenario of sickle cell anemia with abdominal pain jaundice etc…
    a. HB ss
    b. HB sc
A

a. HB ss (answer)

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41
Q
  1. ITP scenario was given.splenectomy done.which organism will cause postsplenectomy reecurrent infections
    a. hemophilis influenza
    b. staph aureus
A

a.

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42
Q
  1. hepatitis scenario,viral markers negative,ALT slightly raised,on exaamination there
    were some eye findings.what is the suitable dignostic test
    a. serum ceruloplasmin
    b. urinary copper
    c. HbsAg
    d. anti mitochondrial ab
A

a. serum ceruloplasmin (answer)

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43
Q
  1. child with history of bed wetting though toilet trained.investigations done.at one side duplication of ureter was found and one of them was opening in vagina.what is the cause
A

a. early division of ureteric bud

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44
Q

difference b/w sarcoma and carcinoma

a. pleomorphism
b. inc vascularity

A

b.

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45
Q
  1. coal minning,sand blaster.lon|Achg scenario
    a. asbestosis
    b. silicosis
    d. anthracosis
A

b. silicosis (answer)

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46
Q
  1. turner syndrome
    a. AR
    b. AD
    c. gynaecomastiaa
    d. short stature
A

d. short stature (answer)

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47
Q
  1. which cell organelle contain double membrane
    a. nucleolus
    b. golgi apparatus
    c. ribosomes
    d. RER
A

d. RER (answer-??)

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48
Q
  1. fisherman with gingival hyperplasia and echymosis.which one is deficcient
    a. vit B12
    b. vit K
    c. vit c
A

c. vit c (answer)

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49
Q
  1. pt on immunosuppresents.abscess is formed on upper outerr half of arm.after drainage healing process is verry slow though a month hs been passed.reason
    a. dec collagen formation
    b. dec neutophil migration
A

b. dec neutophil migration

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50
Q
  1. which infusion will inc ECF to maximum extent
    a. hypertonic fluid
    b. isotonic fluid
A

a. hypertonic fluid (answer)

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51
Q
  1. steady pressure is detected by
    a. meissners
    b. ruffinis
    c. pacinian
A

b. ruffinis (answer)

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52
Q
  1. pt with AML undergone bonemarrow transplant….pneumonia…histology showing large cells with intrcellular inclusions.cause is
    a. CMV
    b. candida
    c. pneumocystic
A

ans: a I marked

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53
Q
  1. child brought by mother,suffering from diarrhea.on examination,rectal prolapsed
    was found(finaly a hint was given that worm with small anterior end)
    A. entrobius vermicularis
    b. trichuria trichuris
    c. whip worm
A

ans: b

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54
Q
  1. best indicator of venous return
    a. end diastolic vol
    b. end systolic vol
A

ans: a

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55
Q
  1. MI pt after 48 hour,found collapsed,no pulse.on ECG irregular waves were seen.whats the pathophysiology
    a. dec cardiac output
    b. re-entery current
A

ans: I marked b

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56
Q
  1. subcapsular efferent
    a. lymph nodes
    b. spleen
    c. thymus
A

ans: a

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57
Q
  1. alveoli are kept dry because of
    a. alveolar macrophages
    b. tight junction b/w capillaries
    c. surfactants
    d. negative interstitial pressure
A

d

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58
Q
  1. dead space does not change in
    a. shallow breathing
    b. deep inspiration
    c. standing
A

ans: a

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59
Q

anxiety is dec by the activation of which receptors

a. GABAa
b. glutamate
c. glucocorticoid
d. nicotinic cholinergic
e. dopamine

A

a

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60
Q
  1. what is more/high in venous blood as compare to arterial blood
A

a. PCV

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61
Q
  1. cause of fatty liver in our country
    a. hep B and hep C
    b. alcoholism
    c. fatty diet
A

ans: a

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62
Q
  1. primary active transport
    a. pump
    b. carriers
    c. channel proteins
A

ans: a

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63
Q
  1. corona radiata is formed by
    a. granulosa cell
    b. theca interna cells
    c. theca externa cells
A

ans: a

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64
Q
  1. spermiogenesis
    a. primary oocytes form secondary oocytes
    b. secondary oocytes form sperrmatids
    c. spermatidz form spermatozoa
A

ans: c

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65
Q
  1. renal threshold for glucose
    a. 180
    b. 200
    c. 250
    d. 375
A

ans: I marked c

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66
Q
  1. in which condition atrial repolarization is shown on ECG
    a. third degree cmplt heart block
    b. inspiration
    c. during exercise
A

ans: a

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67
Q
  1. on ECG,QRS complex represents
    a. ventricular systole
    b. ventricular depolarization
A

ans: b

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68
Q
  1. which structure binds cytoskeleton with ECM.
    a. proteoglycans
    b. intermediate filaments
    c. integrins
A

ans: a

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69
Q
  1. a tall young girl(child) with history of secretion from breast.on microscopy of anterior pituitary,which cells ar abundant
    a. eosinophilic
    b. basophilic
    c. chromophobes
A

ans: a

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70
Q
  1. which valves are most commonly involved in rheumatic heart disese
A

a. mitral and aortic

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71
Q
  1. pt with muscle weaakness and bilateral ptosis.which investigations you will do
    a. Acetylcholine receptors antibodies
    b. anti smooth muscles antibodies
A

(EMG was not in options)

ans: a

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72
Q
  1. farmer’s lung
    a. sugarcane dust
    b. grain dust
    c. cotton dust
    d. tobacco
A

ans: b

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73
Q
  1. hormone responsible for ductal growth and fat deposition in bresat
    a. progesterone
    b. estrogen
    c. prolactin
A

ans: b

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74
Q
  1. heart rate is 75,PR interval is 0.3.if heart rate becomes 225, what will be the PR interval
    a 0.1
    b 0.9
    c 0.05
A

ans: a

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75
Q
  1. erythropoietin secretion iss inhibited by
    a. cobalt
    b. hypoxia
    c. theophylline
A

ans: c

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76
Q

which is low in csf as compare to plasma

a. Na
b. osmolarity
c. Cl
d. Mg
e. protein

A

ans: e

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77
Q
  1. middle aged man presented with meningitis after having lung abscess
A

9

a. staph aureus

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78
Q

which toxin is responsible for scarlet fever

a. exotoxin
b. erythrogenic
c. endotoxin

A

ans: b

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79
Q

serum sodium is regulated by which type of receptors?

A

a. osmoreceptors

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80
Q
  1. highest sodium channel conc
    a. initial segment
    b. node of ranvir
    c. dendrites
A

ans: b

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81
Q
  1. in chronic liver disease,which histological finding suggests chronicity
    a. fibrosis
    b. councilmann bodies
A

ans: a

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82
Q
  1. which prevents muscle from tearing unde pressure
    a. GTO
    b. muscle spindle
A

ans: a

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83
Q
  1. if right atrial pressure is increased
    a. increases cardiac output
    b. increases intrathrocic pressure
A

ans: a

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84
Q
  1. after adrenalectomy,which is preffered
    a. glucose
    b. NaCl
A

ans: b

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85
Q
  1. in cell mem of RBCs,CL- and HCO3- exchange occurs through
    a. nkyrin
    b. band3
    c. spectrin
A

ans: b

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86
Q
  1. pt with malaise and raised bp,died b/c of hemorrhagic stroke in basal ganglia.on autopsy bilateral small kidneys with petecheal hemorrhages,hyperplastic arteriosclerosis and fibrinoid necrosis.whats the diagnosis
    a. fibromuscular dysplasia
    b. DM type II
    c. systemic sclerosis
    d. NSAID induced
A

c

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87
Q
  1. which one is most pre malignant
    a. compound nevus
    b. intradermal nevuss
    c. seborrhaic keratosis
A

ans: a

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88
Q
  1. presynaptic sympathetic fibers release
    a. ACH
    b. nor epinephrine
    c. dopmine
A

ans: a

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89
Q
  1. saliva prevents iron utilization by microbes via
    a. lactoferrin
    b. lysozymes
A

ans: a

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90
Q
  1. sulfur containing aminoacids
A

a. cystine

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91
Q
  1. diphtheria toxin has sever affect on
    a. heart
    b. brain
A

_a

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92
Q
  1. urine osmolarity 1200(or 1400)plasma sodium 120, whats the cause
A

a. increase ADH

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93
Q

least amount of minerals are found in

a. roots
b. tubers
c. cereal
d. pulses
e. veg(leaves)

A

b. tubers

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94
Q

non smoker,fever for 6 weeks and cough with small amount of blood.on xray “Coin lesion”is seen in upperr lobe

a. small cell carcinoma
b. granulomaa
c. silicosis

A

b. granulomaa

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95
Q
  1. urine concentrated in juxtamedullary nephrons.in which part dilute urine will be present
    a. DCT
    b. CT
    c. thick ascending loop of henle
    d. thin ascending loop of henle
A

ans: c

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96
Q
  1. stab wound of chest,what will happen
    a. ipsilateral lung collapses and ipsilateral chest wall springs out
    b. ipsilateral lung collapses and contralaterl chest wall springs out
A

ans: a

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97
Q
  1. 46 XX pseudohermaphrodite
A

a. adrenogenital syndrome

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98
Q

which factor helps immune system against microbial defense

a. complement system
b. c3b

A

ans: I marked b

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99
Q
  1. occupational carcinoma
    a. tobacco factory worker
    b. silicosis
    c. asbestosis
A

ans: c

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100
Q
  1. sweat glands
    a. not present in palm and sole
    b. innervated by sympathetic nervous system
A

ans: b

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101
Q
  1. Na is major ECF cation.its mostly balanced by which anion
    a. HCO3-
    b. Cl-
A

ans: b

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102
Q
  1. which is more in dialysing fluid as compare to plasma
    a. glucose
    b. HCO3-
A

ans: a

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103
Q
  1. which inhibits stomach emptying
    a. gastrin
    b. CCK
A

ans: b

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104
Q
  1. dec gastric secretions
    a. gastrin
    b. secretin
    c. enterogasterone
A

ans: b

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105
Q
  1. S2 as compared to s1 has
    a. high frequency
    b. longer duration
A

ans: a

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106
Q
  1. in a standing person,venous return from legs i facilitated by
    a. contraction of skeletal muscles
    b. valves in veins
A

ans: a

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107
Q
  1. gastric lymphomas
A

a. H.pylori

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108
Q
  1. median umbilical ligament is remanant of
A

a. urachus

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109
Q
  1. hematocrit
A

a. rbcs+wbcs+platelets

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110
Q
  1. Antibody receptors are
A

a. hypervariable regions of H and L chains

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111
Q
  1. negative mantox test is seen in
A

a. pt taking immunosuppresents

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112
Q
  1. which antiemetic is preffered in pts of chemotherapy
    a. odansterone
    b. metochlopramide
A

ans: a

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113
Q
  1. steady conc of doapmine is achieved in
    a. 9 min
    b. 2 min
A

ans: a

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114
Q
  1. drug interaction
    a. pharmacokinetic only
    b. pharmacodynamic only
A

c. both pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic (answer)

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115
Q
  1. ranitidine is different from cemitidine as
    a. it has less CNS toxicity
    b. less potent
A

a. it has less CNS toxicity (answer)

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116
Q
  1. 0.85% saline contains how much NACL
    a. 850mg/100ml
    b. 85g/L
A

ans: a

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117
Q
  1. vol of distribution is not affected by
    a. age ,
    b. gender
A

b. gender (answer)

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118
Q
  1. histamine releasing opioid
    a. morphine
    b. tramdol
A

a. morphine (answer),

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119
Q
  1. morphine is used in -
    a. biliary colic -
    b. terminal cancer pain
A

b. terminal cancer pain (answer)

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120
Q
  1. thiazide diuretics acts on
A

-a. DCT

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121
Q
  1. antihypertensive acting directly on SA node
    a. verapamil
    b. nifidipine
A

a. verapamil(answer)

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122
Q
  1. mode of action of cephalosporin
    a. dec peptidoglycan synthesis
    b. inhibit transpeptidase
A

b. inhibit transpeptidase (answer)

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123
Q
  1. 2x2 table
A
  • a. chi square
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124
Q
  1. Blood brain barrier is formed by:
    a. Capillary endothelium
    b. Continuous basement membrane
    c. Pericytes
    d. All of above
    e. None of above
A

Ans: a

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125
Q
  1. Total power of the eye is 59 diopters. Main role is maintenance of this power as performed by:
    a. Anterior surface of cornea
    b. Lens
    c. Vitreous Humor
    d. Retina
    e. Posterior surface of cornea
A

Ans: a

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126
Q
  1. In patient with increased bleeding time, what could be the cause of bleeding
    a. Prothrombin Deficiency
    b. Hemophilia – A
    c. Vitamin - K deficiency
    d. Protein - C deficiency
    e. Von Willebrand’s disease
A

Ans: e

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127
Q
  1. What is the nerve supply of tip of nose?
    a. Ophthalmic nerve
    b. maxillary nerve
    c. Mandibular nerve
    d. Fascial nerve
    e. Cervical plexus
A

Ans: a

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128
Q
  1. Parasympathetic stimulation caused:
    a. Bronchodilation
    b. Decreased gut motiilty
    c. Opens intestinal sphincters
    d. Constipation
    e. Tachycardia
A

Ans: c

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129
Q
  1. Which of the following is the site of fusion of binocular vision?
    a. Optic chiasma
    b. Lateral geniculate bodies
    c. Retina
    d. Visual cortex
    e. Optic nerve
A

Ans: d

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130
Q
  1. A newborn baby with hydrocephalus has a swelling in lumbosacral spinal region, which contains
    neural tissue in it. What could be the probable diagnosis of this patient?
    a. Spina bifida
    b. Meningocele
    c. Meningomyelocele
    d. Meningoencephalocele
    e. Meningohydroencephalocele
A

Ans: c

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131
Q
  1. Which of the following is most strong antioxidant?
    a. Glutathone
    b. Vitamin - E
    c. Vitamin - C
    d. Ceruloplasmin
    e. Catalase
A

Ans: a

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132
Q
  1. Most early diagnosis of Vitamin-A deficiency is:
    (a) Bilot spots in cornea
    (b) Night blindness
    (c) Keratomalacia
    (d) Chielosis
    (e) Hyperkeratosis
A

Ans: b

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133
Q
  1. A patient presents with recurrent epistaxis. Investigation receal decreased factors II, VII, IX, X &
    protein-C which of the following is most likely diagnosis of this condition? (a) Christmas disease
    (b) Hemophillia
    (c) Vitamin-K deficiency
    (d) Von willebrands disease
    (e) Liver dysfunction
A

Ans: c

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134
Q
  1. On H & E staining a student sees the hallow structure around the nucleus. What it could be:
    (a) Golgi apparatus
    (b) Lysosomes
    (c) Ribosomes
    (d) Endoplasmic reticulum
    (e) Mitochondria
A

Ans: b

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135
Q
  1. Bitemproral vision loss is most commonly caused by:
    (a) Piuitary tumor
    (b) Crainiopharyngioma
    (c) Adenoma of hypothalamus
    (d) Section of optic tract
    (e) Section of optic nerve
A

Ans: a

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136
Q
  1. A patient has finger like projection on upper lid. Hostopathological report shows epithelial cells
    along with fibrous element. What is most probable diagnosis?
    Option (a) Pappiloma
    Option (b) Basal cell carcinoma
    Option (c) Squamous cell carcinoma
    Option (d) Chalazion
    Option (e) Cellulites
A

Ans: a

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137
Q 
14. Parotid gland supplied by: 
Option (a) GVA 
Option (b) GVE 
Option (c) SVE 
Option (d) SVA 
Option (e) GSA
A

Ans: b

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138
Q 
15. Primary malignant melanoma of the choroids most commonly metastasizes to: 
Option (a) Liver 
Option (b) Lungs 
Option (c) Brain 
Option (d) Kidneys Option (e) Breast
A

Ans: a

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139
Q
  1. A patient develops sensory loss over left side of body. After few days his behavior for pain is
    changed & he become angry after touching. Where could be the lesion in brain
    Option (a) Right thalamus
    Option (b) Internal capsule
    Option (c) Cerebral cortex
    Option (d) Basal ganglia
    Option (e) Midbrain
A

Ans: a

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140
Q
  1. A middle aged male has non-healing wound for long time in presence of regular dressing, random
    blood sugar is 130 mg/dl. What could be the cause of delayed healing in this patient
    Option (a) Infection
    Option (b) Diabetes mellitus
    Option (c) High mobility
    Option (d) Foreign body in wound
    Option (e) Vascular insufficiency
A

Ans: e

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141
Q 
18. In a patient with sympathetic stimulation, what effect will occur on his heart? 
Option (a) Decreased rate 
Option (b) Coronary vasoconstriction 
Option (c) Hyperpolarization of SA node 
Option (d) Decreased AV nodal delay 
Option (e) Decreased stroke volume
A

Ans: d

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142
Q 
19. Which of the following is diagnostic of granuloma? 
Option (a) Giant cells 
Option (b) Epithliod cells 
Option (c) Multinucleated cells 
Option (d) Fibroblasts 
Option (e) Caseation
A

Ans: b

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143
Q
  1. Medial orbitotomey is done in a patient with tumor in orbit. Now he is complaining of numbness at
    upper part of head up to vertex & medial part but medial part is intact. Which of the following nerves is
    damaged? Option (a) Supraorbital nerve
    Option (b) Supratrochlear nerve
    Option (c) Superior orbital nerve
    Option (d) Inferior orbital nerve
    Option (e) Fascial nerve
A

Ans: a

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144
Q
  1. In inferior wall Myocardial Infraction, which artery should be blocked
    Option (a) :Left marginal artery
    Option (b) :Diagonal artery
    Option (c) :Right coronary artery
    Option (d) :Right marginal artery
    Option (e) :Posterior Interventricular artery
A

Ans: d

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145
Q 
22. Oxygen level in the blood will decrease in: 
Option (a) :Hypovolumic shock 
Option (b) :Anemic Hypoxia 
Option (c) :Hypoxic Hypoxia 
Option (d) :Congestive Heart Failure 
Option (e) :Acidosis
A

Ans: c

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146
Q 
23. A male patient has antibodies against FSH RECEPTORS. Which of the following will be lower than 
normal in this patient? 
Option (a) :LDL cholesterol 
Option (b) :Hemoglobin 
Option (c) :Sperm count 
Option (d) :Blood Sugar 
Option (e) :Triglycerides
A

Ans: c

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147
Q 
24. Brucellosis is Transmitted by 
Option (a) :Files 
Option (b) :Ras Fish 
Option (c) :Unpasteurized Milk 
Option (d) :Air Borne 
Option (e) :Blood Transfusion
A

Ans: c 25. week pregnant women has Irregular Ulterine Contractions. Which of following drugs will be
beneficial for this lady.

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148
Q 
Option (a) :Progesterone 
Option (b) :Estrogen 
Option (c) :Prolactin 
Option (d) :Oxytocin 
Option (e) :LH
A

Ans: d

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149
Q
  1. The Diagnostic finding on investigations of Metabolic Alkalosis is:
    Option (a) :HCO3 more then 24meq/L
    Option (b) :CO2 more then 24meq/L
    Option (c) :PH less than 7.4
    Option (d) :Decreased O2 in blood
    Option (e) :Increase serum carbonic anhydrase
A

Ans: a

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150
Q
  1. A 6 cm Lump in the breast removed. Four Lymp nodes & skin were involved. Biopsy declared
    invasive Dectal Carcinoma. This tumor is called HIGH-GRADE because:
    Option (a) :Lymph node involvement
    Option (b) :Skin involvement
    Option (c) :Size of tumor
    Option (d) :Pleomorphism
    Option (e) :Duct involvement
A

Ans: d

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151
Q
  1. Which of the following is the characteristic of lgM?
    Option (a) :It provides mucosal barrier
    Option (b) :It is in highest concentration in serum
    Option (c) :It is smallest molecule
    Option (d) :It is largest Molecule
    Option (e) :It crosses the placenta
A

Ans: d

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152
Q 
29. Which of following structures in the mouth is derived from Ectoderm? Option (a) :Epithelium of the tongue 
Option (b) :Submandibular gland 
Option (c) :Mylohyoid muscle 
Option (d) :Epithelium of parotid gland 
Option (e) :Tonsil
A

Ans: d

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153
Q
  1. A young patient’s blood pressure is 150/95. his serum Rennin level is higher than normal. Which of
    the following is the STIMULUS for this increased level of rennin?
    Option (a) :Essential hypertension
    Option (b) :Increased delivery of sodium to Renal tubules
    Option (c) :Increased sympathetic stimulation via Renal nerves
    Option (d) :Vasodilatation of Renal arterioles
    Option (e) :Increased blood flow to the kidneys
A

Ans: c

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154
Q 
31, A young women, complains of Dry mouth & Dry eyes. Which investigation will give clue to her 
diagnosis 
Option (a) :ANA 
Option (b) :Anti-ANA 
Option (c) :RA factor 
Option (d) :Anti - SS A/B 
Option (e) :ANCA
A

Ans: d

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155
Q
  1. Regarding SA Node:
    Option (a) :Its resting membrane potential is - 65 to -85 volts
    Option (b) :It automatically generates impulses, creating rhythmic heartbeat
    Option (c) :Its membrane is impermeable to Na ions
    Option (d) :It is supplied by left coronary artery
    Option (e) :It lies in the septum
A

Ans: b

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156
Q
  1. During the stretch in the Skeletal Muscle, which of the following changes will occur in the Nuclear
    Bag fiber?
    Option (a) :They increase impulse generation
    Option (b) :They remain static
    Option (c) :They decrease impulse generation
    Option (d) :They increase oscillation
    Option (e) :They inhibit muscle contraction
A

Ans: a

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157
Q 
34. which of the following structures is produced in 3rd week of development? 
Option (a) :Thyroid gland 
Option (b) :Parathyroid gland 
Option (c) :Genital ridge 
Option (d) :Heart tube 
Option (e) Tonsil
A

Ans: d

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158
Q 
35. Antibodies are produced by: 
Option (a) :Lymphocytes 
Option (b) Plasma cells 
Option (c) T-Cells 
Option (d) :Neutrophils 
Option (e) Endothelium
A

Ans: b

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159
Q 
36. Pulmonary Artery pressure increases in: 
Option (a) :Exercise 
Option (b) :Hypoxia 
Option (c) :Anemia 
Option (d) :Hypovolumic Shock 
Option (e) :Hypertension
A

Ans: b

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160
Q
  1. Defect in the formation of Bulbus Cordis result in all of following EXCEPT?
    Option (a) :ASD
    Option (b) :VSD
    Option (c) :Hypertrophy of right ventricle
    Option (d) :Congenital cyanosis
    Option (e) :Transposition of great vessels
A

Ans: a

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161
Q
  1. Regarding the vibration Sense all are correct EXCEPT:
    Option (a) :It is lost in Diabetes
    Option (b) :Its fibers are traveling in the dorsal columns
    Option (c) :Its receptor is Pacinian Corpuscle Option (d) :Its receptor is Meissener’s corpuscle
    Option (e) :Is highly correspond to the bony portions
A

Ans: d

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162
Q
  1. A patient with aplastic anemla is given Anti Lymphocytic Globulin (ALG). One week later he develops
    Skin rashes, mechanism for presentation?
    Option (a) :Arthus reaction
    Option (b) :Type - I Hypersensitivity
    Option (c) :Type - II Hypersensitivity
    Option (d) :Type - III Hypersensitivity
    Option (e) :Type - IV Hypersensitivity
A

Ans: d

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163
Q 
40. The most common site of Fertilization in humans is: 
Option (a) :Ovary 
Option (b) :Uterus 
Option (c) :Fallopian tube 
Option (d) :Cervix 
Option (e) :Peritoneal cavity
A

Ans: c

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164
Q 
41. Patients comes with deviation of tongue to right side. Decreased sense of touch and vibrations, the 
artery commonly involved in brain is: 
Option (a) :PICA 
Option (b) :AICA 
Option (c) :Anterior Spinal 
Option (d) :Posterior Cerebral 
Option (e) :Superior Cerebral Artery
A

Ans: c

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165
Q 
42. Most common site of malignancy in patients suffering from nuclear outbreak 
Option (a) :Haematopoietic 
Option (b) :Thyroid 
Option (c) :Lung 
Option (d) :Breast 
Option (e) :Bones
A

Ans: a

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166
Q
  1. Least common site for ectopic pregnancy would be at:
    Option (a) :Ovaries Option (b) :Pouch of douglus
    Option (c) :Greater omentum
    Option (d) :Fallopian tubes
    Option (e) :Cervix
A

Ans: a

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167
Q 
44. Most sensitive cells to hypoxia are 
Option (a) :RBCs 
Option (b) :Neurons 
Option (c) :Nephrons 
Option (d) :WBCs 
Option (e) :Platelets
A

Ans: b

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168
Q 
45. Following is not a tumor marker: 
Option (a) :PALP 
Option (b) :CEA 
Option (c) :bHCG 
Option (d) :AFP 
Option (e) :Acid Phospatase
A

Ans: e

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169
Q 
46. tyrosine derivative does not include: 
Option (a) :TSH 
Option (b) :Adrenaline 
Option (c) :Nor adrnaline 
Option (d) :Prolactin 
Option (e) :Dopamine
A

Ans: d

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170
Q 
47. Organ having least chances of infarction: 
Option (a) :Lungs 
Option (b) :Heart 
Option (c) :Kidneys 
Option (d) :Liver 
Option (e) :Spleen
A

Ans: d

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171
Q
  1. Least chances of renal stones is associated with:
    Option (a) :Hyperlipidemia Option (b) :Hyper PTH
    Option (c) :Hyper vit.D
    Option (d) :Infections
    Option (e) :Hyperurecemia
A

Ans: a

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172
Q
  1. Patient with injury to left 8th cervical segment of spinal cord will not show following sign:
    Option (a) :Decreased sense of position
    Option (b) :Vibration below lesion on same side
    Option (c) :Extensor plantar on left side
    Option (d) :Dec power of muscles below the lesion on same side
    Option (e) :Dec sense of pain and temperature below the lesion on same side
A

Ans: e

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173
Q 
50. Patient with bone pains having normal Ca, inc Alkaline phosphatase. Most likely suffering from: 
Option (a) :Pagets disease 
Option (b) :Hyper PTH 
Option (c) :Hyper Vit D, 
Option (d) :Bone mets 
Option (e) :Osteomalacia
A

Ans: a

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174
Q 
51. Bile salts are reabsorbed from the: 
Option (a) :Duodenum 
Option (b) :Jejunum 
Option (c) :Ileum 
Option (d) Colon 
Option (e) Rectum
A

Ans: c

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175
Q 
52. In Turner syndrome, the genotype would be: 
Option (a) :XX 
Option (b) :XO 
Option (c) :XXY 
Option (d) :XY 
Option (e) :XYY
A

Ans: b

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176
Q 
53. Presence of pancreatic tissue in gastric mucosa is termed as: 
Option (a) :Hamartoma 
Option (b) :Metaplasia 
Option (c) :Neoplasia 
Option (d) :Choriostoma 
Option (e) :Dysplasia
A

Ans: d

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177
Q 
54. Patient with old history of adenocarcinoma of colon operated for polypectomy, on histologic 
evaluation pathologist labelled it as benign growth with no chances into malignant transformation, it 
would be: 
Option (a) :FAP 
Option (b) :Villous adenoma 
Option (c) :Tubular adenoma 
Option (d) :Tubulovillous 
Option (e) :Metaplastic polyps
A

Ans: c

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178
Q 
55. Man in suffering from testicular Carcinoma, the lympahtic drainage of testicle is into 
Option (a) :Para aortic Lymph nodes 
Option (b) :Pre aortic 
Option (c) Superficial inguinal 
Option (d) :Internal iliac 
Option (e) :External iliac Lymph nodes
A

Ans: a

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179
Q 
56. Mesothelioma is associated with: 
Option (a) :Vinyl chloride 
Option (b) :Silica 
Option (c) :Asbestos 
Option (d) :Copper dust 
Option (e) :Carbon
A

Ans: c

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180
Q 
57. Foetal period starts after which week: 
Option (a) :11th 
Option (b) :8th 
Option (c) :12th 
Option (d) :16th 
Option (e) :21st
A

Ans: b

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181
Q 
58. Soldier comes with heavy bleeding. The ideal fluid replacement would be: 
Option (a) :Packed RBCs 
Option (b) :Crystallines 
Option (c) :Colloids 
Option (d) :Whole blood for 3 days 
Option (e) :Whole blood for 18 days
A

Ans: d

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182
Q 
59. Vertebrae is derived from : 
Option (a) :Myotome 
Option (b) :Sclerotome 
Option (c) :Dermatome 
Option (d) :Ectoderm 
Option (e) :Endoderm
A

Ans: b

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183
Q 
60. Largest total cross-sectional and surface area is of: 
Option (a) :Artery 
Option (b) :Arterioles 
Option (c) :Capillaries 
Option (d) :Venules 
Option (e) :Veins
A

Ans: c

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184
Q 
61. Esophagus histology 
Option (a) :Covered by squamous ep 
Option (b) :Has str. sq in upper 1/3 
Option (c) :Has str. sq in lower 1/3 
Option (d) :Has 3 layers of muscles 
Option (e) :Esophageal opening acting as anatomical sphincter
A

Ans: b

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185
Q 
62. Structures entering thorasic inlet 
Option (a) :Accessory nerve 
Option (b) :Aorta 
Option (c) :Superior vena cava 
Option (d) :Azygous Vein 
Option (e) :Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
A

Ans: b

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186
Q 
63. Example of carrier mediated counter transport: 
Option (a) Na - glucose transport 
Option (b) :Active transport 
Option (c) :Passive transport 
Option (d) :H transport 
Option (e) :Diffusion
A

Ans: a

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187
Q 
64. Alpha recptors effects 
Option (a) :Inc HR 
Option (b) :Lipogenesis 
Option (c) :Midriasis 
Option (d) :Piloerector contraction 
Option (e) :Bronchodilator
A

Ans: c

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188
Q 
65. Hypoglycemia increases 
Option (a) :SSK 
Option (b) :Somatostatin 
Option (c) :Gastrin 
Option (d) :VIP 
Option (e) :Secretin
A

Ans: e

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189
Q
  1. Cushing’s triad:
    Option (a) :Inc ICP, HTN, Bradycardia
    Option (b) :Inc ICP, hypoTN, Bradycardia
    Option (c) :Inc ICP, hypoTN, Tachycardia
    Option (d) :Inc ICP, HTN, Tachycardia
    Option (e) :Dec ICP, HTN, Tachycardia
A

Ans: a

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190
Q 
67. Somatostatin dec sec of which hormone 
Option (a) :ADH 
Option (b) :Insulin 
Option (c) :Oxytocin 
Option (d) :Prolactin 
Option (e) :Thyroid hormone
A

Ans: b

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191
Q 
68. Digoxin toxicity 
Option (a) :Inc K 
Option (b) :Inc Mg 
Option (c) :Dec Ca 
Option (d) :Dec Na 
Option (e) :Alkalosis
A

Ans: e

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192
Q
  1. Following is true regarding sterilization:
    Option (a) :Repeated heating denatures polyvencyl tubings
    Option (b) :Autoclaving is heating objects at 121 degC at 15 psi for 3min
    Option (c) :Radiation (UV light)
    Option (d) :Dry heat
    Option (e) :Formaldehyde
A

Ans: b

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193
Q 
70. Pt complains of chest pain for more than 30 min. ECG shows changes in V1-V4. It denotes: 
Option (a) :Anterior wall MI 
Option (b) :Anterolateral MI 
Option (c) :Inferior wall MI 
Option (d) :Lateral wall MI 
Option (e) :Inferior wall MI
A

Ans: a

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194
Q 
71. Depolarization of cell is maintained by: 
Option (a) :Na influx 
Option (b) :Ca efflux 
Option (c) :Ca influx 
Option (d) :K influx 
Option (e) :Na efflux
A

Ans: a

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195
Q 
72. Spinal cord ends at the level of lower border of: 
Option (a) :L2 vertebra 
Option (b) :L3 vertebra 
Option (c) :L4 vertebra 
Option (d) :L5 vertebra 
Option (e) :S1 vertebra
A

Ans: a

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196
Q 
73. Hyperoxia. All true except 1. Option (a) :Retrolental fibroplasia 
Option (b) :Atelectasis 
Option (c) Dec surfactant prod 
Option (d) :CV depression 
Option (e) :Anemia
A

Ans: e

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197
Q 
74. Pacinian corpuscles related to 
Option (a) :Touch 
Option (b) :Vibration 
Option (c) :Pressure 
Option (d) :Rapidly adapting pain 
Option (e) :Slowly adapting pain
A

Ans: b

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198
Q 
75. Drug that inc extracellular K (moves K out of the cell): 
Option (a) :Angiotensin 
Option (b) H2CO3 
Option (c) :Carbonic anhydrase 
Option (d) :pH 
Option (e) :Exercise
A

Ans: a

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199
Q 
76. Thirst is decreased by: 
Option (a) :ADH 
Option (b) :Aldosterone 
Option (c) :Ag II 
Option (d) :Baroreceptor efferent 
Option (e) :Inc Hematocrit
A

Ans: d

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200
Q 
77. Muscle of quiet inspiration 
Option (a) :Diaphragm 
Option (b) :Rectus abdominis 
Option (c) :Internal intercostals 
Option (d) :innermost intercostals 
Option (e) :External intercostals
A

Ans: a

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201
Q 
78. Dry mouth increases all except Option (a) :Thrist 
Option (b) :ADH 
Option (c) :Ag II 
Option (d) :Plasma osmolarity 
Option (e) :Plasma vol
A

Ans: e

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202
Q 
79. Gastric acid is stimulated by: 
Option (a) :Gastrin 
Option (b) :CCK 
Option (c) :Secterin 
Option (d) :GIP 
Option (e) :VIP
A

Ans: a

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203
Q 
80. Which of the following fungi produce life threatening infection in patients with diabetics 
ketoacidosis? 
Option (a) :Candida Albicans 
Option (b) :Histoplasmosis 
Option (c) :Mucor 
Option (d) :Aspergillus 
Option (e) :Blastomycosis
A

Ans: c

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204
Q
  1. A patient has non-reactive HBs Ag, non reactive HBe Ag & reactive anti HBc Ab. This stages of
    patient indication what?
    Option (a) :Acute infection
    Option (b) :Carrier
    Option (c) :Transient resolving stage of hepatitis
    Option (d) :Immunized
    Option (e) :Chronic active disease
A

Ans: c

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205
Q 
82. A Patient has enlaged parotid gland with pain in this region. Which nerve is carrying pain fibers from 
the parotid gland? 
Option (a) :Auricuolotemporal nerve 
Option (b) :Glossopharyngeal nerve 
Option (c) :Fascial Nerve 
Option (d) :Temporal nerve 
Option (e) :Greater auricular nurve
A

Ans: a

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206
Q
  1. A Patient has anemia, hyper-segmented Neutrophils on peripheral blood examination & neurological
    manifestations. Which type of anemia he is suffering from?
    Option (a) :Folic acid deficiency anemia
    Option (b) :Iron deficiency anemia
    Option (c) :Pernicious anemia
    Option (d) :Thalasemia
    Option (e) :Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
A

Ans: c

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207
Q
  1. A young child has increased BP in upper limbs while decreased BP in lower limbs. Pulse in also
    week. What is the probable diagnosis?
    Option (a) :Preductal coarctation of aorta
    Option (b) :V.S.D
    Option (c) :Patent ductus arteriosus
    Option (d) :Postductal coarctation of aorta
    Option (e) :Transposition of great vessels
A

Ans: d

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208
Q 
85. In case of typhoid fever of 06 days. Which investigation is of first choice? 
Option (a) :Widal test 
Option (b) :Blood culture 
Option (c) :Typhi dot test 
Option (d) :Bone marrow culture 
Option (e) :Urine culture
A

Ans: b

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209
Q 
86. In a patient with diabetes, which is the best antihypertensive drug 
Option (a) :Captopril 
Option (b) :Diuretic 
Option (c) :Varapamil 
Option (d) :Propranolol 
Option (e) :Diltiazim
A

Ans: a

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210
Q 
87. Urine Examination of a patient with diabetes demonstrates. Ketone-bodies. What is the mechanism 
of formation of these ketone-bodies? 
Option (a) :Insulin deficiency 
Option (b) :Hyperglycemia 
Option (c) :Defective fat metabolism 
Option (d) :Hypoalbubinemia 
Option (e) :Defective glucose metabolism
A

Ans: a

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211
Q 
88. After giving blood transfusion, a patient develops hypersensitivity reaction. Which type of 
hypersensitivity reaction is this? 
Option (a) :Type I Hypersensitivity 
Option (b) :Type II Hypersensitivity 
Option (c) :Type III Hypersensitivity 
Option (d) :Type IV Hypersensitivity 
Option (e) :A.D.C.C
A

Ans: b

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212
Q 
89. A Patient develps lesion in the Caudate nucleus. Which is most common clinical feature Indicating 
this lesion? 
Option (a) :Chorea 
Option (b) :Intentional Tremor 
Option (c) :Resting Tremor 
Option (d) :Hemiplagia 
Option (e) :Nystygmus
A

Ans: a

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213
Q 
90. Heme Binds with 
Option (a) :Albumin 
Option (b) :Globulin 
Option (c) :Hemopexin 
Option (d) :Heptoglobin 
Option (e) :Macroglobulin
A

Ans: d

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214
Q 
91. Best pulmonary function test for the asthma is: 
Option (a) :FEV - 1 
Option (b) :Residual volume 
Option (c) :Tidal volume 
Option (d) :Vital capacity 
Option (e) :Inspiratory capacity
A

Ans: a

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215
Q
  1. A pregnant lady develops pain few hours after delivery. E.C.G. shows S1, Q3 and T3. What is another
    investigation most appropriate for the diagnosis of this case?
    Option (a) :RF
    Option (b) :X-Ray
    Option (c) :Gallium Scan
    Option (d) :CPK
    Option (e) :Ultrasound
A

Ans: c

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216
Q 
93. In a patient diarrhea are corrected after the fasting. Which is most likely type of diarrhea? 
Option (a) :Infectious 
Option (b) :Psychogenic 
Option (c) :Osmotic 
Option (d) :Metabolic 
Option (e) :Toxic
A

Ans: c

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217
Q
  1. A diabetic Patient is advised fasting blood glucose level. At what value doctor is confusing & needs
    further evaluation with glucose tolerance test?
    Option (a) :04 m mol / 1
    Option (b) :05 m mol / 1
    Option (c) :07 m mol / 1
    Option (d) :10 m mol / 1
    Option (e) :15 m mol / 1
A

Ans: c

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218
Q
  1. A patient has Aphasia & Facial nerve palsy on same side. Which artery is most likely blocked?
    Option (a) :Anterior cerebral artery
    Option (b) :Posterior cerebral artery
    Option (c) :Middle cerebral artery
    Option (d) :Anterior division of middle cerebral artery
    Option (e) :Posterior division of middle cerebral artery
A

Ans: c

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219
Q 
96. A young female is having Goiter. She feels difficulty in breathing while lying down. Which type of the 
goiter she is having? 
Option (a) :Retrosternal goiter 
Option (b) :Malignant goiter 
Option (c) :Toxic goiter 
Option (d) :Diffuse goiter 
Option (e) :Simple goiter
A

Ans: a

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220
Q 
97. Regarding L & D sugars 
Option (a) :D sugar has - OH on right 
Option (b) :L sugar has - OH on right 
Option (c) :D sugar has - OH on left 
Option (d) :D sugar has no - OH 
Option (e) :L sugar has no – OH
A

Ans: a

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221
Q 
98. Councilman bodies are formed in the process of 
Option (a) :Infection 
Option (b) :Apoptosis 
Option (c) :Trauma 
Option (d) :Necrosis 
Option (e) :Atrophy
A

Ans: b

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222
Q
  1. A middle aged male presents with joint pain since one week. His serum Uric Acid level is 156 mg/dl.
    What is the best investigation for confirmation of the disases?
    Option (a) :R.F
    Option (b) :Synovial fluid for polarized light
    Option (c) :Synovial fluid for Culture & Sensitivity
    Option (d) :X-Ray of joint.
    Option (e) :E.S.R
A

Ans: b

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223
Q
  1. A patient comes to you in ill condition. His blood pH is 7.3 PCO2 is 44 mmHg & HCO3 is 17 meq/L.
    What diagnosis you are thinking of this patient?
    Option (a) :Metabolic alkalosis
    Option (b) :Metabolic acidosis
    Option (c) :Respiratory acidosis
    Option (d) :Compensatory acidosis
    Option (e) :Compensatory alkalosis
A

Ans: b

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224
Q 
101. During general anaesthesia Halothane is given in combination with which of the following drugs? 
Option (a) :Thiopentone 
Option (b) :Nitric oxide 
Option (c) :Enfluran 
Option (d) :Phenobarbital 
Option (e) Ketamine
A

Ans: b

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225
Q 
102. Most common cause of the pelvic inflammatory disease is? 
Option (a) :Gonococcus 
Option (b) :Chlamydia 
Option (c) :Anaerobes 
Option (d) :Candida albicans 
Option (e) :E-coli
A

Ans: b

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226
Q
  1. A lady received DES during pregnancy for prevention of the abortion. Her baby will be on the risk of:
    Option (a) :Small cell of carcinoma
    Option (b) :Squamous cell carcinoma
    Option (c) :Carcinoma of endometrium
    Option (d) :Clear cell carcinoma of Vagina
    Option (e) :Uterine fibroid
A

Ans: d

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227
Q 
104. Prenatal chromosomal abnormality can be detected at: 
Option (a) :Booking 
Option (b) :10-12 weeks 
Option (c) :14-18 weeks 
Option (d) :After 20 weeks 
Option (e) :In second trimester
A

Ans: c

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228
Q 
105. Secondary Hyperaldosteronism can occur due to: 
Option (a) :Increased rennin 
Option (b) :Decreased rennin 
Option (c) :Increased potassium 
Option (d) :Decreased potassium 
Option (e) :Hypertension
A

Ans: a

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229
Q

106All of the following mechanisms are involved in development of diabetic gangrene EXCEPT?
Option (a) :Trophic changes due to peripheral neuritis
Option (b) :Arterioscierosis leading to reduced blood flow to foot
Option (c) :Decreased neutrophil motility
Option (d) :Excess sugar in tissues leads to reduced resistance to infection especially fingal infection
Option (e) :Anaerobic infection is commonly encountered in this disease

A

Ans: b

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230
Q
  1. A patient presents with dislocation of hip after an accident. Which of the following muscle group is
    involved?
    Option (a) :Gluteus Maximus + Minimus + Medius
    Option (b) :Only Gluteus medius
    Option (c) :Only Gluteus Maximus
    Option (d) :Gluteus Maximus + Medius
    Option (e) :Only Gluteus Minimus
A

Ans: a

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231
Q 
108. A patient has history of recurrent abortion. Which of the following enzyme analysis will give help to 
diagnosis? 
Option (a) :Estrogen 
Option (b) :Progesterone 
Option (c) :L.H & F.S.H 
Option (d) :H.C.G 
Option (e) :Testosterone
A

Ans: b

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232
Q
  1. A patient presents with secondary amenorrhea. One year back she has history of P.P.H for that she
    received six pints of blood what is most probable caused of her menstrual problem?
    Option (a) :Pituitary Tumor
    Option (b) :Sheehan’s syndrome
    Option (c) :Addison’s disease
    Option (d) :Adrenal cortex adenoma
    Option (e) :Psychological problem
A

Ans: b

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233
Q 
110. A patient presents with recurrent Rhinitis with Urticaria & Rashes. Which of the following is most 
probably diagnosis? 
Option (a) :Type - I Hypersensivity 
Option (b) :Type - II Hypersensivity 
Option (c) :Viral Infection 
(d) :Arthus Reaction 
Option (e) :Cell mediated reaction
A

Ans: a

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234
Q 
111. A 60 years old women is brought with bleeding per vagina. She is diabetic & hypertensive & one 
year back she was diagnosed as having carcinoma of breast. What can be most probable diagnosis for 
this bleeding p/v? 
Option (a) :Carcinoma of colon 
Option (b) :Carcinoma of endometrium 
Option (c) :Endometrial Hyperplasia 
Option (d) :Carcinoma of cervix 
Option (e) :Cervical erosion
A

Ans: a

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235
Q
  1. A Patient is suffering from carcinoma of rectum. He develops pain in the posterior aspect of thing
    due to involvement of nerve. Which nerve supplies the posterior aspect of thigh & that can be involved in
    the malignancy of rectum?
    Option (a) :Lumbosacral trunk
    Option (b) :Sacral nerves
    Option (c) :Obturator nerve
    Option (d) :Superior hypo gastric plexus
    Option (e) :Inferior hypo gastric plexus
A

Ans: b

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236
Q
  1. A semiconscious patient is brought to emergency department. He has history of taking some
    unknown drug. NaHCO2 reverses the action of drug. Which drug he has most likely taken?
    Option (a) :Phenobarbital
    Option (b) :Phenothiazine
    Option (c) :Morphine
    Option (d) :Diazepam
    Option (e) :Alcohal
A

Ans: a

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237
Q
  1. A lady with 26 weeks gestation has uterine height of 24 weeks. On sonography there is no fetus &
    snowstorm appearance. Which of the following probably associate with it?
    Option (a) :Choriocarcinoma
    Option (b) :Karyotype-46XX
    Option (c) :47XX
    Option (d) :69XXX
    Option (e) :45XO
A

Ans: b

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238
Q 
115. Normal female pelvis has: 
Option (a) :Deeper inlet 
Option (b) :Inturned spine 
Option (c) :Narrow outlet 
Option (d) :Round outlet 
Option (e) :Oval inlet
A

Ans: e

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239
Q 
116. The ascent of horse shoe shaped kidney is prevented by: 
Option (a) :External iliac artery 
Option (b) :Internal iliac artery 
Option (c) :Superior mesenteric artery 
Option (d) :inferior vena cava 
Option (e) :inferior mesenteric artery
A

Ans: e

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240
Q 
117. Which of the following is characteristic of polycystic ovary disease: 
Option (a) :Increased L.H 
Option (b) :Increased F.S.H 
Option (c) :Decreased L.H 
Option (d) :Decreased F.S.H 
Option (e) :No change in hormones
A

Ans: a

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241
Q
  1. A 20 - Week pregnant lady has blood pressure 140/95. She complains of vomiting & headache.
    What is the probable diagnosis of the condition?
    Option (a) :Appendicitis
    Option (b) :Pregnancy induced hypertension
    Option (c) :Oligohydramnios
    Option (d) :Raised intracranialpressure
    Option (e) :Pregnancy induced DM
A

Ans: b

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242
Q
  1. Which cranial nerves carry parasympathetic fibers?
    Option (a) :Third, Fourth, Ninth, Tenth
    Option (b) :Third, Fourth, Fifth, Ninth
    Option (c) :Second, Fourth, Fifth, Ninth
    Option (d) :Third, Seventh, Ninth, Tenth
    Option (e) :Fifth, Sixth, Tenth, Eleventh
A

Ans: d

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243
Q
  1. Milk is notoriously deficient in
    (a) vit A
    (b) Riboflavin
    (c) Iron
    (d) pantothenic acid
    (e) vit C
A

Ans. d

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244
Q 
122. A patient is unable to extend his metacarpophalyngeal joint, abduct and extend his thumb, 
sensation is intact, which nerve is damaged 
Options 
(a) radial nerve 
(b) post interosseous nerve 
(c) ulnar nerve 
(d) median nerve 
(e) musculocutaneous nerve
A

Ans. A

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245
Q
  1. Nerve injured in anterior dislocation of shoulder joint is Options
    (a) musculocutaneous
    (b) axillary
    (c) median
    (d) radial
    (e) suprascapular
A

Ans. A

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246
Q 
120. Patient comes with deviation of tongue to the right side, decreased sense of touch and 
vibration, the artery commonly involved in brain is 
Option 
(a) PICA 
(b) AICA 
(c) anterior spinal 
(d) posterior cerebral 
(e) superior cerebral artery.
A

Ans. C

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247
Q
  1. Potassium is mainly regulated by -
A

Aldosterone.

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248
Q
  1. Tip of scapula at level –
A

T7.

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249
Q
  1. Oblique fissure of the lung at level -
A

T3 to T6 Costochondral.

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250
Q
  1. Decussation of medial lemniscus -
A

Internal Arcuate Fibers.

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251
Q
  1. Superficial temporal artery relation with which nerve -
A

Auriculotemporal nerve.

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252
Q
  1. Correct about Thyroid gland -
A

lymph drainage to deep cervical lymph nodes.

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253
Q
  1. Anemic hypoxia occur in –
A

Methemoglobinemia.

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254
Q
  1. In cerebral circulation brain arteries -
A

Do not anastomose once entered in the brain (controvertial).

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255
Q
  1. Phase 1 of transformation of drug metabolism –
A

Oxidation.

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256
Q
  1. Standard deviation shows -
A

Variability of individual observation.

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257
Q
  1. Counseling in patients is -
A

To help themselves.

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258
Q
  1. A young girl who is going to die and asks you “Am I going to die?” Doctor response should be –
A

“What your parents have told you?”

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259
Q
  1. In whole wheat –
A

Thiamine.

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260
Q
  1. Cholesterol enriched diet –
A

Egg.

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261
Q
  1. Origin of peroxisomes –
A

SER.

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262
Q
  1. Organelle where protein combines with carbohydrates, packed and released -
A

Golgi complex.

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263
Q
  1. Correct about DNA –
A

Euchromatin is transcriptionally active.

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264
Q
  1. ADPKD associated with –
A

Renal failure (vs) Cerebral haemorrhage (controversial) here most probable Renal failure.

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265
Q
  1. Cause of delay in healing –
A

Infections.

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266
Q
  1. PaO2 decreased, PCO2 increased, hydrogen ion increased; manifestation (looked like kind of COPD) –
A

Hypoventilation.

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267
Q
  1. PCO2 31, HCO3 19, pH increased (Metabolic alkalosis scenario) -
A

Hyperventilation

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268
Q
  1. Person with tachycardia, and heat intolerance with low level of TSH, on giving TRH; level of TSH and thyroid hormones increases. Diagnosis –
A

Hyperthyroidism with thyroid problem.

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269
Q
  1. Origin of oxytocin and ADH –
A

Hypothalamus.

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270
Q
  1. Difference between systemic and pulmonary circulation -
A

Low resistance in pulmonary circulation.

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271
Q
  1. Mean systemic filling pressure is regulated by -
A

Venous return.

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272
Q
  1. Systolic pressure is directly related to which one of the following –
A

Renin.

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273
Q
  1. ADH responds to –
A

Osmolarity.

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274
Q
  1. Osmoreceptors –
A

ADH.

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275
Q
  1. Right border of heart on X-ray also visible a part of –
A

SVC.

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276
Q
  1. In MI sensitive cardio marker –
A

Tropinin T.

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277
Q
  1. Diabetic nephropathy investigation -
A

Urine albumin.

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278
Q
  1. Young boy with generalized edema and proteinuria -
A

Lesion of basement membrane.

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279
Q
  1. Lesion of parasympathetic system affects mostly -
A

GI muscles.

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280
Q
  1. Stress hormone of our body -
A

ACTH.

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281
Q
  1. S2 sound heard on -
A

Closure of aortic and pulmonary valve.

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282
Q
  1. A patient with history hemorrhage (trauma) receives a bag stored for 2 weeks mainly contains –
A

RBCs.

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283
Q
  1. Due to inspiration –
A

Decreased negative intrapleural pressure.

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284
Q
  1. Important buffer of blood -
A

HCO3-.

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285
Q
  1. Max increase in ECF due to infusion of -
A

Hypertonic NaCl.

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286
Q
  1. Auscultation of tricuspid valve best heard at –
A

Right lower end of the body of sternum.

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287
Q
  1. GVE vagus nerve for preganglionic fiber arises from –
A

Dorsal nucleus.

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288
Q
  1. Thorn prick in left lower limb caused abscess -
A

Staph aureus.

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289
Q
  1. Diabetic female after abdominal surgery; dyspnea and cough -
A

Pulmonary embolism.

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290
Q
  1. MCC of pulmonary embolism –
A

DVT.

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291
Q
  1. Typhoid fever 1st week test –

46. Typhoid fever 2nd week test –

A

Blood culture

Blood culture and Widal test.

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292
Q
  1. Typical feature of falciparum -
A

Black water fever.

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293
Q
  1. Alcoholic patient with deranged LFTs; on biopsy –
A

Mallory bodies.

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294
Q
  1. Councilman bodies seen in –
A

Apoptosis.

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295
Q
  1. Natural self-defense against tumors –
A

Apoptosis.

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296
Q
  1. P53 gene absent results in -
A

cell survival.

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297
Q
  1. Pain mediator -
A

Bradykinins

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298
Q
  1. Metaplasia –
A

Functional change in cells.

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299
Q
  1. Female with infection of HPV, comes after 2 years, Pap smear shows prominent nucleoli and increased nucleus size –
A

Dysplasia.

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300
Q
  1. Gas exchange occur -
A

Simple squamous epithelial layer

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301
Q
  1. Patient with granulomatous disease, biopsy done. Microscopic finding that suggests TB –
A

Epitheloid cells.

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302
Q
  1. The spindle fibers will decrease in discharge of impulses when -
A

Muscle contracts (vs) When efferent gamma discharge occurs. (controversial) here most probable “muscle contracts”

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303
Q
  1. Diagnosis for leprosy, initial investigation -
A

Nasal scrapping.

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304
Q
  1. Benign neoplasm –
A

Adenoma.

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305
Q
  1. When adrenaline release from medulla, causes vasodilation by acting on -
A

Beta 2 adrenergic receptors.

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306
Q
  1. Increased GFR and increased plasma flow occur due to -
A

Dilation of afferent arteriole.

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307
Q
  1. Characteristic of cerebellar lesion -
A

Dymetria

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308
Q
  1. Emax of a drug depends on –
A

Efficacy

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309
Q
  1. Study in which every person of a population has equal chances of being selected –
A

Random sampling.

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310
Q
  1. Amniocenthesis is done -
A

After 14th weeks.

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311
Q
  1. 1st response against acute inflammation in tissue –
A

Macrophages.

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312
Q
  1. In dark granules containing cells; IgE attaches to –
A

Basophils.

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313
Q
  1. Opsonization -
A

C3b.

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314
Q
  1. Exudate -
A

more than 3g of proteins.

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315
Q
  1. About active transport of drug all are true except -
A

All drugs pass via active transport.

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316
Q
  1. Pulmonary artery supply to –
A

Alveoli.

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317
Q
  1. Muscles of back innervated by -
A

Dorsal rami.

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318
Q
  1. In young boy dyspnea produced on lying -
A

Retrosternal goiter.

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319
Q
  1. Most important cause of bronchogenic cancer –
A

Smoking.

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320
Q
  1. Edema caused by -

77. Edema caused by -

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure.

Lymphatic blockage.

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321
Q
  1. BP 210/180mmHg and creatinine 8% damaged part –
A

Juxtaglomerular apparatus.

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322
Q
  1. BP 210/180mmHg and creatinine 8% damaged part –
A

Juxtaglomerular apparatus.

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323
Q
  1. Female with blood group A, have 2 children; one with O and other with AB, blood group of father is –
A

B.

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324
Q
  1. Genetically true hermaphrodite –
A

XX/XY.

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325
Q
  1. DNA replication occur in –
A

Interphase.

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326
Q
  1. Glycogenolysis caused by deficiency of which hormone -
A

Insulin

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327
Q
  1. Investigation for liver amoebic abscess – .
A

Serology

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328
Q
  1. Surgery of submandibular gland; nerve damaged -
A

marginal mandibular branch of facial.

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329
Q
  1. On posterior surface of oblique and transversalis fascia -
A

Arcuate line.

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330
Q
  1. Aspirin overdose causes –
A

Coma.

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331
Q
  1. Cardiac output measurement via thermodilution –
A

Temperature change downstream with CO.

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332
Q
  1. Father with defective gene on one autosomal chromosome, develops disease later in his life; chances of getting disease in children –
A

Half of the children will be affected.

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333
Q
  1. If left circumflex artery occluded -
A

Infarction of left atrium and left ventricle.

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334
Q
  1. MCC of multiple fractures in adult –
A

Osteoporosis.

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335
Q
  1. Patient with fracture of many bones and low BP immediate treatment -
A

Volume replacement.

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336
Q
  1. Most common fracture of long bone -
A

Tibia.

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337
Q
  1. Collagen fibers –
A

Eosin stain

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338
Q
  1. Gamma efferent supply to –
A

Intrafusal muscle spindles.

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339
Q
  1. Micturition –
A

Self generating.

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340
Q
  1. Hallmark of HIV –
A

Proliferation of virus in T-Cells.

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341
Q
  1. 1g protein gives energy –
A

4 kcalories.

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342
Q
  1. Isotonic and isometric contraction difference is that isotonic contraction –
A

consumes more phosphate bond.

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343
Q
  1. Autonomic nervous system –
A

parasympathetic increase salivary secretion.

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344
Q
  1. Protrusion of mandible –
A

Lateral pterygoid.

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345
Q
  1. After feeding the baby, diarrhea develops –
A

Gastrocolic reflex.

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346
Q
  1. Both sides of 5th posterior intercostal spaces is supplied by -
A

Thoracic aorta.

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347
Q
  1. 2 years old child with medially rotated arm lesion in -
A

Upper trunk.

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348
Q
  1. Female with uterus cancer which travels to labia majora following which route -
A

Round ligament.

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349
Q
  1. Pain in epigastrium due to ulcer, transmitted by -
A

Greater splanchnic nerve.

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350
Q
  1. Vesicular lesion on the tip of nose and eyelid -
A

Ophthalmic nerve.

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351
Q
  1. Patient can’t abduct till 30 degree, which muscle is responsible –
A

Supraspinatus.

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352
Q
  1. Nerve supply to plantar surface of foot -
A

Posterior tibial.

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353
Q
  1. Medial arcuate ligament –
A

Psoas major muscle.

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354
Q
  1. Bitemporal hemianopia due to lesion of -
A

Central part of optic chiasm.

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355
Q
  1. Ventral spinothalamic tract -
A

Coarse touch and pressure.

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356
Q
  1. Dorsal column –
A

Proprioception.

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357
Q
  1. Vibration and touch via -
A

White matter of posterior spinal cord.

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358
Q
  1. Function of notochord -
A

Induction of ectodermal neural plate to produce neural tube.

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359
Q
  1. Midbrain reticular system –
A

Unusual stimulus causes arousal.

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360
Q
  1. Most radiosensitive tumor –
A

Medulloblastoma.

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361
Q
  1. Hormone increased during sleep as compare to at day wakefulness –
A

Cortisol.

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362
Q
  1. In Trigeminal neuralgia anesthesia given to block trigeminal ganglion at which site -
A

Middle cranial fossa.

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363
Q
  1. Patient with intentional tremors and facial paralysis lesion at –
A

Cerebellopontine angle.

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364
Q
  1. Opioids produces vomiting by acting on -
A

Chemo trigger zone in medulla.

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365
Q
  1. Patient working in mine with tuberculin test positive. Cough, fever, weight loss with hilar lymphadenopathy –
A

Silicosis.

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366
Q
  1. Neoplastic cells with continuous mitosis due to persistence of –
A

Telomerase.

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367
Q
  1. During exercise increased blood supply to muscles -
A

Local metabolites.

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368
Q
  1. Action of steroids as anti-inflammatory is due to -
A

Inhibiting phospholipase.

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369
Q
  1. Intermediate filaments staining with immunofluorescence to diagnose –
A

Carcinoma.

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370
Q
  1. VPL nucleus of thalamus when damaged cause –
A

somatosensory loss of contralateral body.

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371
Q
  1. Thiazide diuretic cause –
A

Hypokalemia.

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372
Q
  1. Man living on side of a river, got blindness from nematode; organism -
A

Onchocerca volvulus.

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373
Q
  1. MCC of HTN –
A

Idiopathic.

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374
Q
  1. Adult female with breast atrophy due to decrease in –
A

Estrogen.

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375
Q
  1. Female with hirsutism, galactorrhea, infrequent heavy menstrual cycle. U/S both ovaries with cystic lesions and LH:FSH :
A

: 3:1 - PCOD

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376
Q
  1. Female with hot flushes -
A

Increase FSH and LH.

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377
Q
  1. Injection of atropine will cause -
A

Dryness of mouth.

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378
Q
  1. Female with severe loss of vibration, Investigation of choice -
A

Stomach biopsy.

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379
Q
  1. Child with yellow sclera and colored urine, best Investigation -
A

Bilirubin and ALT.

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380
Q
  1. Female with weakness and lethargy with RBCs 5.5 diameter and very thin red line of RBC in peripheral smear -
A

Microcytic hypochromic anemia.

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381
Q
  1. Monitoring of Hep B –
A

Serum glutamate-pyruvate transaminase.

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382
Q
  1. Female with reactive anti HBe and reactive total anti HBc along with non-reactive HB IgM and non-reactive HepBs Ag -
A

Acute recovery phase.

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383
Q
  1. Patient with obstruction jaundice; now bleeding cause -
A

Vit K deficiency.

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384
Q
  1. Investigation of Hashimoto thyroiditis –
A

Antimicrosomal and anti-thyroglobulin antibodies.

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385
Q
  1. Cimetidine interaction with warfarin causes -
A

Decrease hepatic clearance of warfarin.

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386
Q
  1. Patient using some anti-coagulant, how will you know that anticoagulant is warfarin because it is being monitored by –
A

PT.

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387
Q
  1. BP drops from 100mmHg to 70mmHg –
A

Decrease in carotid sinus nerve activity.

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388
Q
  1. Erythropoietin is secreted via –
A

Mesangial cells.

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389
Q
  1. Patient with all symptoms of Cushing along with increased ACTH cause -
A

Cushing disease.

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390
Q
  1. PaO2 is 100% in -
A

Left to right shunt.

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391
Q
  1. Kallmann syndrome –
A

Gene defect in Kal1 gene.

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392
Q
  1. Diplamotoylphosphatidyl choline + carbohydrate + proteins is a content of –
A

Surfactant.

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393
Q
  1. In asthma -
A

Decrease FEV1.

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394
Q
  1. Splenectomy is most useful in -
A

Hereditary spherocytosis.

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395
Q
  1. Findings in glycogen storage diseases -
A

Hepatomegaly and hypoglycemia.

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396
Q
  1. Corynebacterium diphtheria produces –
A

Exotoxins.

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397
Q
  1. Common specie of Corynebacterium affecting human is –
A

Diphtheriae.

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398
Q
  1. Typical symptom of food intoxication by Clostridium botulinum -
A

Flaccid paralysis.

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399
Q
  1. CSF with increased proteins and polymorphs with decrease glucose the drug of choice –
A

Ceftriaxone.

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400
Q
  1. About the pharmacology of Neiserria gonorrhea -
A

Pencilin G.

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401
Q
  1. Major histocompatibility is related to –
A

HLA.

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402
Q
  1. Kidney is transplanted, gets cyanosed in 10 minutes, type of reaction -
A

Antibody mediated.

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403
Q
  1. A child with Agammaglobulinemia is prone to -
A

Pyogenic infections.

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404
Q
  1. Diagnostic criteria for sarcoma -
A

Increased vascularity (Rabia Ali) / Pleomorphism (Tumor books).

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405
Q
  1. Soldier coming down from height, now with discoloration of fingers, dyspnea -
A

Secondary polycythemia.

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406
Q
  1. Vitamin D acts on intestinal mucosa via -
A

expression of genes.

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407
Q
  1. Release of neurotransmitter due to -
A

Influx of calcium in presynaptic fiber.

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408
Q
  1. Calcium influx via slow channels in ventricle cells causes -
A

Ventricular ejection.

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409
Q
  1. Increased ‘a’ wave in JVP due to -
A

Tricuspid stenosis.

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410
Q
  1. Person with HR 80/min, on ECG RR interval would be -
A

0.75 sec.

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411
Q
  1. Class III Antiarrhythmics –
A

Amiodarone.

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412
Q
  1. Increased ASO titer -
A

Rheumatic fever.

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413
Q
  1. In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy –
A

Myocytes disarray.

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414
Q
  1. 5 month of pregnancy, lady with thyrotoxicosis, drug of choice –
A

Methimazol (2nd & 3rd Trimester) / PTU (1st trimester).

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415
Q
  1. 30 years old smoker, psychotic, vomiting of fluid with visible peristaltic movements on abdomen cause -
A

Pyloric stenosis.

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416
Q
  1. Myenteric system of parasympathetic is potentiated by –
A

Ach.

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417
Q
  1. Pethidine is preferred over Morphine – .
A

Fast acting

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418
Q
  1. Male with fever upper lobe consolidation, fever from last 3, productive cough, AST 135 and ALT 111, alkaline phosphatase normal, bilirubin 10, he died on autopsy weight of liver increase and with fat droplets seen on hepatocytes. Diagnosis -
A

Chronic alcoholic disease.

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419
Q
  1. Alpha 2 macroglobulin inhibit –
A

Trypsin

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420
Q
  1. Highest potential difference in the wall of stomach is when –
A

Aspirin ingestion.

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421
Q
  1. Calculate Alveolar ventilation where Tidal volume is 500ml/respiration.
A

RR 10 - 3500ml/min

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422
Q
  1. Calculate Clearance where Urinary flow 20 ml/min, Concentration of substance in urine 10 and Plasma 10 –
A

20ml/min.

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423
Q
  1. Excessive eversion of foot damaged which structure -
A

Rupture of deltoid ligament.

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424
Q
  1. About descending aorta -
A

starts at T4 on left side.

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425
Q
  1. Counterpart of Mullerin tubercle -
A

Seminal colliculus.

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426
Q
  1. Histology of cornea -
A

Stratified squamous non-keratinized.

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427
Q
  1. Left shift of HbO2 curve -
A

CO poisoning.

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428
Q
  1. Humans are intermediate host in -
A

Hydatid cyst.

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429
Q
  1. Clot retraction is mediated by –
A

Thrombosthenin

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430
Q
  1. In late pregnancy the uterus is most sensitive to –
A

Oxytocin.

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431
Q
  1. About bicep brachialis muscle –
A

attaches to supraglenoid tubercle of scapula.

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432
Q
  1. Hyper-resonance is mostly heard at –
A

T2-T4 of right midclavicular line.

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433
Q
  1. Conus medullaris terminates in neonates at the level of –
A

L3

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434
Q
  1. Cimetidine is used preoperatively –
A

Inhibits H2 receptors competitively.

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435
Q
  1. Nursing mother with herpes labialis, drug of choice –
A

Acyclovir.

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436
Q
  1. PO4 increased, Calcium decreased and PTH increased –
A

Chronic Renal Failure.

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437
Q
  1. Labetalol acts on –
A

Alpha and Beta receptors.

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438
Q
  1. Tumor screening test is for -
A

Early diagnosis of a disease.

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439
Q

DURING EXERCISE:
☆ Inadequate blood supply:
☆ Inadequate O2 delivery:
☆ Minimum change in blood flow:

A

Kidneys
Skeletal muscles
Brain

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440
Q

☆ Estrogen in Reproductive years
☆ Estrogen in pregnancy:
☆ Estrogen in menopause:

A

(when a woman is like a doll)
ESTRADIOL — Doll (di - girl n boy)

ESTRIOL — (tri - mom, dad, child)

ESTRIONE — (one - woman becomes single again)

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441
Q 
Estrogen containing OCPs:
☆ Inc risk of 
High Estrogen containing OCPs:
☆ Inc risk of 
Low Estrogen containing OCPs:
☆ Inc risk of
A

Thromboembolism > Breast CA

endometrial CA

Hepatic Adenoma

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442
Q

1)Best way to measure gfr =
2) best way to estimate gfr =
3) best way to measure renal plasma / blood flow =
4 ) clinically by
5) highest renal clearance =

A

1)Best way to measure gfr =inulin Clearance
2) best way to estimate gfr = creatinine clearance
3) best way to measure renal plasma / blood flow = PAH
4 ) clinically by creatinine
5) highest renal clearance = pah

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443
Q 
ECG
☻P Wave → 
☻ Q → 
☻ R → 
☻ S → 
☻ T → 
☻ U →
A

ECG
☻P Wave → Atrial Depolarization
☻ Q → Septal Depolarization
☻ R → Early Vent. depolarization (potential travelling to apex of vents)
☻ S → Late Vent. depolarization (Potential travelling to base of vents)
☻ T → Vent. repolarization
☻ U → Delayed repolarization of Purkinje system or papillary muscles

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444
Q

☆ Premalignant change in mouth:

☆ Premalignant Condition:

☆ Premalignant Lesion (Most common):

☆ Premalignant Lesion (Most lethal):

☆ Bettlenut chewing:.

A 
☆ Premalignant change in mouth:
Chronic ulcer
☆ Premalignant Condition:
Lichen planus
☆ Premalignant Lesion (Most common):
Leukoplakia
☆ Premalignant Lesion (Most lethal):
Erythroplakia
☆ Bettlenut chewing:.
Submucosal fibrosis
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445
Q

☆ Giant cell —
☆ Osteosarcoma —
☆ Ewing sarcoma —
☆ Osteoblastoma —

A 
GEOMED pneumonic
☆ Giant cell --- Epiphysis
☆ Osteosarcoma --- Metaphysis
☆ Ewing sarcoma --- Diaphysis
☆ Osteoblastoma --- Vertebral bodies
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446
Q

Epiphyseal Lesions:

A

☆ Giant cell tumor
☆ Chondroblastoma
☆ Chondrosarcoma

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447
Q

TYPHOID FEVER INVESTIGATIONS:

  • 1stweek =
  • 2ndweek =
  • 3rdweek =
  • 4thweek =
A 
TYPHOID FEVER INVESTIGATIONS:
MNEMONIC BASU to memorize ie
B=Blood, A=Antibody, S=Stool, U=Urine
-1stweek = blood culture
-2ndweek = antibody/widal
-3rdweek = stool
-4thweek = urine culture
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448
Q

🌟Barbodies diagnostic for……..
🌟Barbodies absent in…………
🌟Scanty Barbodies present in…..
🌟Presence of single barbodies diagonstic for……
🌟Total x chromosome minus one is the number of bar bodies for example in xxx there are 2 bar bodies

A

🌟Barbodies diagnostic for……..Turner
🌟Barbodies absent in…………Turner
🌟Scanty Barbodies present in…..Turnere(because of mosaic pattern)
🌟Presence of single barbodies diagonstic for……Klinefelter’s(as klinefilter ve one barbody…xxy)
🌟Total x chromosome minus one is the number of bar bodies for example in xxx there are 2 bar bodies

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449
Q 
LYSOSOMES:
• Arise from 
• Contain 
• Cause degradation of
• Uterus and breast regress after pregnancy by 
• On H & E stain:
A

LYSOSOMES:
• Arise from Golgi apparatus
• Contain hydrolases
• Cause degradation of unfolded proteins
• Uterus and breast regress after pregnancy by lysosomes
• On H & E stain: hollow structure around nuclei\

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450
Q

PEROXISOMES
• Originate from
• Contain
• membrane

A

PEROXISOMES
• Originate from SER
• Contain OXIDASE, H2O2 AND CATALASE
• Single membrane

451
Q

CENTRIOLE

A

• Microtubules

452
Q 
RER
• Function? 
• Continuous with 
• =
•  of cell
•
A 
RER
• Protein synthesis
• Continuous with nuclear membrane
• =Nissle bodies
• Basophilia of cell
• Absent in axon hillock
453
Q

SER
• Function?
• Giver
• Contain

A

SER
• Detoxification of drugs
• Giver peroxisomes
• Contain Calcium

454
Q

GOLGI COMPLEX
•
• vesicles
• arise here

A

GOLGI COMPLEX
• Binds carbohydrate with protein, enclose them in vesicles and release
• Secretary vesicles
• Lysosomes arise here

455
Q

NUCLEOLUS
•
• Site of

A

NUCLEOLUS
• No limiting membrane
• Site of RNA synthesis and assembly

456
Q

DOUBLE MEMBRANE ORGANELLES

• …>…..>

A

DOUBLE MEMBRANE ORGANELLES

• Nucleus…>Mitochondria…..>Golgi complex

457
Q

CYTOSKELETON

  1. Cytoskeleton which connects ECM to ICM =
  2. Cytoskeleton connected to ECM =
  3. ECM connected to ICM through =
A

CYTOSKELETON

  1. Cytoskeleton which connects ECM to ICM = Intermediate filament
  2. Cytoskeleton connected to ECM = Proteoglycan
  3. ECM connected to ICM through = Integrin
458
Q 
REGARDING THIRST...!!
Thirst Is Is Increased By. .
 \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in Angi0tensin 2
 \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_in blood v0lume
 \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_in osmolarity
 \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_of m0uth.
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_[[in ADH.. .

THIRST is decreased by. .
 \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_distensi0n.
 \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_in ADH,
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_in Angi0tensin2,
 \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_in BP.
 \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_in blood volume.
(Reference Guyton)
A 
REGARDING THIRST...!!
Thirst Is Is Increased By. .
increase in Angi0tensin 2
decrease in blood v0lume
incerease in osmolarity
drynes of m0uth.
Increase in ADH.. .

THIRST is decreasd by. .
Gastric distensi0n.
Decrease in ADH,
Angi0tensin2,
Increase in BP.
Increase in blood volume.
(Reference Guyton)
459
Q

Dialysis mai kiya cheezain increase hoge aur kiya decrease?

A

DIALYSING FLIUD ME SIRF
GLUCOSE AND BICARBONATES INCREASE HUN GAY PLASMA FLUID K MUQABILAY ME …
BAQI SUB KUCH DECREASE HOGA…

460
Q

radiosensitivity

> >

A

radiosensitivity

seminoma > glial glioma > craniopharyngioma

461
Q

♧highest
☆ TG =
☆ cholesterol =
☆ protiens =

A

♧highest
☆ TG = chylomic > VLDL
☆ cholesterol = LDL
☆ protiens = HDL

462
Q

Granuloma===Characteristic cells===

A

Granuloma===Characteristic cells===Epitheloid cells

463
Q

1) Most effectve antiTb drug=
2) Most bactericidal antiTb drug=
3) Most toxic antiTB drug=
4) AntiTb DruG causing rapid sputum conversion=
5) Orange urine=
6) ist to develop resiatnce=
7) Drug contraindicated in all categories of dots=
8) injectble antiTb drug=
9) OPTIC neuritis by=
10) Vestibular damge=
11) Drug with only bacteriostatc=

A

1) Most effectve antiTb drug=Rifampicin
2) Most bactericidal antiTb drug=Rifapicin
3) Most toxic antiTB drug=IsoNiaxid
4) AntiTb DruG causing rapid sputum conversion=Isoniaxid
5) Orange urine=Rifampicin
6) ist to develop resiatnce=ISONIAXID
7) Drug contraindicated in all categories of dots=INH+Rifampicin
8) injectble antiTb drug=Rifampicin
9) OPTIC neuritis by=Ethambutol
10) Vestibular damge=Streptomycin
11) Drug with only bacteriostatc=Ethambutol

464
Q
  1. inferior thyroid artery ligation…
  2. Superior thyroid artery ligation…
  3. Thyroidectomy..
  4. Thyroidectomy with vocal cord damage….
  5. Tracheostomy…
A
  1. inferior thyroid artery ligation…damage recurrent laryngeal nerves
  2. Superior thyroid artery ligation…damage external larngeal
  3. Thyroidectomy…damage external laryngeal
  4. Thyroidectomy with vocal cord damage….damage recurrent laryngeal
  5. Tracheostomy…recurrent laryngeal
465
Q 
☆Pus = penile urethra 
☆Bus = bulbar urethra = 
☆Mud = membranous urethra
A 
☆Pus = penile urethra superfascial pouch/scrotum ✔🍕
☆Bus = bulbar urethra = sup pouch
☆Mud = membranous urethra deep pouch
466
Q

1 REST
Max blood flow at rest=

Max bld flow/ 100gm at rest

A 
1 REST
Max blood flow at rest=
1.liver(1500ml)
2.kidneys(1260 ml)
Max bld flow/ 100gm at rest
1st.carotid bodies
2nd.kidney
467
Q

EXERCISE=
Max bld supply =
least bld supply(not according to demand)=
Least oxyegen supply(not according to demand)=

A

EXERCISE=
Max bld supply =Skeletal muscle
least bld supply(not according to demand)=kidneys
Least oxyegen supply(not according to demand)=skeletal muscles

468
Q

cystinuria

cystinemia

A

cystinuria b6

cystinemia b12

469
Q

Implant removed,fluid leaking,type of cells…..
Implant removed,,no leaking,type of cells….
Implant not removed,,leaking of fluid present,type of cells……..
Implant removed,,leaking of fluid plus signs of inflammation,type of cells…..
Implant not removed,,no leaking but there is tenderness r other signs of inflammation,type of cells……..

A

Implant removed,fluid leaking,type of cells…..Giant cells
Implant removed,,no leaking,type of cells…..Giant cells
Implant not removed,,leaking of fluid present,type of cells……..Giant cells
Implant removed,,leaking of fluid plus signs of inflammation,type of cells…..Neutrophils
Implant not removed,,no leaking but there is tenderness r other signs of inflammation,type of cells……..Neutrophills

470
Q

🐠apex of heart/mitral value-

A

🐠apex of heart/mitral value-5th intercoastal space

471
Q

🐠greater splanchnic nerve-

A

🐠greater splanchnic nerve-T5-T9 sym ganglia

472
Q

🐠body of sternum-

A

🐠body of sternum-T5to T9 vertebra

473
Q

🐠manubrium Sterni-

🐠sternal angle-

A

🐠manubrium Sterni-T3&T4

🐠sternal angle-T4&T5

474
Q

🐠isthmus of thyroid gland-

A

🐠isthmus of thyroid gland-2nd through 4th tracheal rings

475
Q

🐠bifurcation of common carotid artery

A

🐠C3-C4:bifurcation of common carotid artery

476
Q

🐠thyroid cartilage

A

🐠C4 &C5-thyroid cartilage

477
Q

🐠cricoid cartilage

A

🐠C6-cricoid cartilage

478
Q

🐠begining of trachea

A

🐠C6-begining of trachea

479
Q

🐠spinal cord termination
in adults
in New borns

A

🐠spinal cord termination
L1 in adults
L3 in New borns

480
Q

🐠left renal vein-

A

🐠left renal vein-L2

481
Q

🐠transpyloric plane-

🐠celiac trunk-

A

🐠transpyloric plane-L1

🐠celiac trunk-L1 superior border

482
Q

🐠nipple in male-

A

🐠nipple in male-4th intercoastal space in midclavicular line

483
Q

🐠tricuspid valve-

A

🐠tricuspid valve-right lower sternum

484
Q

🐠pulmonary valve-

A

🐠pulmonary valve-left 2nd intercoastal space medial

485
Q

🐠umbilicus(in supine/recumbent position)-

A

🐠umbilicus(in supine/recumbent position)-disc between L3-L4

486
Q

✅Hypertension.. name the affected cell?

A

✅Hypertension..JG cells affected

487
Q

✅most common cause of neoplasm

A

✅Protooncogen overexpression most common cause of neoplasm

488
Q

✅Nerve supply extensors of trunk

A

✅Dorsal rami supply extensors of trunk

489
Q

✅Lens Important fact!

A

✅Lens never regenerate

490
Q

✅Heart contractility depends upon

A

✅Heart contractility depends upon calcium ions

491
Q

✅BPS airated by

A

✅BPS airated by tertiary brochus

492
Q

✅quick way to check gonococcus

A

✅Gram staining quick way to check gonococcus

493
Q

✅Olfactory cells

A

✅Olfactory cells biopolar neurons

494
Q

✅Adh via

A

✅Adh via v1 causes sm consriction in arterioles Gq

495
Q

✅Infraorbital artery branch of_________

A

✅Infraorbital artery branch of maxillary artery

496
Q

✅Xx+pseudohermaphrodism?

A

✅Xx+pseudohermaphrodism androgenitql syndrome

497
Q

✅Rt main bronchus lengh

A

✅Rt main bronchus lenghth 2.5

498
Q

✅Platlets infusion contraindicated in __________

A

✅Platlets infusion contraindicated in spleenomegaly

499
Q

✅In venous blood rbcs have __________

A

✅In venous blood rbcs have more hco3

500
Q

✅Shortening of chromosome >

A

✅Shortening of chromosome > transcriptase

501
Q

✅Normal resp cycle?

A

✅Normal resp cycle

2sec ins 3 sec exp

502
Q

✅Pressure is dissipated at ______________

A

✅Pressure is dissipated at arteriolar arterioles

503
Q

✅6th post mi day Most common complication?

A

✅6th post mi day pericardial temponade common

504
Q

✅Highest Mg stores in?

A

✅Highest Mg stores in bones

505
Q

✅________________cause of ulcers in diabetics

A

✅Angiopathy neuropathy cause of ulcers in diabetics

506
Q

✅Edema of kidney origin cause?

A

✅Edema of kidney origin albuminuria and na retension

507
Q

✅Tubercle of bacili cells comes from ___________?

A

✅Tubercle of bacili cells comes from monocytes

508
Q

✅Cristmas factor b>

A

✅Cristmas factor b> factor ix

509
Q

✅Primordial germ cells derived from _______?

A

✅Primordial germ cells derived from endoderm

510
Q

✅Kidney derived from ___________?

A

✅Kidney derived from intermediate mesoderm

511
Q

✅ureteric bud derived from?

A

✅ureteric bud derived from caudal end of mesonephric duct

512
Q

✅fisherman with ecchymosis on lips caused by?

A

✅fisherman with ecchymosis on lips caused by vit c def

513
Q

✅Trisomy 21?

A

✅Trisomy 21 robertsonion translocation

514
Q

✅ most common cause of PID

A

✅chlamydia most common cause of PID

515
Q

✅uv prolapsed complication >

A

✅uv prolapsed complication > chronic discharge and metaplasia

516
Q

✅sorbitol is an?

A

✅sorbitol is an alcohal sugar

517
Q

✅in deep inspiration dead space?

A

✅in deep inspiration dead space does not change

518
Q

✅graft versus host disease is an example of?

A

✅graft versus host disease is an example of apoptosis

519
Q

✅serotonin and epinephrine are mainly metabolized by?

A

✅serotonin and epinephrine are mainly metabolized by MAO

520
Q

✅proteinuria leads to?

A

✅proteinuria leads to russel bodies formation

521
Q

✅virulence of bacteria depends upon?

A

✅virulence of bacteria depends upon type of toxin

522
Q

✅inc in stroma and dec in glands is?

A

✅inc in stroma and dec in glands is atrophy

523
Q

✅nociceptive afferents terminate in?

A

✅nociceptive afferents terminate in post gray column

524
Q

✅dorsal colum enter in?

A

✅dorsal colum enter in dorsal gray horn

525
Q

✅only protein diet >

A

✅only protein diet > inc glucagon

526
Q

✅gaba mediates _______ effect

A

✅gaba mediates anxiolytic effect

527
Q

✅parasympathetic imp fact?

A

✅parasympathetic 75% by vagus

528
Q

✅sphingomyelin does not contain?

A

✅sphingomyelin does nit contain glycerol

529
Q

✅volume of distribution:

A

✅volume of distribution:dose upon concentration

530
Q

✅strongest antimiscarinic effect

A

✅thioridazone has strongest antimiscarinic effect

531
Q

✅inc resp in pregnancy>

A

✅inc resp in pregnancy> progesterone

532
Q

✅bradykinin >. >

A

✅bradykinin > polypeptide > vasodilation

533
Q

✅cervical spine what is missing?

A

✅cervical spine lateral horn is missing

534
Q

✅peroxisomes function?

A

✅peroxisomes long chain fattay acids oxidation

535
Q

✅whole wheat source of?

A

✅whole wheat source of thiamine

536
Q

✅1litre urine contains NACL =

A

✅1litre urine contains NACL =2-6 gm/litre

537
Q

✅miscele function?

A

✅miscele carry products of TAG digestion to small intestine epithelium

538
Q

✅surfactant forms

A

✅surfactant forms macromolecular layer between water molecules

539
Q

✅endogenous muscle relaxant is

A

✅endogenous muscle relaxant is endorphin

540
Q

✅________ is effect of atropine on cns

A

✅restlessness is effect of atropine on cns

541
Q

✅swallowing of bronchial secretions is??

A

✅swallowing of bronchial secretions is parasympathetic action

542
Q

✅slow pain

A

✅slow pain substance p

543
Q

✅fast pain

A

✅fast pain glutamate

544
Q

✅stimulatory neurotransmitter in cerebellum is

A

✅stimulatory neurotransmitter in cerebellum is glutamate

545
Q

✅___________ is the only stimulatory layer of cerebellum

A

✅granular layer is the only stimulatory layer of cerebellum

546
Q

✅clostridium does not produce

A

✅clostridium does not produce endotoxin

547
Q

✅HLA gene on chromosome

A

✅HLA gene on chromosome 6

548
Q

✅ hormone which is congo stained

A

✅calcitonin congo stained

549
Q

_______ related to biceps femoris laterall

A

✅CPN related to biceps femoris laterall

550
Q

✅ major role in parturation

A

✅fetal cortisol major role in parturation

551
Q

✅antidepressants:

A

✅antidepressants:seizures

552
Q

✅distributiok curve :

A

✅distributiok curve :mean and standard deviation

553
Q

✅nucleus is continuous with

A

✅nucleus is continuous with rough endoplasmic reticulumn

554
Q

✅histones have _____ and ______

A

✅histones have arginine and lysine

555
Q

✅acetylcholine not released at

A

✅acetylcholine not released at postganglionic nerves to vasoconstricting muscles

556
Q

✅Folia seen in

A

✅Folia seen in cerebellum

557
Q

✅ant triangle level?

A

✅ant triangle c2,c3

558
Q

IAPP _______ type

A

IAPP endocrine type

559
Q

_____________ of LN

A

✅germinal follicles cortex of LN

560
Q

✅tracheostomy level

A

✅tracheostomy level 2-3rd tracheal ring

561
Q

✅________ and ________ deposits in FSGS

A

✅igm and c3 deposits in FSGS

562
Q

✅iga neohropathy

A

✅iga neohropathy mesangial deposits in gbm

563
Q

✅_____________ in choroid layer of retina

A

✅albino>dec melanin in choroid layer of retina

564
Q

✅deep sea divers >

A

✅deep sea divers > emboli in arteries

565
Q

✅Most important enzyme in protein digestion

A

✅Endopeptidases are more imp than exopeptidases for protein digestion

566
Q

✅IM?

567
Q

✅IM?

568
Q

✅mumps?

A

✅mumps rna

569
Q

✅upper origin of external oblique forms digitation with

A

✅upper origin of external oblique forms digitation with serratous anterior

570
Q

✅submandibular surgery

Injures

A

✅submandibular surgery

Injures marginal branch of mandibular branch of facial nerve

571
Q

✅aortic notch is due to?

A

✅aortic notch is due to aortic valve

572
Q

➡️____________supported by dec peritubular NA conc

A

➡️tubuloglomerular feedback supported by dec peritubular NA conc

573
Q

✅________ forms cns

A

✅neural tube forms cns

574
Q

✅listeria only gram ______ organism producing ______

A

✅listeria only gram positive organism producing LpS

575
Q

✅_________ forms cavity of midbrain

A

✅cerebral aqueduct forms cavity of midbrain

576
Q

✅_________________ dorsal root ganglion

A

✅synapses absent in dorsal root ganglion

577
Q

✅ DOC for travellers diarrhea

A

✅diphenoxylate DOC for travellers diarrhea

578
Q

✅diazepam relaxes SM by?

A

✅diazepam relaxes sk muscle by inhibitory interneurons

579
Q

✅insula is?

A

✅insula is deep to lateral sulcus

580
Q

✅_______________ > IM

A

✅polyclonal huperplasia > IM

581
Q

✅lichen simplex chronicus is a/w __________

A

✅lichen simplex chronicus is a/w sq neoplasia

582
Q

✅most common genetic pathology is by _________

A

✅most common genetic pathology is by nucleotides

583
Q

✅b-endorphins location?

A

✅b-endorphins mist abundantly in hypothalamus

584
Q

✅diencephalon does not include?

A

✅diencephalon does not include superior colliculus

585
Q

✅basiphillia to cells is bt ______

A

✅basiphillia to cells is bt RER

586
Q

✅muscles supply

A

✅muscles supply

40% sens 60% motor

587
Q

✅________ in anaerobes

A

✅no granuloma in anaerobes

588
Q 
✔️Thermogenesis
✅Earliest response \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
✅Potent. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
✅main controling center \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
✅Thermogenesis via \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

✔️Thermogenesis
✅Earliest response inc catecholamine
✅Potent. Shivering
✅Anterior hyoothalmus main controling center
✅Thermogenesis via sympathetic b1 to fats
And motorneurons

589
Q

✅Dissipation mainly via?

A

✅Dissipation mainly via parasympathetic

590
Q

✅IL-1 how causes fever?

A

✅IL-1 increses prostaglandin in brain to inc set point

591
Q

✅exogenous steroids>

A

✅exogenous steroids> dec IL-2 release

592
Q

✅extension of pia matter?

A

✅denticulate ligament extension of pia meter

593
Q

✅conus medularis

A

✅Lesion at l1 conus medularis

594
Q

✅cruciate intra or extra capsular?

A

✅cruciate intracapsular

595
Q

✅adamstroke.

A

✅adamstroke. High degree heart block stroke with FND

596
Q

✅collagen abundant substance?

A

✅collagen amorphous abundant substance

597
Q

✅conc urine is function of?

A

✅conc urine is function of vasa recta

598
Q

✅birbeck granules are associated with?

A

✅birbeck granules are associated with histocytosis

599
Q

✅nuclear bag fibers carry _______?

A

✅nuclear bag fibers carry dynamic response

600
Q

✅spleenomegaly in hodgkins is stage?

A

✅spleenomegaly in hodgkins is stage 3

601
Q

✅forced respiration muscles?

A

✅forced respiration sternocleidomastoid and scalnes

602
Q

✅adenoid cystic CA invades the?

A

✅adenoid cystic CA invades the periphral nerves sheath

603
Q

✅microaneurysm of HIv don’t include _________?

A

✅microaneurysm of HIv don’t include hard exudates

604
Q

✅release of histamine is by ________?

A

✅release of histamine is by morphine

605
Q

✅tip of nose ___________?

A

✅tip of nose ophthalmic division

606
Q

✅______________ from bacteria to virus

A

✅transduction genome from bacteria to virus

607
Q

✅ smallest cells in ant pituitary

A

✅chromophobes smallest cells in ant pituitary

608
Q

✅isotonic exercise?

A

✅isotonic exercise TPR remains same

609
Q

✅__________ not used in candid

A

✅griseofulvin not used in candid

610
Q 
Haemorrhages
¤Extradural haemorrhge=
¤subdural haemorrhage =
¤subarchnoid haemorrahge=
☆tennis ball injury to eye=
☆epistaxis=
☆during tonsilectomy= 
☆tracheostomy=
☆heamoptysis=
☆gastric ulcer=
☆hemmorhoids=
☆retropubic proastatectomy=
A

☆¤Haemorrhages
¤Extradural haemorrhge=middle minengeal artery
¤subdural haemorrhage =diploic vein
¤subarchnoid haemorrahge=rupture on berry aneursm
☆tennis ball injury to eye=circulis iridis major
☆epistaxis=sphenopalatine artery
☆during tonsilectomy= para tonsillar vein,tonsillar and ascending palatine artery
☆tracheostomy=isthmus and inferior thyroid vein
☆heamoptysis=bronchial artey
☆gastric ulcer=left gastrc and splenic artery
☆hemmorhoids=submucosal rectal venous plexuses formed by superior rectal vein and inferior rectal vein
☆retropubic proastatectomy=drsal venous plexuses
¤¤

611
Q

Chromosomes n Dna both replicate in __________

¤Studied in __________

A

Chromosomes n Dna both replicate in interphase

¤Studied in Metaphase

612
Q 
¤¤¤¤Trisomy
21 > 
13 > 
18 > 
16 >
A 
¤¤¤¤Trisomy
21 > Down syndrome
13 > Ptau
18 > edvert
16 > spontaneous abortion
613
Q

¤¤¤ Lumber Pucture
☆Most common loccation =
☆LP Best Site ====
☆IF pt e miningitis LP site ===

A

¤¤¤ Lumber Pucture
☆Most common loccation ==L4L5
☆LP Best Site ====above L4
☆IF pt e miningitis LP site ===below L3

614
Q 
¤¤¤Epidural anesthesia ==
☆widest epidural space > 
☆Cauda Equina (CHILDren) ===
☆Conus medullaris (Adult) = 
☆Subarchnoid space ==
A 
¤¤¤Epidural anesthesia ==L3-4
☆widest epidural space > L2
☆Cauda Equina (CHILDren) === L3
☆Conus medullaris (Adult) = L1
☆Subarchnoid space == S2
615
Q

☆Chorea >

☆Athetosis >

A

☆Chorea > caudate

☆Athetosis > putamen

616
Q

☆Pco2 rises upto _______ in first minute of apnea

A

☆Pco2 rises upto 12mmhg in first minute of apnea

617
Q

☆ Increased ________ plus _________ = Anencephaly

A

☆ Increased alpha feto protein plus increased albumin = Anencephaly

618
Q

☆Vitamin A prevents _______.

A

☆Vitamin A prevents squamous cell carcinoma.

619
Q

☆Right border of heart is made by __________\

☆Right border of heart on XRAY made by __________

A

☆Right border of heart is made by right atrium.

☆Right border of heart on XRAY made by SVc +Rt Atrium

620
Q

¤Aphasia and facial nerve palsy > damage to ____________

A

¤Aphasia and facial nerve palsy > damage to middle meningeal artery.

621
Q

¤Bronchial asthma plus hypertensive patient > Best drug

A

¤Bronchial asthma plus hypertensive patient > Best drug Verapamil.

622
Q

¤Prenatal chromosome is detected at ____________

A

¤Prenatal chromosome is detected at 14 -18 weeks.

623
Q

¤2nd most common cause of osteoporosis in old age is ____________.

A

¤2nd most common cause of osteoporosis in old age is Cushing syndrome.

624
Q

☆Sperm life in genital tract is _________________.

A

☆Sperm life in genital tract is 24 to 72hours.

625
Q

☆At term CRL = _________ and CHL = ________.
¤¤CRL used b/w ___________.
☆☆BPD is used __________.

A

☆At term CRL = 36 cm and CHL = 50 cm.
¤¤CRL used b/w 7 - 14 weeks.
☆☆BPD is used 16 - 30 weeks.

626
Q

¤¤ Locus Ceruleus = .

A

¤¤ Locus Ceruleus = Nor epinephrine.

627
Q

¤¤Nucleus raphe synthesize _________

A

¤¤Nucleus raphe synthesize serotonin.

628
Q

☆Stapedius is supplied by ____________.

A

☆Stapedius is supplied by facial nerve.

629
Q

☆Tensor tympani is supplied by _____________.

A

☆Tensor tympani is supplied by mandibular division of trigeminal nerve.

630
Q

☆__________ is the only endocrine gland that stores its secretions outside the cell.

A

☆Thyroid is the only endocrine gland that stores its secretions outside the cell.

631
Q

☆Superior orbital fissure communicates with middle cranial fossa and it transmits?

A

☆Superior orbital fissure communicates with middle cranial fossa and it transmits lacrimal nerve, frontal nerve, trochlear nerve, oculomotor nerve, abducent nerve, nasociliary nerve and superior ophthalmic vein.

632
Q

☆Inferior orbital fissure contents are

A

☆Inferior orbital fissure contents are maxillary nerve and its zygomatic branch, inferior ophthalmic vein and sympathetic nerves and this fissure communicates with pterygo palatine fossa.

633
Q

☆Common genital vesicle is _______.

A

☆Common genital vesicle is herpes simplex virus.

634
Q

☆Down syndrome occurs______.

A

☆Down syndrome occurs 1/100.

635
Q

☆Most diagnostic test for TB = ______ > ______ > ______.

A

☆Most diagnostic test for TB = PCR > AFB > Caseous.

636
Q

☆In anesthesia halothane is always given with _______[.

A

☆In anesthesia halothane is always given with Nitric oxide.

637
Q

☆ Trephine biopsy Indicates = _______ >_______.

A

☆ Trephine biopsy Indicates = aplastic anemia > ALL.

638
Q

☆Inferior wall MI >

A

☆Inferior wall MI > Right marginal artery block.

639
Q

☆ Epidermis of partoid gland is derived from _________.

A

☆ Epidermis of partoid gland is derived from ectoderm.

640
Q

☆To kill spores of surgical instrument >

A

☆To kill spores of surgical instrument > moist heat at 160 C for 1 hr.

641
Q

☆Food poisoning caused by Staph. Aureus is through ________.

A

☆Food poisoning caused by Staph. Aureus is through entertoxin.

642
Q

☆Least positive value for Widal is _______.

A

☆Least positive value for Widal is 1:120.

643
Q

☆Trigeminal ganglion is completely covered by _______.

A

☆Trigeminal ganglion is completely covered by dura.

644
Q

☆ Tactile sensation is carried by

A

☆ Tactile sensation is carried by dorsal white column to medial leminiscus.

645
Q

☆ = positive window period.

A

☆ Anti HBcAg = positive window period.

646
Q

☆MAP =

A

☆MAP = diastolic +1/3 pulse pressure.

647
Q

☆ Insulin secretion is inhibited by ________.

A

☆ Insulin secretion is inhibited by beta blocker.

648
Q

☆Highest triglyceride =
☆Highest cholesterol =
☆ Highest lipoprotein =

A

☆Highest triglyceride =Chylomicrons >VLDL > Chylomicrons remanents
☆Highest cholesterol = LDL.
☆ Highest lipoprotein = HDL.

649
Q

☆ Tracheostomy is done at

A

☆ Tracheostomy is done at 2nd tracheal ring by pulling the isthmus inferiorly.

650
Q

☆Inferior thyroid artery is also related to

A

☆Inferior thyroid artery is also related to recurrent laryngeal nerve which runs b/w trachea and esophagus and its most common injury is in Traceostomy.

651
Q

☆Superior thyroid artery is related to

A

☆Superior thyroid artery is related to external laryngeal nerve which supplies posterior cricothyroid muscle of larynx. Injured during Thyroidectomy

652
Q

☆ Diaphragmatic hernia occurs due to absence

A

☆ Diaphragmatic hernia occurs due to absence of pleuro peritoneal membrane.

653
Q

☆Superior para thyroid is developed from

A

☆Superior para thyroid is developed from 4th brachial pouch.

654
Q

☆Thymus and inferior parathyroid develops from

A

☆Thymus and inferior parathyroid develops from 3rd branchial pouch.

655
Q

☆Thyroid gland is derived from .

A

☆Thyroid gland is derived from endoderm.

656
Q

☆Uterine tube is cm long.

A

☆Uterine tube is 10 cm long.

657
Q

☆Nerve supply of rectum is

A

☆Nerve supply of rectum is hypogastric plexus.

658
Q

“☆Sphincteric urethra is known as external urethral sphincter and is supplied by ______________ where as internal os is supplied by ____________.

A

“☆Sphincteric urethra is known as external urethral sphincter and is supplied by pudendal nerves where as internal os is supplied by inferior hypo gastric plexus.

659
Q

☆ Lesser omentum connects with

A

☆ Lesser omentum connects with duodenum.

660
Q

☆ _________ ligament does NOT contribute in wall of perineum.

A

☆ Sacrospinous ligament does NOT contribute in wall of perineum.

661
Q

☆Trimethoprim (co-trimoxazole ) side effect >

A

☆Trimethoprim (co-trimoxazole ) side effect > megaloblastic anemia plus leukopenia.

662
Q 
☆Referred pain:
¤¤Cervix
¤ Ovary 
¤Testis
¤ Umbilicus
¤Kidney
A 
☆Referred pain:
¤¤Cervix S2-S3
¤ Ovary -T10-T11
¤Testis -T10
¤ Umbilicus -T10
¤Kidney T12-L2.
663
Q

☆Erythropoiesis in middle trimester is in the ______.

A

☆Erythropoiesis in middle trimester is in the liver.

664
Q

☆ Levator ani muscle is supplied by

A

☆ Levator ani muscle is supplied by L2, L3 & L4.

665
Q

☆Defect in Bulbus Cordis results in

A

☆Defect in Bulbus Cordis results in VSD, hypertrophy of Right ventricle, congenital cyanosis, transposition of great vessels (but not ASD)

666
Q

☆Endocardial cushion is important for the formation of

A

☆Endocardial cushion is important for the formation of four chambers of heart.

667
Q

☆Thirst is least stimulated by ________.

A

☆Thirst is least stimulated by blood pressure.

668
Q

☆Important hormone involved in gluconeogenesis is __________.

A

☆Important hormone involved in gluconeogenesis is Cortisol.

669
Q

☆Apoptosis is inhibited by

A

☆Apoptosis is inhibited by bcl-2 inhibition.

670
Q

☆Apoptosis ~ Actuvation of

A

☆Apoptosis ~ Actuvation of caspases

671
Q

☆Opsonins name 3?

A

☆C3b & IgG are Opsonins

672
Q

☆_______ is chemotactic protein.

A

☆C5a is chemotactic protein.☆Tx of hirstuism is Cyproterone Acetate.

673
Q

☆_______ is an important indicator for muscle protein loss.

A

☆ Urea is an important indicator for muscle protein loss.

674
Q

☆Tx of hirstuism is __________.

A

☆Tx of hirstuism is Cyproterone Acetate.

675
Q

☆__________ is intermediate from glucose to acetyl coA.

A

☆Pyruvic acid is intermediate from glucose to acetyl coA.

676
Q

☆Epinephrine .nor epinephrine & dopamine are derived from _______.

A

☆Epinephrine .nor epinephrine & dopamine are derived from tyrosine.

677
Q

☆End product of Purine is ________.

A

☆End product of Purine is Uric acid.

678
Q

☆RBCs have

A

☆RBCs have glycolytic enzyme activity.

679
Q

☆End product of glucose gives?

A

☆End product of glucose gives 2 Pyruvate.

680
Q

______ should be taken in diet.

A

Alanine should be taken in diet.

681
Q

☆__________ is more notorious to cause renal toxicity.

A

☆Cisplatin is more notorious to cause renal toxicity.

682
Q

☆Dysplasia is seen in _________.

A

☆Dysplasia is seen in epithelia.

683
Q

☆ mRNA has a

A

☆MRNA has a codon.

684
Q

☆HSV is associated with.

A

☆HSV is associated with vulvar papules.

685
Q

☆Plaque like lesion on posterior superior wall of vagina is ______.

A

☆Plaque like lesion on posterior superior wall of vagina is squamous cell carcinoma.

686
Q

Anterior abdominal wall swelling with umbilical cord attached to it in a new born baby is known as.

A

Anterior abdominal wall swelling with umbilical cord attached to it in a new born baby is known as Omphalocele.

687
Q

☆Beta-lactam acts on the

A

☆Beta-lactam acts on the Cell Wall.

688
Q

☆Most common organism involved in gynecological & abdominal procedures is .

A

☆Most common organism involved in gynecological & abdominal procedures is Bacteriodes .

689
Q

☆Vulvular itching =

☆ fish like smell;

A

☆Vulvular itching = Chlamydia

☆ fish like smell; Bacterial Vaginosis.

690
Q

☆ Vitamin K dependent: Factors

A

☆ Vitamin K dependent: Factors 2, 7,9,10, Protein C, Protein S, Fibrinogen and Prothrombin.

691
Q

☆Intrinsic and Extrinsic pathways of coagulation converge at __________

A

☆Intrinsic and Extrinsic pathways of coagulation converge at factor 10.

692
Q

☆__________ does not contain Sulfa group.

A

☆Threonine does not contain Sulfa group.

693
Q

☆Lens opacity causing drugs

A

☆Lens opacity causing drugs >Chlorpromazine, Amidarone, Tamoxifen, Gold & Iron toxicity.

694
Q

☆Drugs causing corneal opacity >

A

☆Drugs causing corneal opacity > Amiodarone, Chloroquine, Mepacrine & Copper.

695
Q

☆ Ribosome have purple color on

A

☆ Ribosome have purple color on Eosin & Methylene blue staining

696
Q

☆High energy content >.

A

☆High energy content > Starch.

697
Q

☆Antidote of warfarin is __________ but if action is more quickly required then _________.

A

☆Antidote of warfarin is vitamin K but if action is more quickly required then FFP.

698
Q

☆________ cells are the only neurons in the body that regenerates.

A

☆Olfactory cells are the only neurons in the body that regenerates.

699
Q

☆Projectile vomiting greenish in color means ________ vomiting so it is due to duodenal atresia but if projectile vomiting ________ then it is hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.

A

☆Projectile vomiting greenish in color means bilious vomiting so it is due to duodenal atresia but if projectile vomiting non bilious then it is hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.

700
Q

☆ Pulmonary trunk relation with the bronchus at the hilum of the lung-.

A

☆ Pulmonary trunk relation with the bronchus at the hilum of the lung-mnemonic is RALSR- Right Anterior & Left Superior.

701
Q

☆ Homan’s sign is present in DVT in which if you

A

☆ Homan’s sign is present in DVT in which if you dorsiflex the foot there will be pain in calf muscles.

702
Q

☆_________ bubbled precipitator in ascending divers and can be treated with _____________

A

☆Nitrogen bubbled precipitator in ascending divers and can be treated with hyperbaric oxygen.

703
Q

☆________________ is the best test to detect Pulmonary Embolism.

A

☆CT pulmonary angiography is the best test to detect Pulmonary Embolism.

704
Q

☆The most common infectious agent transmitted by blood transfusion is __________ (—-), which is present in donor __________

A

☆The most common infectious agent transmitted by blood transfusion is cytomegalovirus (CMV), which is present in donor lymphocytes.

705
Q

☆Before blood is transfused into newborns or patients with T-cell deficiencies, it must be __________________. This prevents the patient from developing a __________

A

☆Before blood is transfused into newborns or patients with T-cell deficiencies, it must be irradiated to kill donor lymphocytes. This prevents the patient from developing a graft-versus-host reaction or a CMV infection.

706
Q

☆_______________, a pathogen that thrives on iron, is the most common contaminant of ___________

A

☆Yersinia enterocolitica, a pathogen that thrives on iron, is the most common contaminant of stored blood.

707
Q

☆ Iron is stored in ___________.

A

☆ Iron is stored in bone macrophages.

708
Q

☆ Structures passing thru superior orbital fissure….

A

☆ Structures passing thru superior orbital fissure….
NOT-FAL
¤NASOCILLIARY¤OPTHALIMIC VEIN¤TROCHLEAR¤FRONTAL

709
Q 
☆☆Suture Removal:
¤Head
¤Face
¤Eyelid & eyebrow 
¤Trunk
¤Extremities
¤Surface of joint 
¤Hand
A 
☆☆Suture Removal:
¤Head 5-7days
¤Face 3-5days
¤Eyelid & eyebrow 3-5days
¤Trunk 5-7days
¤Extremities 7-10days
¤Surface of joint 10-14days
¤Hand ==7days
710
Q

☆☆Absorption
☆_____ and _______ absorb in duodenum.
☆________, _________, __________, __________ in jejunum.
☆______ and ________ absorb in ileum.
☆______ and ________ absorb in colon but less than jejunum. ________________ absorb in colon.

A

☆☆Absorption
☆iron and divalents absorb in duodenum.
☆Folic acid, maximum water, max electrolytes, long chain fatty acids in jejunum.
☆Bile and B12 absorb in ileum.
☆water and electrolytes absorb in colon but less than jejunum. Short chain fatty acids absorb in colon.

711
Q

¤¤Buffers
☆Major intracellular buffer is _________.
☆Major extracellular buffer is _________.
☆If only major buffer asked then
___________.
☆Major renal buffer is still bicarbonate if depleted then
¤ ________==Qualitative
¤ _________== Quantitative
☆Buffer in blood is _________ > ________

A 
¤¤Buffers
☆Major intracellular buffer is protein.
☆Major extracellular buffer is bicarb.
☆If only major buffer asked then Bicarb.
☆Major renal buffer is still bicarbonate if depleted then
¤Phosphate ==Qualitative
¤Ammonia == Quantitative
☆Buffer in blood is H2co3 > Hb
712
Q

¤¤Uterus
☆ __________ felt on PR
☆Main support is ________________
☆ _______________keeps it anteverted anteflexed
☆________________ has very lessor role in support

A

¤¤Uterus
☆Uterosacral felt on PR
☆Main support is cardinal(also named transverse cervical ligament )
☆Round ligament of uterus keeps it anteverted anteflexed
☆broad ligament has very lessor role in support

713
Q

☆Best way to “measure” gfr is ___________.
☆best way to “estimate” gfr is ____________.
☆best way to “clincally” measure gfr is ___________.
☆best way to measure renal plasma / blood flow is ________ .
☆best test for renal falilure is ____________.

A

☆Best way to “measure” gfr is inulin clearance.
☆best way to “estimate” gfr is creatinine clearance.
☆best way to “clincally” measure gfr is creatinine clearance.
☆best way to measure renal plasma / blood flow is PAH .
☆best test for renal falilure is creatinine clearance.

714
Q 
Septic meningitis -
Initiation of dental caries -
Pyogenic lung abscess + Meningitis -
Subacute bacterial endocarditis -
Prosthetic valve endocarditis -
Cellulitis -
Multiple draining sinuses -
IUCD infection -
Trachoma -
Pelvic inflammatory disease -
Lymphogranuloma venereum -
A

Septic meningitis - Streptococcus.
Initiation of dental caries - Streptococcus.
Pyogenic lung abscess + Meningitis - Staphylococcus.
Subacute bacterial endocarditis - S.viridians.
Prosthetic valve endocarditis - S.epidermidis.
Cellulitis - S.pyogenes.
Multiple draining sinuses - Actinomyces.
IUCD infection - Actinomycosis.
Trachoma - Chlamydia.
Pelvic inflammatory disease - Chlamydia.
Lymphogranuloma venereum - Chlamydia.

715
Q 
Pseudomembranous colitis -
Gas gangrene -
Fatal diarrhea -
Tubulo ova
Acute osteomyelitis -
Toxic shock syndrome -
Wound infection -
Valvular itching + Pink purulent discharge -
Infection in post liver transplant patient -
A 
Pseudomembranous colitis - C.Difficile.
Gas gangrene - C.Perfringes / C.Welchii.
Fatal diarrhea - V.Cholrea.
Tubulo ovarian cyst - Gonococcus.
Abscess - S.Aureus.
Acute osteomyelitis - S.Aureus.
Toxic shock syndrome - S.Aureus.
Wound infection - S.A
Valvular itching + Pink purulent discharge - Trichomanas vaginilis.
Infection in post liver transplant patient - CMV.
716
Q

Chorioretinitis in AIDS -
Bronchogenic carcinoma -
Herpangia -
Hand foot and mouth disease -

A

Chorioretinitis in AIDS - CMV.
Bronchogenic carcinoma - CMV.
Herpangia - Coxsakie virus.
Hand foot and mouth disease - Coxsakie virus

717
Q 
Lymphoma in AIDS -
Burkitt lymphoma -
Non hodgkin lymphoma -
Hairy tongue -
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma -
Infectious mononucleosis -
Kaposi sarcoma -
Cervical cancer - 
Vulval papules -
Meningo-encephalitis -
A 
Lymphoma in AIDS - EBV.
Burkitt lymphoma - EBV.
Non hodgkin lymphoma - EBV.
Hairy tongue - EBV.
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma - EBV.
Infectious mononucleosis - EBV.
Kaposi sarcoma - HHV8.
Cervical cancer - HPV 16.
Vulval papules - HSV.
Meningo-encephalitis - Echovirus.
718
Q 
Meningitis in AIDS -
Black water fever -
Cysticercosis -
Cyst in liver -
SCC of bladder -
Cholangio carcinoma -
Migratory lesion of foot -
Toxoplasmosis -
A

Meningitis in AIDS - Cryptococcus neoformans.
Black water fever - Plasmodium falciparum.
Cysticercosis - Taenia solium.
Cyst in liver - Teania echinococcus.
SCC of bladder - Schistosomiasis.
Cholangio carcinoma - Clonorchis Sinensis.
Migratory lesion of foot - Cutaneous larva migrans.
Toxoplasmosis - Cat

719
Q

About trachea

  1. …starts at ______ , __________
  2. …bifercates at _______
  3. .. is about ________ cm
  4. …has ____________________ring
  5. .. tracheostomy opening at cartilage ring __________
A

About trachea

  1. …starts at C6 , at inferior border of cricoid
  2. …bifercates at T4
  3. .. is about 15 cm
  4. …has 16 to 20 incomplete cartlilage c shaped ring
  5. .. tracheostomy opening at cartilage ring 2,3,4
720
Q

Bronchi..
1… Right bronchus is

2… Left bronchus is

A

Bronchi..
1… Right bronchus is
Shorter, wider and more vertical left bronchus.. therefore inhaled foreign bodies comes into right bronchus..
2… Left bronchus is
Longer, narrower and less vertical rigjt bronchus…

721
Q

No of divisions of lower air way is

A

No of divisions of lower air way is 23

722
Q

Right lung has…
___segments
Left lung has…
____ segments

A

Right lung has…
10 segments
Left lung has…
9 segments

723
Q

Bronchopulmonary segment

i. .
ii. .

A

Bronchopulmonary segment

i. .is anatomical, functional and surgical unit of lungs..
ii. .Areated by tertiary bronchioles

724
Q 
About diaphragm
1...Motor supply of diaphragm is through
2... sensory supply is..
central part by \_\_\_\_\_\_ and Peripheral by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
3... openings of diaphragm..
A

About diaphragm
1…Motor supply of diaphragm is through
phrenic nerve
2… sensory supply is..
central part by phrenic and Uperipheral ny intercostal nerve
3… openings of diaphragm..
Formula…
…CEA…
…8,10,12…
i…Cavel opening in diaphragm is at level of T 8…. structures passing are..
Vena cava, phrenic nerve, sympathetic nerves
ii…Esophageal opening is at level of T 10… structures passing are..
Esophagus, right and left vagas nerve and lymphatics..
iii… Avortic opening at the level of T 12…
Structure passing are
Avorta, thoracic duct and azygus vein

725
Q 
RIB CAGE
1... Weakest point of rib is: \_\_\_\_\_
2... True ribs are \_\_\_\_\_\_
False ribs are \_\_\_\_\_\_
Floating ribs are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
3... Supernumary cervical Rib 
i...
ii...
iii..
A 
RIB CAGE
1... Weakest point of rib is..angle
2... True ribs are 1 to 7...
False ribs are 8, 9, 10
Floating ribs are 11,12
3... Supernumary cervical Rib 
i... compression of lower trunk of brachial plexus
ii...Compression of subclavian vessels 
iii.. it originates from C 8
726
Q

INTERCOSTAL SPACES

  1. .. The neuromuscular bundle present between _____________
  2. .. Ther order of neuromuscular bundle from above down in the coastal groove of rib lower border is… __________
  3. .. Site for needle piercing / pleurocentesis is at ______
A

INTERCOSTAL SPACES
1… The neuromuscular bundle present between.. Internal intercostal muscle and innermost intercostal muscle
2… Ther order of neuromuscular bundle from above down in the coastal groove of rib lower border is… VAN
vein, artery, nerve
3… Site for needle piercing / pleurocentesis is at MID AXILLARY LINE… near the UPPER BORDER of ribs… 1 or 2 rib space below maximum dullness.

727
Q

INTERCOSTAL SPACES
☆If ask …. neurovascular bundle located at —》____________
☆If ask in neuromuscular lies in between —》______________
☆if ask where Thoracocentasis advised —》____________
☆If asked space—》___________
☆if asked best site of aspiration–》__________
☆If asked vessels are present in —》__________\
☆If Ask drain inserted which structure damaged most likely —》_______

A

☆If ask …. neurovascular bundle located at —》inferior border of rib
☆If ask in neuromuscular lies in between —》Internal and innermost layers
☆if ask where Thoracocentasis advised —》upper border of lower rib
☆If asked space—》 lower space
☆if asked best site of aspiration–》 4rth and 5th intercoastal space in “Mid axillary line “ kindly focus on mid axillary
☆If asked vessels are present in —》 subcoastal groove
☆If Ask drain inserted which structure damaged most likely —》 it will be intercostal nerve … cox as u knw sequence is VAN so nerve is below and it is least protected by subcostal groove while artery is in between and vein is superior and strongly protected by subcostal groove
☆Superior to inferior (Top to bottom) —》VAN
☆Inferior to superior —》NAV

728
Q

Sternal angle (angle of louis)—-》important surface landmark

6 of them

A

Sternal angle (angle of louis)—-》important surface landmark
☆2nd costal cartilage
☆intervertebral disc bw T4 -T5
☆junction of ascending aorta and arch of aorta
☆junction of decending aorta and arch of aorta
☆bifurcation of trachea
☆junction of superiir mediastinum and inferior mediastinum

729
Q

Cervical rib –》 0.5%—》arises from __________–》connected to________–》pressure on __________ –》__________—》__________

A

Cervical rib –》 0.5%—》arises from transverse process of C7 –》connected to 1st rib—》pressure on lower trunk –》subclavian artery —》Thoracic outlet syndrome

730
Q

innermost intercoastal muscle–》

A

innermost intercoastal muscle–》Endothoracic fascia and parietal pleura

731
Q

Diaphargm –》muscle of ______
Right crus–》
Left crus —》

A

Diaphargm –》muscle of inspiration
Right crus–》1st three lumber vertebra and intervertebral disc –》encloses oesophagus
Left crus —》1st two vertebra and intercostal disc

732
Q

Medial arcuate ligament–》

A

Medial arcuate ligament–》L2 to transverse process of L1

733
Q

Lateral arcuate ligament–》

A

Lateral arcuate ligament–》transverse process of L1 to rib 12

734
Q

Diaphrgm attached to

A 
Diaphrgm attached to 
L1 
xiphesternum
10th rib
7th costal cartilage
Not directly to T10
735
Q

Muscle of queit respiration—》
Contraction of diaphrgm causes–》
Major inspiratory muscle–》

A

Muscle of queit respiration—》Diaphragm
Contraction of diaphrgm causes–》increase thoracic volume
Major inspiratory muscle–》diaphragm

736
Q

A stab at 6th costal cartilage just ryt will damage—-》

A

A stab at 6th costal cartilage just ryt will damage—-》Ryt atrium

737
Q

Medial arcuate ligament—》l

A

Medial arcuate ligament—》arches over psoas muscle as it passes thru it

738
Q

pt cannt survive without ventilation if lession above

pt can survive without ventilation if lession below

A

pt cannt survive without ventilation if lession above C5

pt can survive without ventilation if lession below C 5

739
Q

Most common site of Morgagni hernia —》

A

Most common site of Morgagni hernia —》Right anterior

740
Q

best site of Aspiration of pleural fluid —》

pleural tapping —》__________–》muscles pierce –》–》

A

best site of Aspiration of pleural fluid —》4rth intercoastal space midaxillary line
pleural tapping —》midaxillary line –》muscles pierce –》internal intercostal …external and innermost intercostal
intercostal space –》1 large posterior and 2 small anterior intercostal artries

741
Q

Cell bodies of visceral afferent fibers are located in the =

A

Cell bodies of visceral afferent fibers are located in the = dorsal root ganglia…..

742
Q

Cell bodies of the visceral efferent preganglionic fibers (visceral branches of sympathetic trunk) are located in the =

A

Cell bodies of the visceral efferent preganglionic fibers (visceral branches of sympathetic trunk) are located in the = interomediolateral horn of the spinal cord.

743
Q

White rami: are limited to =

A

White rami: are limited to = spinal cord segments between T1 and L2.

744
Q

Gray rami:

A

Gray rami: connect sympathetic trunk to every = spinal NERVE

745
Q

Postganglionic autonomic fibers: are unmyelinated =

A

Postganglionic autonomic fibers: are unmyelinated = C-fibers.

746
Q 
Sympathetic Nervous System :
■
■
Parasympathetic Nervous System :
■ 
■
A 
Sympathetic Nervous System :
■ Thoracolumbar
■ “Fight or flight”
Parasympathetic Nervous System :
■ Craniosacral.
■ “Rest and digest.”
747
Q

Splanchnic nerves: are sympathetic nerves to the =

A

Splanchnic nerves: are sympathetic nerves to the = viscera. They pass through the sympathetic chain ganglia without synapse (exceptions to short preganglionic and long postganglionic) and synapse in the effector.

748
Q 
NERVE FIBER TYPES:
A) A Fiber:
a) A-α:
b) A-β:
c) A-γ:
d) A-δ:

B) B Fiber:

C) C Fiber:

A 
NERVE FIBER TYPES:
A) A Fiber:
a) A-α: Proprioception & Motor
b) A-β: Sensory, Touch and Pressure
c) A-γ: Muscle spindle
d) A-δ: Sharp pain, Temperature and Touch
B) B Fiber: Preganglionic autonomic.
C) C Fiber: Dull pain, Temperature, Postganglionic and autonomic.
749
Q 
Tracts:
A) Ascending/sensory:
a) Anterior spinothalamic =
b) Lateral spinothalamic =
c) Posterior columns (gracilis and cuneatus) =
d) Spinocerebellar =

B) Descending/motor:

a) Corticospinal =
b) Tectospinal =
c) Rubrospinal =
d) Vestibulospinal =
e) Reticulospinal =

A

Tracts:
A) Ascending/sensory:
a) Anterior spinothalamic = Touch, pressure.
b) Lateral spinothalamic = Pain, temperature
c) Posterior columns (gracilis and cuneatus) = Proprioception, position sense.
d) Spinocerebellar = Motor coordination, proprioception.
B) Descending/motor:
a) Corticospinal = Motor
b) Tectospinal = Movement of head
c) Rubrospinal = Muscle tone, posture, head, neck, upper extremities
d) Vestibulospinal = Equilibrium (interface with CN VIII)
e) Reticulospinal = Muscle tone, sweat gland function

750
Q

The cell bodies for afferent/sensory nerves are located in the =

A

The cell bodies for afferent/sensory nerves are located in the = dorsal root ganglion.

751
Q

The spinal cord is protected by the =

A

The spinal cord is protected by the = bony and ligamentous walls of the = vertebral canal and CSF.

752
Q

In the spinal cord, white matter __________ and gray matter _________ , the reverse of the = cerebral cortex.

A

In the spinal cord, white matter is peripheral and gray matter is central, the reverse of the = cerebral cortex.

753
Q

Spinal Cord:
A) ________cm long.
B) Extends to ________ (_____ in a child).

A

Spinal Cord:
A) 40–45 cm long.
B) Extends to L1–L2 (L3 in a child).

754
Q

CSF: is located in the =

This space is entered during a = lumbar “tap” or puncture

A

CSF: is located in the = subarachnoid space. This space is entered during a = lumbar “tap” or puncture

755
Q

CN XII LESIONS:
A) Lower motor neuron: Tongue deviates .
B) Upper motor neuron: Tongue deviates

A

CN XII LESIONS:
A) Lower motor neuron: Tongue deviates toward side of =lesion.
B) Upper motor neuron: Tongue deviates away from side of = lesion.

756
Q

With CN______ paralysis, the tongue tends to _______ and obstruct the _______

A

With CN XII paralysis, the tongue tends to fall back and obstruct the airway (genioglossus).

757
Q

The abdominal viscera below the left colic flexure (and genitalia and pelvic viscera) are supplied by =

A 
The abdominal viscera below the left colic flexure (and genitalia and pelvic viscera) are supplied by = pelvic
splanchnic nerves (parasympathetic preganglionics).
758
Q

The cardiac branches of the vagus:

A

The cardiac branches of the vagus: (form the cardiac plexus) are preganglionic parasympathetic nerves that synapse with postganglionic parasympathetic nerves in the = heart.

759
Q

Vagus nerves: lose their identity in the __________. The ________ gastric nerve can be cut (vagotomy) to _________

A

Vagus nerves: lose their identity in the esophageal plexus. The anterior gastric nerve can be cut (vagotomy) to reduce gastric secretion.

760
Q

Chemoreception: Carotid body;

Baroreception: Carotid sinus;

A

Chemoreception: Carotid body; oxygen tension measurement.
Baroreception: Carotid sinus; blood pressure changes.

761
Q

SENSATION OF EXTERNAL EAR:
A) Auriculotemporal nerve (V3) supplies =
B) Auricular branch of vagus (CN X) supplies =

A

SENSATION OF EXTERNAL EAR:
A) Auriculotemporal nerve (V3) supplies = Anterior half of external ear canal and facial surface of upper part of auricle.
B) Auricular branch of vagus (CN X) supplies = Posterior half of external ear canal (so stimulation can
cause reflex symptoms: eg, fainting, coughing, gagging).
C) Greater auricular nerve (C2, C3) supplies = Inferior auricle (anterior and posterior)
D) Lesser occipital nerve (C2, C3) supplies = Cranial surface of upper auricle.

762
Q 
Herpes zoster often affects =
Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux) :
A 
Herpes zoster often affects = V1 division.
Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux) : can affect V2 and V3.
763
Q

Sensation in teeth can be misinterpreted in =

A

Sensation in teeth can be misinterpreted in = ear (because of the cross innervation).

764
Q

Touch & Pressure is carried by =

Pain & Temperature is carried by =

Proprioception is carried by =

A

Touch & Pressure is carried by = A-beta fibers.
Pain & Temperature is carried by = A-delta and C-Fibers.
Proprioception is carried by = A-alpha Fibers.

765
Q

Mesencephalic nucleus of CN V is the only case where primary sensory cell bodies are located within the =

A

Mesencephalic nucleus of CN V is the only case where primary sensory cell bodies are located within the = CNS, rather than in ganglia.

766
Q

All CN V afferent cell bodies are located within =

A

All CN V afferent cell bodies are located within = trigeminal ganglion except
proprioceptive inputs.

767
Q

Parts of CNs VII and IX travel with = l

A

Parts of CNs VII and IX travel with = trigeminospinal tract.

768
Q

cortex (areas _______); the

A

cortex (areas 3, 1, 2); the facial segment of the sensory homunculus

769
Q

INFERIOR ALVEOLAR NERVE BLOCK:

A

INFERIOR ALVEOLAR NERVE BLOCK:
A the mandibular teeth.
Block this branch of V3 as it enters the mandibular foramen.

770
Q

Cerebral cortex’s Gray matter consist externally of =

A

Cerebral cortex’s Gray matter consist externally of = (6 layers)

771
Q

Diencephalon contributes to =

A

Diencephalon contributes to = Rathke’s pouch (forming part of posterior pituitary).

772
Q

Ventral posterior medial (VPM) Nuclei of Thalamus controls =

A

Ventral posterior medial (VPM) Nuclei of Thalamus controls =Facial sensation including Pain.

773
Q

All cranial nerve motor nuclei have unilateral corticonuclear connections except=

A 
All cranial nerve motor nuclei have unilateral corticonuclear connections except=
■ CN VII: Upper third
muscles of facial
expression have
bilateral innervation.
■ CN XII: Genioglossus
muscles have = bilateral
motor innervation.
774
Q

All cranial nerve sensory nuclei have unilateral representation except =

A

All cranial nerve sensory nuclei have unilateral representation except = hearing.
Hearing is bilateral; Person cant go deaf in one ear from a stroke to the unilateral temporal area.

775
Q

Taste Sensation : Taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is the posterior 1/3 by =

A

Taste Sensation : Taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is CN VII via the = chorda tympani and the posterior 1/3 by = CN IX. CN X caries taste fibers from the = palate.

776
Q

PARASYMPATHETIC GANGLIA:
1: Pterygopalatine Ganglion supplies =

2: Otic Ganglion supplies =
3: Submandibular Ganglion supplies =
4: Ciliary Ganglion supplies =

A

PARASYMPATHETIC GANGLIA:

1: Pterygopalatine Ganglion supplies = Lacrimal Glands and Glands in Palate & Nose
2: Otic Ganglion supplies = Parotid Gland
3: Submandibular Ganglion supplies = SubMandibular, Sublingual small Salivary Glands.
4: Ciliary Ganglion supplies = Ciliary Muscles, Spincter pupillae, Dilator, Pupillae and Tarsal muscles.

777
Q

: The smallest cranial nerve and the only cranial nerve that exits from the = posterior surface of the brain stem.

A

Trochlear nerve: The smallest cranial nerve and the only cranial nerve that exits from the = posterior surface of the brain stem.

778
Q

Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and dilated pupil with =

A

Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and dilated pupil with = CN III injury (levator
palpebrae superioris and sphincter pupillae muscle).

779
Q

Lesion CN VI =

A

Lesion CN VI = eye persistently directed toward nose (because of lateral rectus).

780
Q

Horner’s syndrome:

A

Horner’s syndrome:
Lesion of oculosympathic pathway (sympathetics don’t come from CNs but run with them; come from superior cervical ganglion, ciliospinal center of Budge); miosis, ptosis, hemianhidrosis, apparent enophthalmos.

781
Q

Argyll Robertson pupil:

A

Argyll Robertson pupil:
Think prostitute’s pupil—accommodates but does not react; also associated with syphilis. No miosis (papillary constriction) with either direct or consensual light; does constrict with near stimulus (accommodation-
convergence). Occurs in = syphilis and diabetes.

782
Q

V1 and V2 of Trigeminal Nerve are purely =

and V3 Trigeminal Nerve is.

A

V1 and V2 of Trigeminal Nerve are purely = sensory and V3 Trigeminal Nerve is both = sensory and motor.

783
Q

The buccal nerve of V3 provides sensation to = _________ whereas the buccal branch of CN VII is

A

The buccal nerve of V3 provides sensation to = the cheek; whereas the buccal branch of CN VII is motor to the = buccinator muscle.

784
Q
  • Half life of transthyritin
  • Half life of TBG is
  • Half life of albumin Is
A
  • Half life of transthyritin I s2 days
  • Half life of TBG is 5 days
  • Half life of albumin Is 13 days
785
Q
  • Levels of TBG are increased in estrogen treated patients.

* Levels of TBGs are decreased by

A
  • Levels of TBG are increased in estrogen treated patients. Methadone, heroin, major tranquiliers, clofiberate
  • Levels of TBGs are decreased by glucocorticoids, adndorgens, danazole, and L asparginase(a chemotherapeutic drug){patient remains euthyroid coz level of T3 and T3 decrease due to feedback}
786
Q

•______________ inhibit binding of T3 and T4 with the TBG and produce effects similar to decreased TBGs{ patient remains euthyroid coz level of T3 and T3 decrease due to feedback}

A

• salicylates, phenytoin, mitonate(a cancer chemotherapeutic drug) and 5 florouracil inhibit binding of T3 and T4 with the TBG and produce effects similar to decreased TBGs{ patient remains euthyroid coz level of T3 and T3 decrease due to feedback}

787
Q

• Thyroid hormone binds with its receptors in ____________

A

• Thyroid hormone binds with its receptors in nucleus via ZINC FINGERS

788
Q

• Thyroid hormone increase the metabolism in all metabolically active tissues except

A

• Thyroid hormone increase the metabolism in all metabolically active tissues except UBLAST(uterus, brain(in adults), lymph nodes, anterior pituitary, spleen, testes)

789
Q

• Thyroid hormone donot increase the metabolism in ______ but is required for the

A

• Thyroid hormone donot increase the metabolism in uterus but is required for the normal menstrual cycle and fertility

790
Q

• Yellow tinge in hypothyroidism is produced due the ____________. Thyroid hormne is required for conversion of

A

• Yellow tinge in hypothyroidism is produced due the acconulation of carotene inblood stream. Thyroid hormne is required for conversion of carotene to Vit A in liver. Carotenimia os distinguished from the jaundice because it donot involves sclera

791
Q

• Vitamin deficiency syndromes may be precipitated in _________ coz when metabolic rate is increased the

A

• Vitamin deficiency syndromes may be precipitated in hyperthoiridism coz when metabolic rate is increased the demand of almost all vitamins is increased

792
Q

• Myxedema in hypothoiridism occurs due to

A

• Myxedema in hypothoiridism occurs due to retention of water by osmotic effect of protein complexes with the hyaluronic acid and chodroitin sulphate etc in the skin. With the administration of thyroid hormone the proteins are metablised and dieresis occurs until edema is relieved

793
Q

• Thyroid hormone increase the _______________ and increased the

A

• Thyroid hormone increase the glucose absorption from the GIT and increased the plasma glucose level rapidly after carbohydrate rich meal however it falls rapidly after sometime

794
Q

• Thyroid hormone increases the _____ receptors in liver lowering the ________

A

• Thyroid hormone increases the LDL receptors in liver lowering the plasma cholesterol levl

795
Q

• _________ is one disease that can be diagnosed on telephone….

A

• Myxedema is one disease that can be diagnosed on telephone….

796
Q

• Hyperthoiridosm causes

A

• Hyperthoiridosm causes increased pulse pressure

797
Q
  • ____ and _____ alpha increase the insulin resistance

* _____ and _______ decrease the insulin resistance

A
  • Resistin and TNF alpha increase the insulin resistant

* Leptin and adiponectin decrease it s resistance

798
Q

• Immediately after hypophysectomy the _______________ start to degenerate.

__________ remains normal due to effect of ____________ .

A

• Immediately after hypophysectomy the zona fasciculate and reticularis start to degenerate. Zona glomerulosa remains normal due to effect of angiotensin II. Ability of excretion of aldosteron secretion and Na preservation may hamper in long standing hypopituitrism due the absence of a pituitary factor that that maintains the responsiveness of zona glomerulosa.

799
Q

• Injections of ACTH or stimuli that cause endogenous secretion cause hypertrophy of _______ and _______ but actually causes atrophy of ________

A

• Injections of ACTH or stimuli that cause endogenous secretion cause hypertrophy of zona fasciculate and reticularis but actually causes atrophy of zona glomerulosa

800
Q

• Effect of dopamine in circulation blood Is unknown but it produces __________________. Elsewhere it produces ____________.

A

• Effect of dopamine in circulation blood Is unknown but it produces vasodilation in kidney and of mesenteric vessels. Elsewhere it produces vasoconstricton. It has a positive ionotropic acton by action on beta 1 receptors.the net effect of ibjection of moderated dose of dopamine is increase in systolic BP and no change in diastolic BP. By these properties it is used in ccardiogenic and traumatic shocks.

801
Q

• Adrenals release norepinephrine

Epinephrine secretion

A

• Adrenals release norepinephrine selectively in emotional stress in which the individual is familiar with. Epinephrine secretion increase in stress with which individual do not know what to expect.

802
Q

• Glucocorticoids increase the no of___________. They decrease the no of ____________________. They also decrease the _______________

A

• Glucocorticoids increase the no of neutrophils, platelets ns RBC in circulation. They decrease the no of eiosinophils, basophils and lymphocytes. They also decrease the size of lymph nodes and thymus.

803
Q

• 25OH cholecalciferol is converted to 1,25diOHcholcalciferol in _______________

A

• 25OH cholecalciferol is converted to 1,25diOHcholcalciferol in proximal convoluted tubules of kidney.

804
Q

• Sarcoidosis is associated with increase 1,25diOHchlcalciferol produced by

A

• Sarcoidosis is associated with increase 1,25diOHchlcalciferol produced by pulmonary macrophages upon stimulation by gamma interferon.

805
Q

• PIEBALDISM:

A

• PIEBALDISM: the patches of skin lacking melanin as a result of congenital defect of migration of pigment cell precursors from the nural crest during embryonic development. Vitelago is similar patchy loss of melanin but onset is after birth and is progressive

806
Q

• GH secretion Is inhibited by

A

• GH secretion Is inhibited by REM sleep, glucose, cortisol, FFA, medroxyprogesteron, and GH.

807
Q

• GH secretion is increased by

A

• GH secretion is increased by exercise, amino acid, glucagon, pyrogens, going to sleep, estrogen and androgens.

808
Q

• Blood testes barrier is formed by

A

• Blood testes barrier is formed by sertoli cells. Germ cells pass thru this barrier by breaking the tight junctions above them followed by reformation of junctions.

809
Q

• Menstrual blood is predominantly ________.

A

• Menstrual blood is predominantly arterial. 25% is venous in origin.

810
Q

• Human milk contains

A

• Human milk contains ALIAN more than cow milk. Ascorbic acid, Lactose, Iron, vit A, Nicotinic acid

811
Q

G1…
G1…
G1…
G1 Check point…

A

G1…Primary Growth , Proteins , Organelles , mRNA Synthesis )
G1…Also Called growth phase
G1… Longest phase ( 8to 10 Hours)
G1 Check point…To check if DNA is damaged

812
Q

S ….
S….
S…..

A

S ….DNA Replicate
S….Cytotoxic & cancer drugs act here to destroy DNA
S…..5 to 6 hours

813
Q

G2…
G2…
G2 Check point…

A

G2…Secondary growth ( between S phase & Mitosis)
G2…Short ( 3 to 4 hours)
G2 Check point… To check if DNA has replicated properly

814
Q 
MITOSIS / M Phase
M...
M...
M...
M...
A

MITOSIS / M Phase
M…Shortest (2 hours)
M… To see spindle assembly and alignment
M…nuclear content divide
M…genetic material is Chromosome (Genetic material is chromatid when NOT in M phase)

815
Q

Karyopiknosis index….

A

Karyopiknosis index…. Index of karyopiknotic nuclei of epithelial cells which exfoliate from vagina… Hormonal evaluation

816
Q

Best Test for chromosomal abnormalities is

A

Best Test for chromosomal abnormalities is Karyotyping

817
Q 
Barr Bodies....
Barr Bodies....
Barr Bodies....
Barr Bodies....
Barr Bodies....
Barr Bodies....
NO. of Barr bodies in OX .....
NO. of Barr bodies in XX...
NO. of Barr bodies in XXX....
A

Barr Bodies….Heterochromatin
Barr Bodies….have X chromosome
Barr Bodies….seen under light microscope
Barr Bodies….ABSENT in Turner
Barr Bodies….Scanty In Turner
Barr Bodies….Diagnostic for Turner
one Barr body in Klinfelter
NO. of Barr bodies in OX …..no Barr Bodies
NO. of Barr bodies in XX… 1 Barr Body
NO. of Barr bodies in XXX….2 Barr bodies

818
Q

1)Highest cholesterol content=

A

1)Highest cholesterol content=LDL.

819
Q

2)richest in triglycerides=

A

2)richest in triglycerides=chylomicron.

820
Q

3)Highest protein content=

A

3)Highest protein content=HDL.

821
Q

7)Antioxidants ACE=

A

7)Antioxidants ACE=vit a,c,e.

822
Q

8)Vit k(antiKagulant)=

A

8)Vit k(antiKagulant)=gamma carboxylation of factors(27910).

823
Q

9)essential fatty acids=

A

9)essential fatty acids=linolic acid & linolinec acid.

824
Q

11)amino acids necessary for PURINE synthesis

A

11)amino acids necessary for PURINE synthesis GAG(glycine,aspartate,glutamine).

825
Q

12)Bloting proceedures:::

southern blot=

NORTHERN blot=
western blot=

A

12)Bloting proceedures:::southern blot=DNA,NORTHERN blot=RNA,western blot=protein.

826
Q

15)renal failure z most common cause of

A

15)renal failure z most common cause of vit D deficiency.

827
Q

17)vit c z cofactor in conversion of

A

17)vit c z cofactor in conversion of dopamin to norepinephrine

828
Q

20)hypervitaminosis A=

A

20)hypervitaminosis A=scaly dermatitis.

829
Q

21)thiamine level z best monitered by=

A

21)thiamine level z best monitered by=transketolase level in RBC.

830
Q

22)increase carbohydrates=

A

22)increase carbohydrates=increase demand of thiamine.coz thiamine z important in ATP senthesis.

831
Q

23) used as coenzyme in fatty acid synthesis.

A

23)biotin(vit b7) z used as coenzyme in fatty acid synthesis.

832
Q

24)inovle in transamination of ALT & AST.

A

24)vit b6 inovle in transamination of ALT & AST.

833
Q

Principal source of energy to heart in healthy individual is ???

A
  1. Free fatty acids
834
Q

Aj J point of ECG what happens??

A

All part of ventricles are depolarized.

835
Q

Artificial pacemaker is connected to which part of heart?

A

Right ventricle

836
Q

Structure with richest blood supplyee?

A

Carotid bodies

837
Q

Dirotic notch in aortic pressure curve coincides with which heart sound?

A

S2 heart sound (second)

838
Q
  1. In rheumatic fever antibodies are formed against which protein??
839
Q
  1. Patient having prosthetic valve having IE ? Agent?
  2. Cardiac cirrhosis caused by?? RHF/LHF
  3. Tree bark appearance ??
  4. Most common heart tumors??
  5. Print metal angina?? St elevation / depression
A
  1. Strep epidernidis
  2. RHF
  3. Syphilitic heart disease
  4. Metastases
  5. St elevation
840
Q
  1. In JVP a wave shows?
  2. Carotid body responds to dec Po2 at which level ?
  3. Risk of ventricular rupture on which day of post MI??? 2 / 3-7/ 10/ 14
A
  1. Steal contraction
  2. <60 mmhg
  3. 3-7 (in goljan ) 5-10 days in ( first aid)
841
Q
  1. Coronary artery occlusion most commonly occurs in?
  2. Cardiac output =??
  3. Stroke Volume affected by?? Name three parameters
  4. Most posterior part of heart?
  5. Vasodilators decrease?? Preload/after load
  6. EF is the index of?
  7. Viscosity depends mostly on??
  8. Fixed splitting is seen in?
  9. S4 is in? Mid diastole/ late/ early
  10. Period of highest oxygen consumption?
A
  1. LAD
  2. ??HR*CO
  3. Contractility, preload, afterload
  4. Left atrium
  5. Afterload
  6. Ventricular contractility
  7. Hematocrit
  8. ASD
  9. n? late
  10. ?isovolumetric contraction
842
Q
  1. Isovolumetric relaxation?
  2. Expiration inc intensity of which side of heart sounds? Left/right
  3. Murmur of Mitral stenosis is best heard in which area?
  4. Myxomatoys degeneration causes which valvular lesion?
  5. Cardiac muscle action potential has plateau due to ??
  6. Rapid depolarization caused by?
  7. Pacemaker action potential occurs in??
  8. QRS complex shows??
  9. AV nodal delay is useful because??
  10. Lyme disease causes which heart block?
A
  1. Period between aortic valve closing and opening of mitral valve
  2. right
  3. Mitral area
  4. ? MVP
  5. Ca influx
  6. Massive K efflux
  7. SA AV node
  8. Ventricular depolarization
  9. Allows time for ventricular filling
  10. 3rd degree
843
Q
  1. Sawtooth appearance??
  2. Cushing triad??
  3. Aortic arch responds??? And transmits via???
  4. Highest blood flow per gran of tissue???
  5. Pulmonary vascular hypoxia cause?
  6. Autoregulation In brain caused by?
  7. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure good approximation of which pressure?
  8. Boot shape heart?
A
  1. Latrial flutter
  2. Hypertension, bradycardia and respiratory depression
  3. ?? Inc Bp only – vagus nerve
  4. ?? Kidney
  5. Vasoconstrictiin
  6. Co2(ph)
  7. Left atrial pressure
  8. TOF
844
Q
  1. Preductal coarctation of aorta associated with which congenital syn?
  2. Drug to close PDA?
  3. Infant of diabetic mother — > congenital defect??
  4. Hyperplasia onion skinning seen in??
  5. Most common site of atherosclerosis ??
  6. Thoracic aortic aneurysm associated with?
  7. Common cause of dear hiring first few hours after MI?
  8. Marker for reinfarction?
  9. V1-V2 —-> infarction location?
  10. Autoimmune pericarditis after MI?
  11. Sudden death in young athlete?
  12. Gold standard in first 6 hours of MI?
A
  1. ? Turner syn
  2. Indonethacin
  3. ??transposition of great vessels
  4. Malignant hypertension
  5. Abdominal aorta
  6. ? Hypertension
  7. Arrhythmia
  8. ?ckmb
  9. ? Anterioseptal
  10. ?i syn
  11. HOCM
  12. ECG
845
Q
  1. Etiology of dialated cardiomyopathy?
  2. Isolated right heart failure is due to???
  3. Heart failure cells ? LHF/RHF
  4. IV drug abusers endocarditis valves involved?
  5. Colon cancer having IE?? Organism
  6. In rheumatic fever early death die to??
  7. RF which type of hypersensitivity ?
  8. Atrial myxoma involves which site of heart?
  9. early lesion in rheumatic fever ??
  10. Most frequent primary cardiac tumor on children?
A
  1. Alcohol abuse, beriberi, cocaine use, Chaga disease, doxuebecin, hemochromatosis
  2. Cor pulmonale
  3. LHF
  4. Tricuspid
  5. . Strep bovis
  6. Myocarditis
  7. ? Type 2
  8. Left atrium
  9. MVP
  10. Rhabdomyosarcoma
846
Q
  1. Eosinophilia is seen in which vasculitis?
  2. Pulseless disease?
  3. Vasculitis associated with heavy smokers?
  4. Angiosarcoma associated with?
  5. Benign painful , red blue tumor under finger Nails?
  6. Vitamin causing hyperglycemia ?
  7. Torsa de pointes caused by drug??? Name 2
  8. Adenosine action time?
  9. Name 2 important function of digoxin?
  10. Which drugs decrease effect of bad cholesrterol ??
  11. Dysphagia is caused by enlargement of which part of heart ?
A
  1. Churg Strauss sys
  2. Takayasu
  3. Beurgers disease ( thromboangitis obliterans )
  4. chloride, thorium dioxide and arsenic
  5. Glomus tumor
  6. Niacin
  7. quinidine, sotalol and ibutilide
  8. 15sec
  9. Inhibition NaK atpase and vagus nerve stimulation
  10. Statins
  11. left atrium
847
Q

Things you should know about Cardiac markers for MI:

1) … ________ first comes and first goes (__________)
2) … ________ is called “lazy enzyme” because it comes late, and goes late ( ____________)
3) … _______ has the greatest sensitivity and specificity.
4) …The investigation of choice within first hour of MI is “ ________”
5) …” ________” is useful for confirmation of reinfarction as this enzyme disappears after 72 hours of MI.

  • ______ disappears after
  • _______ disappears after 72 hours.
  • ________disappears after 7 - 10 days.
  • ________ disappears after 14 days.
    Scenerio 1: CKMB of patient is normal. Trop-I is raised. _________ post MI patient.

Scenerio 2: CKMB and trop - I of patient is normal. LDH is raised. _______ MI patient.
This is all you should know about cardiac enzymes, and this covers each and every MCQ for part 1. If any thing is missing, please add. Thanks

A

Things you should know about Cardiac markers for MI:
1)… Myoglobin first comes and first goes (rises first, disappears first)
2)…LDH is called “lazy enzyme” because it comes late, and goes late (rises after 24 hours and remain till 14 days)
3)…Trop-I has the greatest sensitivity and specificity.
4)…The investigation of choice within first hour of MI is “CKMB”
5)…“CKMB” is useful for confirmation of reinfarction as this enzyme disappears after 72 hours of MI. So, if a patient comes after 72 hours of initial infarction, and you are suspecting a reinfarction, go for “CKMB”.
- Myoglobin disappears after 24 to 48 hours.
- CKMB disappears after 72 hours.
- Trop I disappears after 7 - 10 days.
- LDH disappears after 14 days.
Scenerio 1: CKMB of patient is normal. Trop-I is raised. He is 3 - 10 days post MI patient.
Scenerio 2: CKMB and trop - I of patient is normal. LDH is raised. He is 10 - 14 days MI patient.
This is all you should know about cardiac enzymes, and this covers each and every MCQ for part 1. If any thing is missing, please add. Thanks

848
Q

• Stimulation of Right vagus

A

• Stimulation of Right vagus slows the heart by inhibiting the SA node an stimulation of Left vagus nerve mainly slows the AV conduction

849
Q

• Stimulation of Right stallete ganglion

A

• Stimulation of Right stallete ganglion accelerates the heart and stimulation of Left stellate ganglion shortens the AV nodal conduction

850
Q

• SA node discharge ________ in __________ temperature

A

• SA node discharge increases with increase in temperature justifying tachycardia in fever

851
Q

• MURMURS:

aortic/ pulmonary valves… stenosis=
insufficiency=

Mitral or tricuspid valves… stenosis =, insufficiency=

A

• MURMURS: aortic/ pulmonary valves… stenosis=systolic murmur, insufficiency=diastolic
Mitral or tricuspid valves… stenosis =diastolic murmur, insufficiency systolic

852
Q

• _______ don’t cause any change on Cardiac output…(its an MCQ…)

A

• Sleep don’t cause any change on Cardiac output…(its an MCQ…)

853
Q

• Athletes have greater

A

• Athletes have greater end systolic volume and stroke volumes and lower heart rates

854
Q

• Hematocrit is %age of blood occupied by ____________…

but according to ganong bcq ans is hemotocrit is ______________

A

• Hematocrit is %age of blood occupied by RBCs…

but according to ganong bcq ans is hemotocrit is all platelets,rbc,WBC

855
Q

• Noradrenergic fibers end on the

A

• Noradrenergic fibers end on the vessels in all parts of the body which are mainly vasoconstrictor in function.. resistance vessels in skeletal muscles are innervated by VASODILATOR fibers which although trevel thru the sympethetics but are CHOLINERGIC….. there is some evidence that vessels in heart, lungs , kidneys, and ureters also receive cholinergic innervations

856
Q

• The afferent nerve fibers from the carotid sinus and carotid body form

A

• The afferent nerve fibers from the carotid sinus and carotid body form a distinct branch of glossopharyngeal nerve called CAROTID SINUS NERVE. The carotid sinus nerve and vagal fibers from the aortc arch commonly called the BUFFER NERVES

857
Q

During shock the vasoconstriction is most marked in _______

A

During shock the vasoconstriction is most marked in SKIN

858
Q

SA node is supplied by ____…
AV node is supplied by ____
LBB is supplied by _____….
RBB is supplied by _____…

A

SA node is supplied by RCA…
AV node is supplied by RCA
LBB is supplied by RCA….
RBB is supplied by LCA…

859
Q

Ground Glass on X_Ray clue to __________…

Storm like Appearance on x-ray Clue to _______…..

A

Ground Glass on X_Ray clue to ASBESTOSIS…

Storm like Appearance on x-ray Clue to Silicosis…..

860
Q

Known hypertensive patient with Chest Pain ECG ST segment elevation but Trop -T is negative… most likely diagnosis is..

A

Known hypertensive patient with Chest Pain ECG ST segment elevation but Trop -T is negative… most likely diagnosis is..
Myocardial Infarction not Pericarditis…..

861
Q

Young Female with Diffuse Loss of Vibration Sense…. Most Likely investigation is…

A

Young Female with Diffuse Loss of Vibration Sense…. Most Likely investigation is…
Gastric Biopsy….. not X-Ray spine

862
Q

Patient Blood Pressure became sudden high when he took

A

Patient Blood Pressure became sudden high when he took

Coffee»»» Chocolate

863
Q

1))) deltoid ligament ……

> > > > > > calcaneofibular logament injured during

A

1))) deltoid ligament …… when foot is EVERTED excessively
anterior talofibular»»» calcaneofibular logament injured during excessive INVERSION

864
Q

2))) Inversion and Eversion take place at _________ Joint….
while Dorsi and Plantar Flexion Take Place at ________ joint…

A

2))) Inversion and Eversion take place at Subtalar Joint….

while Dorsi and Plantar Flexion Take Place at ANKLE joint…

865
Q

During Sleep which Hormone increases

_______»»»»»» ________….

A

During Sleep which Hormone increases

GH»»»»»»Cortisol….

866
Q

Three Calculations U are Expected to master…… Repeated in All term…

1) Mean Arterial pressure
2) Alveolar ventilation
3) Clearance…

A

Three Calculations U are Expected to master…… Repeated in All term…

1) Mean Arterial pressure
2) Alveolar ventilation
3) Clearance…

867
Q

IgE released from

Histamine releases from…

A

IgE released from Mast Cell»»»> Basophils..
Histamine releases from…
Mast cell»»»Basophils

868
Q

1) ) Natural Defense Mechanism against Neoplasia is ________……
2) Tumor Oncogenes involved in

A

1) ) Natural Defense Mechanism against Neoplasia is Apoptosis…… Not Antibodies not Macrophage…
2) Tumor Oncogenes involved in Cell Survival. Not Shortened G1 phase

869
Q

Mother Blood Group A having 2 babies… one baby has o and other has AB blood Group.
Which Blood Group Father has Having.. its.

A

Mother Blood Group A having 2 babies… one baby has o and other has AB blood Group.
Which Blood Group Father has Having.. its. BO blood group genotype

870
Q

Kallman Syndrome Confused Many Students in 18 November 20 Novembet online and 1 January as well. …
D’’’'’nt Confuse with X or Y Chromosome…….. as did it many before
Clear Cut Answer is LEsion in

A

Kallman Syndrome Confused Many Students in 18 November 20 Novembet online and 1 January as well. …
D’’’'’nt Confuse with X or Y Chromosome…….. as did it many before
Clear Cut Answer is LEsion in Arcuate Nucleus

871
Q

Aspirin can causes both Acidosis and Alkalosis…….. .. it was about intoxication and ________ is Right Answer

A

Aspirin can causes both Acidosis and Alkalosis…….. .. it was about intoxication and COMA is Right Answer

872
Q

Max Renal Reabsorbed Substance is

A

Max Renal Reabsorbed Substance is GLUCOSE……

Neither Choose INULIN NOR SODIUM

873
Q

Facts

a) Blood Buffer ______
b) intraCelluar Buffer _______
c) RBCs Buffer ______

A

Facts

a) Blood Buffer HCO3
b) intraCelluar Buffer Proteins
c) RBCs Buffer HB

874
Q

Benzodiazepine Causes marked Decrease Blood Pressure in

A

Benzodiazepine Causes marked Decrease Blood Pressure in HYPOVOLUMIC PATIENT….. NOT OLD AGE

875
Q

Bile Salts

Bile Acid

A

Bile Salts Water soluble

Bile Acid Lipid Soluble..

876
Q

Biceps Reflex Physician when strikes tendon….. Checks

A

Biceps Reflex Physician when strikes tendon….. Checks Muscle Spindle……… NOT Golgi tendon Organ……….

877
Q

When Blood Pressure Drops…… What Happens????

Ans is

A

When Blood Pressure Drops…… What Happens????

Ans is Decrease Stretch Baroreceptor…..

878
Q

Premalignant Condition is

A

Premalignant Condition is

ERYTHROPLEKIA»»»>LEUKOPLEKIA

879
Q 
Patient With Jaundice TOC is 
a) AST
b) AST plus Bilirubin
c)) ALP
D)) ALP Plus Bilirubin
A 
Patient With Jaundice TOC is 
a) AST
b) AST plus Bilirubin
c)) ALP
D)) ALP Plus Bilirubin
its AST plus Bilirubin....
880
Q

Which of following Decreases Potassium Secretion…..

a) Addison disease
b) Potassium sparing Diuretics…

A

Which of following Decreases Potassium Secretion…..
a) Addison disease
b) Potassium sparing Diuretics…
Its Potassium Sparing Diuretics…..

881
Q

Midway Point Between Anterior Superior ilac Supine and Pubic Tubercle is ____________…..
Mid way Between Anterior Superior iliac Supine and Symphysis Pubis is ________..

A

Midway Point Between Anterior Superior ilac Supine and Pubic Tubercle is FEMORAL NERVE…..
Mid way Between Anterior Superior iliac Supine and Symphysis Pubis is FEMORAL ARTERY..

882
Q

GVE vagus nerve for preganglionic fiber arises from –

A

GVE vagus nerve for preganglionic fiber arises from – Dorsal nucleus.
D’nt choose Nucleus Ambigus and Solitarius

883
Q

During Inspiration. true is

Remember HR

A

During Inspiration. true is

Remember HR increases

884
Q

About Cerebral Arteries is True….

A

About Cerebral Arteries is True…. once entered into Brain Substance Never Anastomose….

885
Q

26) nucleus cuneatus and nucleus

A

26) nucleus cuneatus and nucleus gracilis lesion caises asteriognosia

886
Q

Urethra Injuries ::::
1 Rupture of Anterior Wall … Caused by Fracture of Pelvis&raquo_space; Leads to extravasation of Urine in Retropubic Space (Retzius Space)
(its Extraperitoneal )
2 Rupture of Posterior Wall … Caused by Compression
Injury&raquo_space; Leads to extravasation of Urine in the peritoneal cavity
3 Injury of Urehtra ABOVE the urogenital Diaphragm&raquo_space; Damages the Posterior Urehtra&raquo_space;Leads to extravasation of Urine in Retropubic Space (Retzius Space)
4 Injury of Urehtra BELOW the urogenital Diaphragm&raquo_space;Damages the Anterior Urethra» Leads to extravasation of Urine in SUPERFICIAL Perineal Pouch
…as in Below injury it will lead to damage of Both the Bulbous and Membranous Urehtra
… its the most Common type of Injury ,,e.g Boy Slips of a bicycle and falls on the crossbar
5 Rupture of Penile Urethra&raquo_space; Pure Anterior Urethral Injury&raquo_space; Leads to Extravasation of Urin in Scrotum
6 Rupture of Membranous Urethra&raquo_space; Leads to Extravasation of Urin in Deep Perniral Pouch /Space
7 Rupture of Bulbous Urethra&raquo_space; Leads to Extravasation of Urin in Superficial Pouch / Space
in a NUTSHEL ::::::
Rupture of Anterior Wall&raquo_space; Urine in Retropubic Space (Retzius Space)
Rupture of Posterior Wall&raquo_space; Urine in the Peritoneal Cavity
Injury of Urehtra ABOVE the urogenital Diaphragm
Injury of Urehtra BELOW the urogenital Diaphragm
you can remeber this Mnemonic for this one
PS : this Managing Director is full of Bull S
PS : this MD is full of BS
Rupture of Penile Urethra&raquo_space; Extravasation of Urin in Scrotum
Rupture of Membranous Urethra&raquo_space; Extravasation of Urin in Deep Perniral Pouch
Rupture of Bulbous Urethra&raquo_space; Extravasation of Urin in Superficial Pouch

A

Urethra Injuries ::::
1 Rupture of Anterior Wall … Caused by Fracture of Pelvis&raquo_space; Leads to extravasation of Urine in Retropubic Space (Retzius Space)
(its Extraperitoneal )
2 Rupture of Posterior Wall … Caused by Compression
Injury&raquo_space; Leads to extravasation of Urine in the peritoneal cavity
3 Injury of Urehtra ABOVE the urogenital Diaphragm&raquo_space; Damages the Posterior Urehtra&raquo_space;Leads to extravasation of Urine in Retropubic Space (Retzius Space)
4 Injury of Urehtra BELOW the urogenital Diaphragm&raquo_space;Damages the Anterior Urethra» Leads to extravasation of Urine in SUPERFICIAL Perineal Pouch
…as in Below injury it will lead to damage of Both the Bulbous and Membranous Urehtra
… its the most Common type of Injury ,,e.g Boy Slips of a bicycle and falls on the crossbar
5 Rupture of Penile Urethra&raquo_space; Pure Anterior Urethral Injury&raquo_space; Leads to Extravasation of Urin in Scrotum
6 Rupture of Membranous Urethra&raquo_space; Leads to Extravasation of Urin in Deep Perniral Pouch /Space
7 Rupture of Bulbous Urethra&raquo_space; Leads to Extravasation of Urin in Superficial Pouch / Space
in a NUTSHEL ::::::
Rupture of Anterior Wall&raquo_space; Urine in Retropubic Space (Retzius Space)
Rupture of Posterior Wall&raquo_space; Urine in the Peritoneal Cavity
Injury of Urehtra ABOVE the urogenital Diaphragm
Injury of Urehtra BELOW the urogenital Diaphragm
you can remeber this Mnemonic for this one
PS : this Managing Director is full of Bull S
PS : this MD is full of BS
Rupture of Penile Urethra&raquo_space; Extravasation of Urin in Scrotum
Rupture of Membranous Urethra&raquo_space; Extravasation of Urin in Deep Perniral Pouch
Rupture of Bulbous Urethra&raquo_space; Extravasation of Urin in Superficial Pouch

887
Q

patient with Palpitations with Free T3 High and TSH is LOW… CRH is Given and TSH becomes High….

A

patient with Palpitations with Free T3 High and TSH is LOW… CRH is Given and TSH becomes High…. Problem is Within Thyroid Gland.

888
Q

isometric contraction is differed from isovolumetric contraction ON BASIS OF

A

isometric contraction is differed from isovolumetric contraction ON BASIS OF HIGH PHOSPHATE ENERGY USAGE

889
Q

Gastric motility is Decreased by ____________…..

Gastric EMPTYING is INCREASED by _________…… REALLY REPEATED AND TRICKY

A

Gastric motility is Decreased by Distension….. Gastric EMPTYING is INCREASED by DISTESION…… REALLY REPEATED AND TRICKY

890
Q

CLOt Retraction is Mediated by ____________……

A

CLOt Retraction is Mediated by Thrombsthenin……

clot retraction means help in cloting

891
Q

first Line of defense against foreign is

A

first Line of defense against foreign is TISSUE MACROPHAGE not NEUTROPHIL

892
Q

receptor for IGE is present on

A

receptor for IGE is present on BASOPHIL.. not EOSINOPHIL….

893
Q

B-12 deficiency _______ Ataxia…..

A

B-12 deficiency Sensory Ataxia….. not MOTOR ATAXIA

894
Q

major stress hormone is

A

major stress hormone is CORTISOL&raquo_space;»>ACTH»»>adrenaline

895
Q

Hallmark of HIV is Proliferation of Virus ________….

And

Hallmark of AIDS is

A

Hallmark of HIV is Proliferation of Virus inside T-cell…. And Hallmark of AIDS is progroessive immune system deficiency…… Tricky

896
Q

Highest Sodium is in ______

11) HIghest Cholestrol is IN

A

Highest Sodium is in SOUP… not BREAD

11) HIghest Cholestrol is IN EGG not RED MEAT….. .

897
Q

10) moat common Fractured Bone is

A

10) moat common Fractured Bone is TIBIA not FEMUR

898
Q

Defecation is caused by _______..

Defecation Reflex is caused by

A

Defecation is caused by Mass Movement.. Defecation Reflex is caused by Gastrocolic Reflex

899
Q

Major Determinant of CO is….

A

Major Determinant of CO is VR….

VR is also Major factor for Mean Systemic Filling Pressure..

900
Q

Intrafusal central Portion is

A

Intrafusal central Portion is Muscle Spindle which is sensory portion Stimulated to STRETCH.. Deactivated When Muscle CONTRACTS…….. most repeated mcq of 2015…
MNEMONIC.. Spindle has S.. AND Spin has S… spin is ALWASYS central….

901
Q

) intrafusal innervate by

A

) intrafusal innervate by Gamma A neuron…

mnemonic Gamma Is END and END IS to Enter(intra) to Heaven for Muslim

902
Q

extrafusal innervated by

A

extrafusal innervated by Alpha A motor Neuron…..

Mnemonic Extra always Gets A grade

903
Q

S1 ____________________ and S2 ______________

A

S1 isovolumetric contraction and S2 isovolumetric Relaxation..
Mneomonic… Relaxation needs time so isovolmetric Relaxation S2…
q

904
Q

HPV virus After 2 years causes

A

HPV virus After 2 years causes Cervical Dysplasia.. Not Carcinoma…..

905
Q
  • Flexion and extension takes place in ________ section

* Adduction and abduction take place in _______ section

A
  • Flexion and extension takes place in sagittal section

* Adduction and abduction take place in coronal section

906
Q

• Hair follicles are invaginations of

A

• Hair follicles are invaginations of epidermis into the dermis.

907
Q
  • Sebaceous glands lie within the
  • Sweat glands expand
  • Sebaceous glands are not present in
  • Sweat glands are not present on
A
  • Sebaceous glands lie within the dermis and pour their secretion, the sebem ONTO the shaft of hairs.
  • Sweat glands expand full thickness of dermis and their extremity may lie in superficial fascia. They are the most deeply placed structure of all appandeges.
  • Sebaceous glands are not present in lips, palms, sides of fingers, glans penis and clitoris, labia minora and internal surfaces of labia majora, soles, sides of feet and sides of toes.
  • Sweat glands are not present on red margins of lips, nail buds, glans penis, clitoris,
908
Q
  • Boil is infection of
  • Carbuncle is
  • Sebaceous cyst most frequently occurs at ______.
A
  • Boil is infection of hair follicle and sebaceous gland.
  • Carbuncle is staphylococcal infection of superficial fascia. It usually occurs at nape of neck and starts as infection of hair follicle or group of follicles.
  • Sebaceous cyst most frequently occurs at scalp.
909
Q

• Partial thickness burn heals from the cells of

A

• Partial thickness burn heals from the cells of hair follicles, sebaceous and sweat glands and from the cells of edges of burn. A burn that extends deeper than sweat gland heals slowly and only from edges.

910
Q

Nerve to muscle is a _______ nerve,____% is motor and ____% is sensory.

A

Nerve to muscle is a mixed nerve, 60% is motor and 40% is sensory.

911
Q

• Primary cartilageonus joints are those n which the bones are united by plate of ________. Examples are union _____________ & cartilagenou joint are those in which the bones are joined by fibrocartilage and articular surfaces are covered by __________. Example are joints

A
  • Primary cartilageonus joints are those n which the bones are united by plate of hayaline cartilage. Examples are union b/w epiphysis and diaphysis and b/w first rib and manubrium.
  • Secondry cartilagenou joint are those in which the bones are joined by fibrocartilage and articular surfaces are covered by hyaline cartilage. Example are joints b/w vertebral bodies and the symphesis pubis.
912
Q

HILTON’s LAW.

A

HILTON’s LAW. Sensory Nerve supplying the joint also supplies the muscles that cause movement on that joint and the skin overlying the insertion of these muscles.

913
Q

Flat bones are composed of

A

Flat bones are composed of outer and inner layer of compact bone called the TABLES and middle layer of cancellous bone the DIPOLE. Scapula is irregular but is included in flat bones.

914
Q

In bone the extracellular matrix is __________.

A

In bone the extracellular matrix is calcified.

915
Q

• Two sympethetic chains end below by joining together to form a single ganglion the

A

• Two sympethetic chains end below by joining together to form a single ganglion the GANGLION IMPAR.

916
Q
  • Preganglionic are

* Postganglionic are

A
  • Preganglionic are myelinated adnd type B fibers.

* Postganglionic are nonmyelinated and type C fibers

917
Q

• Lymphatic vessels are absent in

A

• Lymphatic vessels are absent in CNS, eyeball, internal ear, epidermis of skin, cartilage, bone.

918
Q

• In certain areas of bodies especially the tips of fingers and toes the arteries and vein connect directly without intervention of capillaries. These areas are called

A

• In certain areas of bodies especially the tips of fingers and toes the arteries and vein connect directly without intervention of capillaries. These areas are called arteriovenous anastomosis

919
Q

• Tendons invaginate the synovial sheath from a side and are suspended by ___.

A

• Tendons invaginate the synovial sheath from a side and are suspended by mesotendons. Mesotendons transmit the blood vessels. In areas where wide range of movement is there these mesotendons remain as vinulae.

920
Q

Herpes encephalitis –>

A

Herpes encephalitis –> temporal lobe calicification

921
Q

Obese woman, papilloedema/headache –>

A

Benign Intercanial Hypertention.

922
Q

Drug induced pneumonitis –>

A

Drug induced pneumonitis –> methotrexate or amiodarone.

923
Q
  1. foreign travel, macpap rash/flu like illnes –>
A
  1. foreign travel, macpap rash/flu like illnes –> HIV acute.
924
Q
  1. bullae on hands and fragule SKIN torn by minor trauma –>
A
  1. bullae on hands and fragule SKIN torn by minor trauma –> porphyria cutanea tarda.
925
Q
  1. Splenectomy –> need
A
  1. Splenectomy –> need pneumococcal vaccine AT LEAST 2 weeks pre-op and for life.
926
Q
  1. middle aged man with KNEE arthritis –>
A
  1. middle aged man with KNEE arthritis –> gonococcal sepsis (older people -> Staph).
927
Q

electrolytes disturbance causing confusion –

A

electrolytes disturbance causing confusion – low/high Na.

928
Q

. contraindications lung Surgery –>

A

. contraindications lung Surgery –> FEV dec bp

929
Q

1.5 cm difference btwn kidneys -> Renal artery stenosis –>

A

1.5 cm difference btwn kidneys -> Renal artery stenosis –> Magnetic resonance angiogram.

930
Q
  1. severe retroorbital, daily headache, lacrimation –>
A

cluster headache.

931
Q

pemphigus –

pemphigoid –

A

pemphigus – involves mouth (mucus membranes), pemphigoid – less serious NOT mucosa.

932
Q

insulinoma ->

933
Q

Inf MI, artery invlived ->

A

Inf MI, artery invlived -> Right coronary artert.

934
Q

Tumor compressing Respiratory tract –> investigation:

A

Tumor compressing Respiratory tract –> investigation: flow volume loop.

935
Q

Horners – sweating lost in upper face only – lesion

A

Horners – sweating lost in upper face only – lesion proximal to common carotid artery.

936
Q

Internuclear opthalmoplegia:

A

Internuclear opthalmoplegia: medial longitudinal fasciculus connects CN nucleus 3-4. Ipsilateral adduction palsy, contralateral nystagmus. Aide memoire (TRIES TO YANK THE ipsilateral BAD eye ACROSS THE nose ). Convergence retraction nystagmus, but convergence reflex is normal.

937
Q

Progressive Supranuclear palsy:

A

Progressive Supranuclear palsy: Steel Richardson. Absent voluntary downward gaze, normal dolls eye . i.e. Occulomotor nuclei intact, supranuclear Pathology .

938
Q

Perinauds syndrome:

A

Perinauds syndrome: dorsal midbrain syndrome, damaged midrain and superior colliculus: impaired upgaze (cf PSNP), lid retraction, convergence preserved. Causes: pineal tumor, stroke, hydrocephalus, MS.

939
Q

diagnostic test for asthma ->

A

diagnostic test for asthma -> morning dip in PEFR >20%.

940
Q

bisphosphonates:inhibit

A

bisphosphonates:inhibit osteoclast activity, prevent steroid incduced osteoperosis (vitamin D also).

941
Q

returned from airline flight, TIA->

A

returned from airline flight, TIA-> paradoxical embolus do TOE.

942
Q

mono-artropathy with thiazide ->

A

mono-artropathy with thiazide -> gout (neg birefringence). NO ALLOPURINOL for acute.

943
Q

painful 3rd nerve palsy ->

A

painful 3rd nerve palsy -> posterior communicating artery aneurysm till proven otherwise

944
Q

late complication of scleroderma –>

A

late complication of scleroderma –> pumonaryhypertention plus/minus fibrosis.

945
Q

causes of erythema mutliforme:

A

causes of erythema mutliforme: lamotrigine

946
Q

vomiting, abdominal pain, hypothyroidism ->

A

vomiting, abdominal pain, hypothyroidism -> Addisonian crisis (TFT typically abnormal in this setting DO NOT give thyroxine).

947
Q

mouth/genital ulcers and oligarthritis ->

A

mouth/genital ulcers and oligarthritis -> behcets (also eye /SKIN lesions, DVT)

948
Q

mixed drug overdose most important step ->

A

mixed drug overdose most important step -> Nacetylcysteine (time dependent prognosis)

949
Q

cavernous sinus syndrome -

A

cavernous sinus syndrome - 3rd nerve palsy, proptosis, periorbital swlling, conj injectn
66. asymetric parkinsons -> likely to be idiopathic

950
Q

. Sensitivity –>

A

. Sensitivity –> TP/(TP plus FN) e.g. For SLE - ANA highly sens, dsDNA:highly specific

951
Q

RR is 8%. NNT is —->

A

RR is 8%. NNT is —-> 100/8 –> 50/4 –> 25/2 –> 13.5

952
Q

ipsilateral ataxia, Horners, contralateral loss pain/temp –>

A

ipsilateral ataxia, Horners, contralateral loss pain/temp –> PICA stroke (lateral medulary syndrome of Wallenburg)

953
Q

Diagnosis of CLL –>

A

Diagnosis of CLL –> immunophenotyping NOT cytogenetics, NOT bone marrow

954
Q

Prognostic factors for AML ->

A

Prognostic factors for AML -> bm karyotype (good/poor/standard)&raquo_space; WCC at diagnosis.

955
Q

miscariage, DVT, stroke –>

A

miscariage, DVT, stroke –> LUPUS anticoagulant –> lifelong anticoagulation

956
Q

Hb elevated, dec ESR ->

A

Hb elevated, dec ESR -> polycythaemua (2ndry if paO2 low)

957
Q

mitral stenosis:

A

mitral stenosis: loud S1 (soft s1 if severe), opening snap.. Immobile valve -> no snap.

958
Q

pain, numbness lateral upper thigh –>

A

pain, numbness lateral upper thigh –> meralgia paraesthesia (lat cutaneous nerve compression usally by by ing ligament)

959
Q

40 mg hidrocortisone divided doses (bd) –>

A

40 mg hidrocortisone divided doses (bd) –> 10 mg prednisolone (ie. Prednislone is x4 stronger)

960
Q

Diptheria ->

A

Diptheria -> exudative pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, cardio and neuro toxicity.

961
Q

Indurated plaques on cheeks, scarring alopecia, hyperkeratosis over hair follicles -»

A

Indurated plaques on cheeks, scarring alopecia, hyperkeratosis over hair follicles -»Discoid LUPUS

962
Q

PASS———->(p)Pulmonary and (a)aortic (s)stenosis me (s) SYSTOLIC MURMUR..

A

PASS———->(p)Pulmonary and (a)aortic (s)stenosis me (s) SYSTOLIC MURMUR..
Vice Versa for Mitral and Tricuspid Stenosis (DIASTOLIC MURMUR)…
PAID————–>(p)Pulmonary and (a)Aortic (i) Insufficiency(regurgitation) me (d)DIASTOLIC murmur
Vice versa for Mitral and Tricuspid regurgitation..(SYSTOLIC MURMUR)

963
Q

Which induction agent produces cardiac stability?.

A

Which induction agent produces cardiac stability? Etomidate.

964
Q
  1. Lead pipe rigidity is seen in –
  2. Cog wheel rigidity is seen –
  3. Claspknife spasticity is seen –
A
  1. Lead pipe rigidity is seen in – extrapyramidal lesions
  2. Cog wheel rigidity is seen – extrapyramidal lesions
  3. Claspknife spasticity is seen – UMN lesions
965
Q

. Rose Waaler test is done for?

A

. Rose Waaler test is done for? Rheumatoid arthritis

966
Q

Cell best for chromosomal study?

A

Cell best for chromosomal study? Lymphocytes

967
Q

Edema causes by plasma protein level below?

A

Edema causes by plasma protein level below? 50%

968
Q

Acid phosphate is specific to which cell?

A

Acid phosphate is specific to which cell? Monocytes

969
Q
  1. NF1 - ________ gene - chromosome

11. NF2- __________ gene - chromosome

A
  1. NF1 - neurofibrin gene - chromosome 17

11. NF2- merlin gene - chromosome 22

970
Q

Feeding, hunger, thirst center ?

Stiety center ?

A

Feeding, hunger, thirst center ? Lateral hypothalamus ( remember when we are hungery we use our lateral limbs, our hands for eating)
17. Stiety center ? Ventromedial nucleus ( remember when we alot our size increases ventromedially)

971
Q

Lanugo hair start forming at which age of intrauterine life?

A

Lanugo hair start forming at which age of intrauterine life? 5 months

972
Q

Important MCQs points about posterior pituitary hormones
1) includes vasopressin(ADH) and oxytocin..
2).both are nanopepide.
3) synthesized by hypothalamus(not pituitary)
4) stored and secreted by posterior pituitary gland..
5) originates from 2 nuclei..
Supraoptic and paraventricular..
but ADH is mainly originates in SUPRAOPTIC and oxytocin in PARAVENTRICULAR nuclei.. ( formula to REMEMBER is… ADH maintains Sodium balance.. in…Supraoptic and oxytocin causes Parturation(Labour) in Paraventricular…
6) powerful stimulus for ADH secretion is NAUSEA..
7) ADH mainly acts on late distal tubules (also on collecting ducts) via V2 receptors acting on aquaporin 2 to increase water permeability..
8) ADH also acts via V1 receptor to cause vasoconstriction..
9) oxytocin causes milk ejection from breast… not milk production ( which is by prolactin)..
10) oxytocin secretion is stimulated by suckling… cervical dilatation and orgasm…
«»

A

Important MCQs points about posterior pituitary hormones
1) includes vasopressin(ADH) and oxytocin..
2).both are nanopepide.
3) synthesized by hypothalamus(not pituitary)
4) stored and secreted by posterior pituitary gland..
5) originates from 2 nuclei..
Supraoptic and paraventricular..
but ADH is mainly originates in SUPRAOPTIC and oxytocin in PARAVENTRICULAR nuclei.. ( formula to REMEMBER is… ADH maintains Sodium balance.. in…Supraoptic and oxytocin causes Parturation(Labour) in Paraventricular…
6) powerful stimulus for ADH secretion is NAUSEA..
7) ADH mainly acts on late distal tubules (also on collecting ducts) via V2 receptors acting on aquaporin 2 to increase water permeability..
8) ADH also acts via V1 receptor to cause vasoconstriction..
9) oxytocin causes milk ejection from breast… not milk production ( which is by prolactin)..
10) oxytocin secretion is stimulated by suckling… cervical dilatation and orgasm…
«»

973
Q

)… insulin is secreted by cells…in…. ______ islets region.

2) … glucagon is secreted by cells…in… ______ islets region
3) …both are inhibited by ______..secreted by _______ cells…
4) …both secretion is stimulated by…..1@______. 2@. ________

A

)… insulin is secreted by beta cells…in…. central islets region.

2) … glucagon is secreted by alpha cells…in…outer islets region
3) …both are inhibited by somatostatin..secreted by delta cells…
4) …both secretion is stimulated by…..1@ Inc AMINO ACIDS. 2@. Ach

974
Q

5) …Inc BLOOD GLUCOSE stimulates _______ secretion…but… inhibits _______ secretion.
6) …Inc FATTY ACIDS _______ insulin secretion…but… _______ glucagon secretion.
7) …norepinephrine and epinephrine _______ glucagon secretion…but… _______ insulin secretion.
8) …insulin ________ glucagon secretion…but…glucagon(growth hormone,cortisol and GIP) _______ insulin secretion.
9) …CCK stimulates _________ secretion.
10) insulin _______ blood glucose ( _____________________ )..but… glucagon ________ blood glucose (____________)
11) … __________ decreases blood fatty acids and keto acids..but… ______ inc blood fatty acid and keto acids
12) … ____________ decreases blood K+ concentration.
13) … ____________ increases urea production.
14) …insulin is _________ but glucagon is __________…

A

5) …Inc BLOOD GLUCOSE stimulates insulin secretion…but… inhibits glucagon secretion.
6) …Inc FATTY ACIDS stimulates insulin secretion…but… inhibits glucagon secretion.
7) …norepinephrine and epinephrine stimulates glucagon secretion…but… inhibits insulin secretion.
8) …insulin inhibits glucagon secretion…but…glucagon(growth hormone,cortisol and GIP) stimulates insulin secretion.
9) …CCK stimulates glucagon secretion.
10) insulin decreases blood glucose (by inc glucose uptake,glycogenisis and Dec in glycogenolysis,gluconeogenisis)..but… glucagon increase blood glucose ( by inc glycogenolysis, gluconeogenisis)
11) …insulin decreases blood fatty acids and keto acids..but…glucagon inc blood fatty acid and keto acids
12) … insulin decreases blood K+ concentration.
13) …glucagon increases urea production.
14) …insulin is ANABOLIC but glucagon is CATABOLIC…

975
Q

In children and in pregnancy———

A

In children and in pregnancy———>Hep A

976
Q

Most Lethal is in pregnancy——–>

A

Most Lethal is in pregnancy——–>Hep E

“E” for Hep E” “E”,for Epidemics…

977
Q

MOst common for HCC is

A

MOst common for HCC is hepB

978
Q

Most lethal is ————>

Most common for chronic hepatitis is

A

Most lethal is ————>Hep D

Most common for chronic hepatitis is Hep C

979
Q

1) if asked acute liver failure in hepatitis than ans is __________
2) IF asked only necrosis in viral hepatitis than ans is ____________

But
if asked acute massive necrosis in hepatitis then ans is __________

A

1)if asked acute liver failure in hepatitis than ans is prolonged PT also decrease in factor 5 has got importance
2)IF asked only necrosis in viral hepatitis than ans is increase SGPT reference goljan page 470 4th edition..
But
if asked acute massive necrosis in hepatitis then ans is increase in neutrophils..
for example in acute Myocardial infarction..
there is coagulative necrosis and neutrophils counts raises

980
Q

Cingulate gyrus blood supply =

A

Cingulate gyrus blood supply = Anterior cerebral Artery

981
Q

Pain from lower inferior segment of Diaphragm =

A

Pain from lower inferior segment of Diaphragm = Subcostal Nerves ( Phrenic supplies central tendon of diaphragm)

982
Q

Patient lacerated the dorsal part of his wrist accidentally. He came in with difficulty to adduct the fingers and difficulty abducting the thumb. Which nerve was paralyzed =

A

Patient lacerated the dorsal part of his wrist accidentally. He came in with difficulty to adduct the fingers and difficulty abducting the thumb. Which nerve was paralyzed = Ulnar Nerve

983
Q

Essential fatty acid =

A

Essential fatty acid = Linoleic acid (Also Linolenic Acid is among essentials)

984
Q

Infective endocarditis diagnostic investigation =

A

Infective endocarditis diagnostic investigation = Blood culture (blood culture for diagnosis & ASO titre FOR THE EVIDENCE OF INFECTION )

985
Q

Occulomotor nerve supplies =

A

Occulomotor nerve supplies = ciliary ganglion

986
Q

Anion gap = Diff between measured cation and measured anion

A

Anion gap = Diff between measured cation and measured anion

987
Q

Pregnant lady with bile duct obstruction. Diagnostic investigation =

A

Pregnant lady with bile duct obstruction. Diagnostic investigation = GGT (FOR NON PREG = CLICK ALP )

988
Q

Q. During the early stages of an asthmatic attack,

a. Arterial carbon dioxide tension decreases
b. The equal pressure point moves toward the mouth
c. Lung compliance increases
d. Airway resistance decreases
e. Arterial oxygen tension increases

A

Q. During the early stages of an asthmatic attack,
a. Arterial carbon dioxide tension decreases
b. The equal pressure point moves toward the mouth
c. Lung compliance increases
d. Airway resistance decreases
e. Arterial oxygen tension increases
The answer is a.

989
Q

Heat loss walay question me agr temperature mention ho tu ans

A

Heat loss walay question me agr temperature mention ho tu ans conduction plus radiation hoga..(ganong bcq)
tempertarture mention na ho tu acoording to guyton max heat loss is through radiation..
or agr statement me ETT mention ho tu ans evaporation hoga.

990
Q

Hemodynamics of Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)&raquo_space;>

A 
Hemodynamics of Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) >>>
1)Right atrial dilatation and
hypertrophy
2)delayed diastolic murmer and
accentuation of first heart sound
3)Right ventricular hypertrophy
4)Parasternal heave
5)Pulmonary ejection murmer
6) P2 is delayed and accentuated ,wide
split and fixed S2
7)Pulmonary plethora and pulmonary
congestion
991
Q 
AIDS important points
elective c.section is recomended mde of delivery in 
1.
2.
3.
A

AIDS important points
elective c.section is recomended mde of delivery in
1. who are not takin HAART therapy
2. with co existing hepititis C infection
3. viral load above 50 copies/ ml
otherwise a planned vag delivery

992
Q
  1. .Tumours of Epiphyseal origin of Bone
    i. .
    ii. .
  2. .Tumours of metaphyseal origin of Bone
    ii. .
    iii. .
  3. .Tumors of diphyseal origin of Bone
    i. .
    ii. .
    iii. .
    iv. .
    v. .
A

1..Tumours of Epiphyseal origin of Bone
i..Giant cell tumour
ii.. Osteoblastoma
2..Tumours of metaphyseal origin of Bone
ii..Osteosarcoma
iii..Osteochondroma
3..Tumors of diphyseal origin of Bone
i..Fibrosarcoma
ii..Ewing sarcoma
iii..Myeloma / metastasis
iv..Osteoid Osteoma
v.. Reticulum cell tumour
/ Round cell tumour

993
Q

1…Giant cell…

A

1…Giant cell…
50 % occurs around the knee, locally aggressive, soap bubble appearnce on xray (due to Aneurysmal Bone Cyst ABC), multinucleated giant cells, 20 to 40 years

994
Q

2…Osteochondroma…( exostosis )

A

2…Osteochondroma…( exostosis )

Most common benign tumour , males less than 25 years

995
Q

3…Osteosarcoma…

A

3…Osteosarcoma…
2nd most common primary malignant tumour, hematogenous spread to LLB (Lung, liver and brain) codmann triangle or sun burst pattern on xray

996
Q

4…Ewing sarcoma…

A

4…Ewing sarcoma…
Blue cell malignant tumour , extremely aggressive with early metastasis, Onion skin periosteal reaction in bone , Associated with t11;22 translocation

997
Q

ote…A nemonic to remember important 3 tumours with their origin
“GEOMEDia”
GIANT CELL—-》

OSTEOSARCOMA ,
OSTEOCHONDROMA’—-》

EWING SARCOMA—-》

A 
ote...A nemonic to remember important 3 tumours with their origin
"GEOMEDia"
GIANT CELL----》EPIPHYSEAL
OSTEOSARCOMA ,
OSTEOCHONDROMA'----》METAPHYSEAL
EWING SARCOMA----》DIAPHYSEAL
998
Q

RULE of. 7, 9, 10………
( reposted with important addition )
1)…7, 9, 10

2) … 7,9, 10
3) … 2, 7, 9, 10
4) …3, 7, 9, 10
5) … 5,7,9, 10

A

RULE of. 7, 9, 10………
( reposted with important addition )
1)…7, 9, 10
Cranial nerves carrying taste sensation to nucleus tractus soletarius
2)… 7,9, 10
Cranial nerves with SVE fibers supplying salivery glands
(CN 10 to parotid)
3)… 2, 7, 9, 10
vit K dependent coagulation factors…
4)…3, 7, 9, 10
cranial nerves having parasympathtic fibers..
5)… 5,7,9, 10
Cranial nerves having both motor and sensory fibers..

999
Q

7)Dermatome levels of upper abdominal wall

xipisternal joint

in between xipisternal joint and umbilicus

at the level of umbilical

A 
7)... T 7, 9, 10
Dermatome levels of upper abdominal wall
T 7... xipisternal joint
T 9... in between xipisternal joint and umbilicus ( also by T 8 )
T 10... at the level of umbilical
1000
Q

• Lymph has ____________ than plasma..

A

• Lymph has lower protein content than plasma..

1001
Q

• Thombin is procoagulant in circulation blood. It becomes anticoagulant __________

A

• Thombin is procoagulant in circulation blood. It becomes anticoagulant when it binds to thrombomodulin

1002
Q

• Thrombomodulin is produced by all endothelial cells except that of _________

A

• Thrombomodulin is produced by all endothelial cells except that of microcicculation of brain

1003
Q

• Serum has high serotonin level due to breakdown of _________.

A

• Serum has high serotonin level due to breakdown of platelets.

1004
Q

• If whole blood is allowed to clot and clot is removed, remaining is called

A

• If whole blood is allowed to clot and clot is removed, remaining is called serum. (plasma minus factor 2,5,8,fibrinogen is called serum)(past MCQ)

1005
Q

• A and B antigens are actually ___________ that differ in their terminal suger. In RBCs

A

• A and B antigens are actually oligosaccharides that differ in their terminal suger. In RBCs they are mostly OLIGOSPHINGOLIPIDS and in other tissues they are glycoprotiens.(past MCQ)

1006
Q
  • Blood group antigens are called ___________
  • Blood group antibodies are called __________
  • Blood group antigens are also present in
A
  • Blood group antigens are called aglutinogens
  • Blood group antibodies are called agglutinins
  • Blood group antigens are also present in salivery gland, saliva, kidney, pancrease, liver, lungs, testes, semen, and amniotic fluid
1007
Q

• Hb F has the ability to decrease the

A

• Hb F has the ability to decrease the polymerization of deoxygenated HbS. Hydroxyurea causes HbF production and is used in treatment of HbS

1008
Q

• 2.5 % hb in adults is

A

• 2.5 % hb in adults is HbA2

1009
Q

• Osmotic fragility of RBC starts at

A

• Osmotic fragility of RBC starts at 0.5% saline. Almost half the RBCs are lysed at 0.40 to 0.42% saline. Complete lysis occurs at 0.35% saline.

1010
Q

• Platelet production is controlled by

A

• Platelet production is controlled by colony stimulating factor and thrombopoitin. Thrombopoitin controls the maturation of megakaryocytes and is produced by kidney and liver.

1011
Q

• Cytoplasm of platelets contains ______________________ and two types of granules

a. Dense granules:
b. Alpha granules:

A

• Cytoplasm of platelets contains actin, myosin, glycogen, lysosomes, and two types of granules

a. Dense granules: they have nonprotein substances. They contain serotoninand ADP
b. Alpha granules: contain clotting factors, PDGF

1012
Q

• Splenectomy causes increase in circulation ________.

A

• Splenectomy causes increase in circulation platelets.

1013
Q

• Platelets _________.They have half life of ________

A

• Platelets don’t have nuclei.They have half life of 4 days

1014
Q

• ________ increases slow wave sleep and reduces apetite

A

• IL1 increases slow wave sleep and reduces apetite

1015
Q

• Cytokines are hormone like molecules that act generally in ________ fashion

A

• Cytokines are hormone like molecules that act generally in paracrine fashion

1016
Q

• Pluripotent uncommitted stem cells become committed by the action of

A

• Pluripotent uncommitted stem cells become committed by the action of IL1, IL6 followed by IL3(I,3,6 commits the stem cells, kind of love guru )

1017
Q

• Monocyte leave the circulation and become _________

A

• Monocyte leave the circulation and become macrophages in tissues. They donot reenter the circulation.

1018
Q

• Total circulating blood is _____ of total body weight

A

• Total circulating blood is 8% of total body weight

1019
Q

• Active bone marrow forming the blood cells is called

and inactive marrow is called

A

• Active bone marrow forming the blood cells is called red marrow and inactive marrow is called yellow marrow. Inactive marrow is filled with fats.

1020
Q

• __________\ belongs to white blood cells producing myloid series

A

• 75% bone marrow belongs to white blood cells producing myloid series

1021
Q

• Best source of hematopoitic stem cells is _________________

A

• Best source of hematopoitic stem cells is umbilical cord blood

1022
Q

• Average half life of nutrophils in circulation is _________

A

• Average half life of nutrophils in circulation is 6 hours

1023
Q

• ___________ are abundant in GIT and respiratory mucosa

A

• Eosinophils are abundant in GIT and respiratory mucosa

1024
Q

A boy presented with muscle weakness with Gower sign +ve. Diagnosis? a. X linked dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. Y linked dominant e. X linked recessive

A

A boy presented with muscle weakness with Gower sign +ve. Diagnosis? a. X linked dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. Y linked dominant e. X linked recessive Ans: E

1025
Q

Patient doctor relationship based on? a. Informed working b. Mutual benefit c. Mutual respect d. Mutual trust e. Long relation

A

Patient doctor relationship based on? a. Informed working b. Mutual benefit c. Mutual respect d. Mutual trust e. Long relation Ans: D

1026
Q

Decrease in functional haemoglobin as in anemia Carbon monoxide poisoning n Methemoglobinemia will not causes hyperoxia hyperpnoea because? a. Stimulated by central receptors b. Stimulated by carotid body c. Arterial pO2 remains normal d. Arterial oxygen content is kept in normal range

A

Decrease in functional haemoglobin as in anemia Carbon monoxide poisoning n Methemoglobinemia will not causes hyperoxia hyperpnoea because? a. Stimulated by central receptors b. Stimulated by carotid body c. Arterial pO2 remains normal d. Arterial oxygen content is kept in normal range Ans: C

1027
Q

Hyperpolarization occurs due to which ion? a. Na b. Efflux of K c. Cl

A

Hyperpolarization occurs due to which ion? a. Na b. Efflux of K c. Cl Ans: B

1028
Q

Temporary adhesion by? a. Selectin b. Integrin

A

Temporary adhesion by? a. Selectin b. Integrin Ans: A

1029
Q

Serration of Upper fibre of external oblique with? a. Serratus anterior b. Latissimus dorsi c. Quadratus lumborum d. Serratus posterior

A

Serration of Upper fibre of external oblique with? a. Serratus anterior b. Latissimus dorsi c. Quadratus lumborum d. Serratus posterior Ans: A

1030
Q

Chondrocyte convert to osteoblast with help of? a. Testosterone b. Amylin c. Somatotropin d. Somatomedin e. Somatostatin

A

Chondrocyte convert to osteoblast with help of? a. Testosterone b. Amylin c. Somatotropin d. Somatomedin e. Somatostatin Ans: C

1031
Q

Bleeding from gums with temp 101F. Reduced platelet I guess 130000 and then what investigation will help in definitive diagnosis? a. Serology b. Bone marrow biopsy c. CBC

A

Bleeding from gums with temp 101F. Reduced platelet I guess 130000 and then what investigation will help in definitive diagnosis? a. Serology b. Bone marrow biopsy c. CBC Ans: B

1032
Q

Supply to back? a. Dorsal primary rami b. Ventral primary rami

A

Supply to back? a. Dorsal primary rami b. Ventral primary rami Ans: A

1033
Q

Fluent aphasia. Lesion in? a. Angular b. Wernicke’s c. Broca

A

Fluent aphasia. Lesion in? a. Angular b. Wernicke’s c. Broca Ans: B

1034
Q

Baroreceptors respond more to? a. Decrease in arterial BP b. Increase in arterial BP c. Pco2 of blood

A

Baroreceptors respond more to? a. Decrease in arterial BP b. Increase in arterial BP c. Pco2 of blood Ans: A (Aortic Arch baroreceptors Respond to increases, but not to decreases in arterial pressure while Carotid Sinus baroreceptors Responds to both, increase as well as to decrease in arterial pressure)

1035
Q

Anti-inflammatory action of steroids is on? a. Phospholipase C b. Phospholipase A

A

Anti-inflammatory action of steroids is on? a. Phospholipase C b. Phospholipase A Ans: B

1036
Q

University student diarrhea, pain abdomen given 5HT3 inhibitor? a. Hyocynine b. Dycyclomine c. Loperamide. d. Aloserton

A

University student diarrhea, pain abdomen given 5HT3 inhibitor? a. Hyocynine b. Dycyclomine c. Loperamide. d. Aloserton D

1037
Q

Regarding nucleus which of the following is right? a. Nucleoli contain large no of ribosomal DNA b. Euchromatin is transcriptional active for the synthesis of RNA

A

Regarding nucleus which of the following is right? a. Nucleoli contain large no of ribosomal DNA b. Euchromatin is transcriptional active for the synthesis of RNA Ans: B

1038
Q

Which structure pass immediately posterior to medial malleolus? a. Tibialis posterior tendon b. Tibialis anterior c. Tibial artery d. Peroneus longus

A

Which structure pass immediately posterior to medial malleolus? a. Tibialis posterior tendon b. Tibialis anterior c. Tibial artery d. Peroneus longus Ans: A

1039
Q

Which of the following do dorsiflexion at ankle joint? a. Tibialis posterior b. Peroneus longus c. Tibialis anterior d. Peroneus brevis

A

Which of the following do dorsiflexion at ankle joint? a. Tibialis posterior b. Peroneus longus c. Tibialis anterior d. Peroneus brevis Ans: C

1040
Q

Exudate different from transudate in? a. Protein above 2.0 percent b. Specific gravity 1.020 c. Mainly in albumin d. Increased lymphocytes

A

Exudate different from transudate in? a. Protein above 2.0 percent b. Specific gravity 1.020 c. Mainly in albumin d. Increased lymphocytes Ans: D

1041
Q

Sulpha drugs act on which part of the bacterial cell wall? a. Cell wall b. Protein c. Tetrahydrofolate d. Dihydrofolate

A

Sulpha drugs act on which part of the bacterial cell wall? a. Cell wall b. Protein c. Tetrahydrofolate d. Dihydrofolate Ans: C

1042
Q

Facture of anterior inferior iliac spine which of the following is responsible for pelvic avulsion? a. Rectus femoris b. Quadriceps c. Sartorius d. Obturator internus

A

Facture of anterior inferior iliac spine which of the following is responsible for pelvic avulsion? a. Rectus femoris b. Quadriceps c. Sartorius d. Obturator internus Ans: A

1043
Q

A vibrating tuning fork was placed which of the following will respond? a. Ruffini b. Pacinian c. Merkel disc d. Free nerve endings

A

A vibrating tuning fork was placed which of the following will respond? a. Ruffini b. Pacinian c. Merkel disc d. Free nerve endings Ans: B

1044
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding bronchopulmonary segments? a. It is the respiratory unit of the lung b. Right is functional unit of the lung

A

Which of the following is correct regarding bronchopulmonary segments? a. It is the respiratory unit of the lung b. Right is functional unit of the lung Ans: B

1045
Q

Non-smoker of squamous cell CA of lungs diagnosed. What is the most case of this CA in environmental? a. Radon b. Asbestos c. Aromatase d. Silicon e. Opium

A

Non-smoker of squamous cell CA of lungs diagnosed. What is the most case of this CA in environmental? a. Radon b. Asbestos c. Aromatase d. Silicon e. Opium Ans: A

1046
Q

A HTN Patient presented with eye problem and was diagnosed as grade 3 hypertensive retinopathy. Which of the following is the target of HTN in retina? a. Veins b. Arteries c. Retina nerves fibres d. Arterioles e. Venules

A

A HTN Patient presented with eye problem and was diagnosed as grade 3 hypertensive retinopathy. Which of the following is the target of HTN in retina? a. Veins b. Arteries c. Retina nerves fibres d. Arterioles e. Venules Ans: D

1047
Q

Substance that act on meu receptors at which area in the rostrum? a. Limbic system b. Medial thalamus c. Sensory Cortex

A

Substance that act on meu receptors at which area in the rostrum? a. Limbic system b. Medial thalamus c. Sensory Cortex Ans: B

1048
Q

Female has HTN presented with Dysphagia disatgria. Ptosis meiosis anhydrosis and enophthalmos. Which artery is blocked? a. Superior cerebellar artery b. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery c. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery d. Labyrinthine artery

A

Female has HTN presented with Dysphagia disatgria. Ptosis meiosis anhydrosis and enophthalmos. Which artery is blocked? a. Superior cerebellar artery b. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery c. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery d. Labyrinthine artery Ans: B

1049
Q

Pregnant female has increase amniotic fluid and screening done and there was raised Alpha-fetoprotein. Diagnosis? a. Anencephaly b. Spina bifidia occult c. Atresia

A

Pregnant female has increase amniotic fluid and screening done and there was raised Alpha-fetoprotein. Diagnosis? a. Anencephaly b. Spina bifidia occult c. Atresia Ans: A

1050
Q

Pethidine compared to Morphine? a. Pethidine more potent than morphine b. Lower limb weakness c. Pethidine is less addictive as compared to morphine. d. Fast acting

A

Pethidine compared to Morphine? a. Pethidine more potent than morphine b. Lower limb weakness c. Pethidine is less addictive as compared to morphine. d. Fast acting Ans: D (Pethidine is ten times more lipid-soluble than morphine and therefore has a faster onset)

1051
Q

True about kidney: a. Artery posterior to ureter b. Ureter posterior to vein c. Is enclosed by fascia with their own supra renal gland d. Hilum at 4th lumbar vertebrae

A

True about kidney: a. Artery posterior to ureter b. Ureter posterior to vein c. Is enclosed by fascia with their own supra renal gland d. Hilum at 4th lumbar vertebrae Ans: C

1052
Q

Citrate is useful anticoagulant because it causes?

A

Citrate is useful anticoagulant because it causes? Ans: Calcium chelation

1053
Q

A patient after RTA brought to ER having fracture right femur right humerus and right tibia having pulse 120 and BP 90/70 what will u do first? a. Stabilization and reduction of fractures b. Tracheostomy c. Volume replacement d. Fracture radiology

A

A patient after RTA brought to ER having fracture right femur right humerus and right tibia having pulse 120 and BP 90/70 what will u do first? a. Stabilization and reduction of fractures b. Tracheostomy c. Volume replacement d. Fracture radiology Ans: C

1054
Q

Highest reabsorption of which substance? a. Glucose

b. Na c. K d. Water

A

Highest reabsorption of which substance? a. Glucose

b. Na c. K d. Water Ans: A

1055
Q

A substance plasma concentration was 20mg/dl and urine concentration was 100mg/dl and urine flow is 2ml/mints. What is clearance of substance? a. 20 ml/mint b. 30 ml/mint c. 40 ml/mint

A

A substance plasma concentration was 20mg/dl and urine concentration was 100mg/dl and urine flow is 2ml/mints. What is clearance of substance? a. 20 ml/mint b. 30 ml/mint c. 40 ml/mint Ans: A

1056
Q

Most likely to occur in extensive inflammation? a. Raised platelets count b. Raised basophils c. Total WBC more than 40000 d. Neutrophils not raised e. Eosinophil not raised

A

Most likely to occur in extensive inflammation? a. Raised platelets count b. Raised basophils c. Total WBC more than 40000 d. Neutrophils not raised e. Eosinophil not raised Ans: A

1057
Q

A young boy having mass in the neck biopsy of lymph node show effaced architecture atypical mononucleosis. Cells with bi-lobed nucleus and eosinophilia and CD15 and CD30 positive. Diagnosis? a. Non Hodgkin lymphoma b. Hodgkin lymphoma c. T cell leukaemia d. Infectious mononucleosis

A

A young boy having mass in the neck biopsy of lymph node show effaced architecture atypical mononucleosis. Cells with bi-lobed nucleus and eosinophilia and CD15 and CD30 positive. Diagnosis? a. Non Hodgkin lymphoma b. Hodgkin lymphoma c. T cell leukaemia d. Infectious mononucleosis Ans: B

1058
Q

Pregnant lady delivered baby and within 24 hrs new-born got pyrexia and sepsis. What is the cause? a. Beta haemolytic streptococcus Lancefield group A b. Beta haemolytic streptococcus Lance field group B c. Beta haemolytic Lancefield group C d. Group D e. Group k

A

Pregnant lady delivered baby and within 24 hrs new-born got pyrexia and sepsis. What is the cause? a. Beta haemolytic streptococcus Lancefield group A b. Beta haemolytic streptococcus Lance field group B c. Beta haemolytic Lancefield group C d. Group D e. Group k Ans: B

1059
Q

Frequency distributions shows? a. Showing values which is from data b. Showing values appearing in the data c. Showing mean.

A

Frequency distributions shows? a. Showing values which is from data b. Showing values appearing in the data c. Showing mean. Ans: A

1060
Q

Exploratory laparotomy done. After 2weeks presents with complains that the wound has become hard, raised and irregular. Diagnosis? a. Incisional hernia b. Deformed and scarring

A

Exploratory laparotomy done. After 2weeks presents with complains that the wound has become hard, raised and irregular. Diagnosis? a. Incisional hernia b. Deformed and scarring Ans: B

1061
Q

27 years’ girl jerk movement of upper arm. consciousness is intact. MRI brain is normal. drug of choice? a. Ethosuxamide b. Phenytoin c. Carbamazepine d. Phenobarbitone e. Propranolol

A

27 years’ girl jerk movement of upper arm. consciousness is intact. MRI brain is normal. drug of choice? a. Ethosuxamide b. Phenytoin c. Carbamazepine d. Phenobarbitone e. Propranolol Ans: E

1062
Q

Chronic use of drug but abrupt withdrawal leads to hypertension? a. Chlorthiazide b. Enalapril c. Clonidine

A

Chronic use of drug but abrupt withdrawal leads to hypertension? a. Chlorthiazide b. Enalapril c. Clonidine Ans: C

1063
Q

Cysticercosis caused due to?

A

Cysticercosis caused due to? Ans: Ova of Tenia Solium

1064
Q

3rd year MBBS student first time observing surgery faints. Her BP is 90/60 due to? a. Inc cardiac output b. Dec cardiac output c. Inc peripheral resistance d. Decrease PVR

A

3rd year MBBS student first time observing surgery faints. Her BP is 90/60 due to? a. Inc cardiac output b. Dec cardiac output c. Inc peripheral resistance d. Decrease PVR Ans: D

1065
Q

Patient has pneumonia, now he has chest pain radiating to back and rustle sound on left side of chest even when breathing is held. Which is affected? a. Pleura b. Pericardium c. Lateral mediastinum d. Posterior mediastinum

A

Patient has pneumonia, now he has chest pain radiating to back and rustle sound on left side of chest even when breathing is held. Which is affected? a. Pleura b. Pericardium c. Lateral mediastinum d. Posterior mediastinum Ans: B

1066
Q

Food stuck in esophagus during primary peristalsis?

A

Food stuck in esophagus during primary peristalsis? Ans: Food bolus will be pulled down by 2ndary peristalsis via myenteric plexuses

1067
Q

Fibrin mesh stabilized by? a. Platelet plug b. Factor X

c. Factor 13 d. Factor 12

A

Fibrin mesh stabilized by? a. Platelet plug b. Factor X

c. Factor 13 d. Factor 12 Ans: C

1068
Q

Dicumarol effect? a. Inc bleeding time b. Dec bleeding time

A

Dicumarol effect? a. Inc bleeding time b. Dec bleeding time Ans: A

1069
Q

Exocoelomic is derived from? a. Endoderm b. Epiblast c. Hypoblast

A

Exocoelomic is derived from? a. Endoderm b. Epiblast c. Hypoblast Ans: C

1070
Q

Sertoli cells causing inhibition of FSH via? a. Inhibin b. Testosterone

A

Largest cross sectional area in? a. Veins b. Capillaries c. Arteries d. Venules Ans: B

1071
Q

Largest cross sectional area in? a. Veins b. Capillaries c. Arteries d. Venules

A

Largest cross sectional area in? a. Veins b. Capillaries c. Arteries d. Venules Ans: B

1072
Q

Organelle where protein combines with carbohydrates, packed and released is? a. Golgi complex b. RER c. SER

A

Organelle where protein combines with carbohydrates, packed and released is? a. Golgi complex b. RER c. SER Ans: A

1073
Q

Aspiration of something by lady. presenting wth bla bla s/s.. it can be prevented by? a. backward movement of tongue b. Larynx upward movement c. Closure of true vocal cords d. Closure of false vocal cords

A

Aspiration of something by lady. presenting wth bla bla s/s.. it can be prevented by? a. backward movement of tongue b. Larynx upward movement c. Closure of true vocal cords d. Closure of false vocal cords Ans: C

1074
Q

A female presented with growth in vulvar region it can be due to? a. Hypertrophy b. Atrophy c. Hypertrophy d. Dysplasia

A

A female presented with growth in vulvar region it can be due to? a. Hypertrophy b. Atrophy c. Hypertrophy d. Dysplasia Ans: D

1075
Q

Ig E bound to? a. Basophils b. Eosinophils c. Mast cells d. Lymphocytes e. Basophils and mast cells

A

Ig E bound to? a. Basophils b. Eosinophils c. Mast cells d. Lymphocytes e. Basophils and mast cells Ans: E

1076
Q

Which of the following does not have basement membrane? a. Mesothelium b. Respiratory epithelium c. Transitional epithelium d. Osteoclast

A

Which of the following does not have basement membrane? a. Mesothelium b. Respiratory epithelium c. Transitional epithelium d. Osteoclast Ans: C

1077
Q

Clara cells? a. Respiratory bronchioles b. Tertiary bronchioles c. Secondary bronchioles d. Primary bronchioles e. Terminal bronchioles

A

Clara cells? a. Respiratory bronchioles b. Tertiary bronchioles c. Secondary bronchioles d. Primary bronchioles e. Terminal bronchioles Ans: E

1078
Q

Minimum caloric requirement for an adult man in bed without fever or unusual loss is a. 15-20 cal/kg b. 25-30 cal/kg c. 35-50 cal/kg d. 50-60 cal/kg e. 70-75 cal/kg

A

Minimum caloric requirement for an adult man in bed without fever or unusual loss is a. 15-20 cal/kg b. 25-30 cal/kg c. 35-50 cal/kg d. 50-60 cal/kg e. 70-75 cal/kg Ans: B

1079
Q

Cardiac muscle 60% primary calories source? a. Fats b. Ketones c. Proteins

A

Cardiac muscle 60% primary calories source? a. Fats b. Ketones c. Proteins Ans: A

1080
Q

A 40-year-old female presented with Dysphagia especially to liquids barium enema and gastroscopy are negative of any finding. Which of the following is most likely the cause of dysphagia in this case? a. Neuromuscular disruption b. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia c. Vagus nerve lesion

A

A 40-year-old female presented with Dysphagia especially to liquids barium enema and gastroscopy are negative of any finding. Which of the following is most likely the cause of dysphagia in this case? a. Neuromuscular disruption b. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia c. Vagus nerve lesion Ans: A

1081
Q

Remnant of notochord in adult life? a. Spinal cord b. Spinal nerves
c. Nucleus pulposus d. Meninges

A

Remnant of notochord in adult life? a. Spinal cord b. Spinal nerves
c. Nucleus pulposus d. Meninges Ans: C

1082
Q

Which of the following increases the Tone of lower oesophageal sphincter? a. By using anticholinergic drugs b. Food rich in fats c. High level of gastrin in the blood

A

Which of the following increases the Tone of lower oesophageal sphincter? a. By using anticholinergic drugs b. Food rich in fats c. High level of gastrin in the blood Ans: C

1083
Q

9 months’ child presented with fever & cough. He was negative for Respiratory syncytial virus. Other common Cause could be? a. H. Influenza b. Strep pneumonia. c. Asthma

A

9 months’ child presented with fever & cough. He was negative for Respiratory syncytial virus. Other common Cause could be? a. H. Influenza b. Strep pneumonia. c. Asthma Ans: B

1084
Q

Important route of Hep B transmission? a. Sexual contact b. Direct contact c. Mosquito bite

A

Tumor associated with gene amplification a. Pheochromocytoma b. Neuroblastoma c. Retinoblastoma d. Medulloblastoma Ans: B

1085
Q

Tumor associated with gene amplification a. Pheochromocytoma b. Neuroblastoma c. Retinoblastoma d. Medulloblastoma

A

Tumor associated with gene amplification a. Pheochromocytoma b. Neuroblastoma c. Retinoblastoma d. Medulloblastoma Ans: B

1086
Q

Bleeding scenario. Deficiency of? a. Albumin b. Alpha globulin c. Beta globulin d. Gama globulin

A

Bleeding scenario. Deficiency of? a. Albumin b. Alpha globulin c. Beta globulin d. Gama globulin Ans: A

1087
Q
  1. Macula densa?
A
  1. Macula densa? Ans: Renin secretion
1088
Q

Most effective stimulant for Aldosterone secretion? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemia

A

Most effective stimulant for Aldosterone secretion? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemia Ans: A

1089
Q

During ventricular action potential, max CA influx occurs during? a. R wave b. P wave c. QT interval d. ST segment

A

During ventricular action potential, max CA influx occurs during? a. R wave b. P wave c. QT interval d. ST segment Ans: D

1090
Q

For TMJ stability what is required?

A

For TMJ stability what is required? Ans: Capsule

1091
Q

Methemoglobinemia, co poisoning?

A

Methemoglobinemia, co poisoning? Ans: Hypoxic hypoxia

1092
Q

Extreme left shift of O2 dissociation curve occurs in? a. Increase pH b. Increase temp c. Inc 2,3 BPG d. Co poisoning e. Inc fetal Hb

A

Extreme left shift of O2 dissociation curve occurs in? a. Increase pH b. Increase temp c. Inc 2,3 BPG d. Co poisoning e. Inc fetal Hb Ans: D

1093
Q

In corticospinal tract which movements are affected? a. Jumping b. Climbing c. Holding pencil d. Walking e. Writing

A

In corticospinal tract which movements are affected? a. Jumping b. Climbing c. Holding pencil d. Walking e. Writing Ans: E

1094
Q

Blood loss of healthy man after how much day’s plasma protein is form? a. 7-8 days b. 2-3 days

A

Blood loss of healthy man after how much day’s plasma protein is form? a. 7-8 days b. 2-3 days Ans: B

1095
Q

Type A fibres supply 120 and type B 60 and combinations supplied 120. What is the effect? a. Occlusion b. Temporal summation

A

Type A fibres supply 120 and type B 60 and combinations supplied 120. What is the effect? a. Occlusion b. Temporal summation Ans: A

1096
Q

Left cardiac vein continues as?

A

Left cardiac vein continues as? Ans: Coronary sinus

1097
Q

Active androgen? a. DHEA b. DHT

A

Active androgen? a. DHEA b. DHT Ans: B

1098
Q

Scenario of blast cells > 30%? a. t(8:12) dislocation b. t(15:17) dislocation

A

Scenario of blast cells > 30%? a. t(8:12) dislocation b. t(15:17) dislocation Ans: B

1099
Q

Right supracardinal vein give rise to? a. Azygous vein b. Hemi-azygous c. Coronary sinus

A

Right supracardinal vein give rise to? a. Azygous vein b. Hemi-azygous c. Coronary sinus Ans: A

1100
Q

In Parkinson disease, mismatch occurs between? a. Dopamine and GABA b. Dopamine and acetylcholine

A

In Parkinson disease, mismatch occurs between? a. Dopamine and GABA b. Dopamine and acetylcholine Ans: B

1101
Q

Difference between Epinephrine and norepinephrine? a. Decrease skeletal muscle blood supply b. Decrease cutaneous blood supply c. Decrease splanchnic blood supply d. Increase heart rate

A

Prosopagnosia is due to? Ans: Damage to temporal and parietal lobes

1102
Q

Prosopagnosia is due to?

A

Prosopagnosia is due to? Ans: Damage to temporal and parietal lobes

1103
Q

During normal conditions aortic pressure is highest in? a. Isovolumic relaxation b. Isovolumetric contraction c. End stage of rapid ventricular ejection d. Atrial filling

A

During normal conditions aortic pressure is highest in? a. Isovolumic relaxation b. Isovolumetric contraction c. End stage of rapid ventricular ejection d. Atrial filling Ans: C

1104
Q

Which cells are found less than 1% in blood? a. Basophils b. Eosinophils c. Lymphocyte d. Neutrophils

A

Which cells are found less than 1% in blood? a. Basophils b. Eosinophils c. Lymphocyte d. Neutrophils Ans: A

1105
Q

Anterior surface of heart is supplied by? a. RCA b. LCA c. CX d. LAD

1106
Q

Blood supply of posterior 1/3 of heart is? a. LAD b. CX c. RCA d. LCA

A

Blood supply of posterior 1/3 of heart is? a. LAD b. CX c. RCA d. LCA Ans: C

1107
Q

Physiological importance of AV nodal delay is? a. To give time for ventricular filling b. For ventricles to contract

A

Physiological importance of AV nodal delay is? a. To give time for ventricular filling b. For ventricles to contract Ans: A

1108
Q

Graft-versus-host disease has occurred with the transplantation of which of the following? a. Kidney b. Lung c. Heart d. Bone marrow e. Pancreas

A

Graft-versus-host disease has occurred with the transplantation of which of the following? a. Kidney b. Lung c. Heart d. Bone marrow e. Pancreas Ans: D

1109
Q

Lady presented with Recurrent rhinitis, urticaria and runny nose. This is due to? a. Ig A b. Ig B c. Ig C d. Ig D e. Ig E and type 1

A

Lady presented with Recurrent rhinitis, urticaria and runny nose. This is due to? a. Ig A b. Ig B c. Ig C d. Ig D e. Ig E and type 1 Ans: E

1110
Q

After burn which major complication will most likely develop? a. Contracture b. Hyperkalemia

A

After burn which major complication will most likely develop? a. Contracture b. Hyperkalemia Ans: A

1111
Q

Aortic notch aneurysm will compress which structure? a. Left bronchus b. Esophagus

A

Aortic notch aneurysm will compress which structure? a. Left bronchus b. Esophagus Ans: B

1112
Q

ark staining cells? a. Basophils b. Eosinophil’s

A

ark staining cells? a. Basophils b. Eosinophil’s Ans: A

1113
Q

What lies in the floor of Lateral ventricle? a. Thalamus b. Amygdala c. Hippocampus
d. Hypothalamus

A

What lies in the floor of Lateral ventricle? a. Thalamus b. Amygdala c. Hippocampus
d. Hypothalamus Ans: C

1114
Q

Which of the following is present at the level of cervical vertebral 2? a. Middle cervical ganglion b. Inf cervical ganglion c. Stellate ganglion d. Vertebral ganglion e. Sup cervical ganglion

A

Which of the following is present at the level of cervical vertebral 2? a. Middle cervical ganglion b. Inf cervical ganglion c. Stellate ganglion d. Vertebral ganglion e. Sup cervical ganglion Ans: E

1115
Q

Trauma to MMA. blood will accumulate in? a. Epidural space b. Subarachnoid space

A

Trauma to MMA. blood will accumulate in? a. Epidural space b. Subarachnoid space Ans: A

1116
Q

Infection in between deep layer of cervical fascia and Pretracheal fascia. pus will go to? a. Anterior pericardium b. Posterior mediastinum c. Posterior mediastinum d. Pericardium

A

Infection in between deep layer of cervical fascia and Pretracheal fascia. pus will go to? a. Anterior pericardium b. Posterior mediastinum c. Posterior mediastinum d. Pericardium Ans: C

1117
Q

Calcitonin is released from? a. Parathyroid b. Adrenal cortex c. Pituitary d. Thyroid gland

A

Calcitonin is released from? a. Parathyroid b. Adrenal cortex c. Pituitary d. Thyroid gland Ans: D

1118
Q

Major primary foetal adrenal cortex hormone? a. DHEA b. Cortisol c. LH d. Aldosterone

A

Major primary foetal adrenal cortex hormone? a. DHEA b. Cortisol c. LH d. Aldosterone Ans: B

1119
Q

ECG finding of hypoglycaemia? a. ST depression b. Tall T waves c. Short QT d. No P wave e. QT prolongation

A

ECG finding of hypoglycaemia? a. ST depression b. Tall T waves c. Short QT d. No P wave e. QT prolongation Ans: E

1120
Q

Round ligament is derived from? a. Right umbilical vein b. Fossa ovalis c. Left Umbilical vein

A

Round ligament is derived from? a. Right umbilical vein b. Fossa ovalis c. Left Umbilical vein Ans: C

1121
Q

Tunica albuginea gives rise to? a. Process vaginalis b. Umbilical cord c. Inguinal canal d. Tunica vaginalis

A

Tunica albuginea gives rise to? a. Process vaginalis b. Umbilical cord c. Inguinal canal d. Tunica vaginalis Ans: D

1122
Q

Muscle involved in Medial rotation of the shoulder? a. Teres minor b. Teres major c. Subscapularis

A

Interstitial buffer? a. HCO3 b. Protein c. HB-H d. PO4 Ans: A

1123
Q

Interstitial buffer? a. HCO3 b. Protein c. HB-H d. PO4

A

Interstitial buffer? a. HCO3 b. Protein c. HB-H d. PO4 Ans: A

1124
Q

Abnormal value of CSF? a. Na 150 b. CL 115 c. Hco3 26 d. Glucose 60mg e. Proteins 500mg

A

Abnormal value of CSF? a. Na 150 b. CL 115 c. Hco3 26 d. Glucose 60mg e. Proteins 500mg Ans: E

FCPS (5 decks)

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