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Pharmacology > Immunotherapy - Dra. Viterbo > Flashcards

Immunotherapy - Dra. Viterbo Flashcards

1
Q

3 main components of Innate Immune System

A
  1. MECHANICAL COMPONENTS (skin/epidermis, mucus)
  2. BIOCHEMICAL COMPONENTS (antimicrobial peptides and proteins, complement, enzymes, interferons, acidic pH, free radicals)
  3. CELLULAR COMPONENTS (neutrophils, macrophage, NK, NKT)
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2
Q

Complement components enhance macrophage and neutrophil phagocytosis by?

A

By acting as opsonins (C3b) and chemoattractants (C3a, C5a) to recruit immune cells and ultimately lead to pathogen lysis via generation of MAC

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3
Q

3 mediators of influx of neutrophils and monocytes toward inflammation site

A

All released by activated endothelial cells and immune cells at inflam site:

  1. IL-8 and CXCL 8 (chemoattractant cytokines/chemokines)
  2. MCP-1, CCL-2
  3. MIP-1a, CCL-3
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4
Q

Mediates egress of immune cells from BV into the inflammatory site

A

Adhesive interactions between cell surface receptors (L-selectin, integrin) on immune cells and ligands (sialyl-Lewis x, ICAM-1)

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5
Q

These include TLRs, NLRs., scavenger receptors, mannose receptors and LPS-binding CHON that recognize PAMPs

A

Pattern Recognition Receptors

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6
Q

These stimulate the release of proinflammatory cytokines, chemokines, and interferons upon recognition of PAMPS

A

PRRs

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7
Q

3 cells that secrete IFN-y and IL-17

A

NK cells
NKT cells
gamma-delta T cells

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8
Q

Activates resident tissue macrophages and dendritic cells

A

IFN-y

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9
Q

Recruits neutrophils

A

IL-17

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10
Q

Cells that are able to recognize and destroy virus infected

normal cells as well as tumor cells without prior stimulation.

A

NK cells

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11
Q

Receptors that deliver inhibitory signals to NK cells to prevent them from killing normal cells

A

Killer Cell Ig-like Receptors on NK cells surface (specific for MHC 1 molecules)

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12
Q

How do NK cells kill target cells?

A

By releasing cytotoxic granules (perforins, granzymes)

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13
Q

Cells that recognize microbial lipid
antigens presented by a CD1 and have been implicated in host defense against
microbial agents, autoimmune diseases, and tumors.

A

NKT cells

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14
Q

Unique characteristics of Adaptive Immune System

A
  1. Respond to a variety of antigens in a specific manner
  2. Can discriminate between self and non self
  3. Responds to a previously encountered antigen
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15
Q

Effectors of humoral immunity

A

Antibodies

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16
Q

Effectors of cell-mediated immunity

A

T lymphocytes

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17
Q

What are the APCs that induce adaptive immunity?

A

Dendritic cells
Macrophages
B lymphocytes

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18
Q

Explain how APCs function.

A

APCs phagocytose/endocytose pathogens or protein antigens > generate peptides after enzymatic digestion > loaded to class 1 or 2 MHC > presented to cell surface TCR

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19
Q

MHC recognized by CD8 T cells

A

MHC Class I

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20
Q

MHC recognized by CD4 T cells

A

MHC Class II

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21
Q

2 signals for T cell activation

A
  1. TCR + peptide-bound MHC molecules

2. Ligation (binding) of costimulatory molecules on APC to their respective ligands

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22
Q

Regulates activation of T cells

A

CTLA-4 (T-lymphocyte associated antigen)

CTLA-4 is mobilized to the cells surface after CD28 is engaged to CD80 or CD86. CTLA-4 displaces CD28 resulting in suppression of T-cell activation and proliferation

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23
Q

A recombinant
humanized antibody that binds CTLA-4 and prevents
its association with CD80/CD86.

A

ipilimumab, anti-CTLA-4 antibody

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24
Q

AE associated with ipilimumab

A

autoimmune toxicity

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25
Q

lymphocytes develop and learn to recognize self and non-self

antigens in the?

A

Thymus

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26
Q

A process by which T cells bind with high affinity

to self antigens in the thymus undergo apoptosis.

A

Negative selection

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27
Q

Strengthen activation signals between APCs and T lymphocyte

A

CD40/CD40L and ICAM-1/LFA-1 interactions

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28
Q

A process by which T lymphocytes recognize foreign antigens in the
presence of self MHC molecules and are retained and expanded for export to the periphery

A

Positive selection

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29
Q

Produced by TH1 cells

A

IFN-y
IL-2
IL-12

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30
Q

How do TH1 cells induce cell-mediated

immunity?

A

by activation of macrophages, cytotoxic T cells (CTLs),

and NK cells

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31
Q

Produced by TH2 cells

A 
IL-4
IL-5
IL-6
IL-10
IL-13
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32
Q

How do TH2 cells induce cell-mediated

immunity?

A

by inducing B-cell proliferation

and differentiation into antibody-secreting plasma cells

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33
Q

Produced by TH2 cells to inhibit cytokine production by TH1 cells
via the down-regulation of MHC expression by APCs

A

IL-10

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34
Q

Produced by TH1 cells inhibits the proliferation of TH2 cells.

A

IFN-y

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35
Q

Causes the elaboration of TH2 cytokines for the production of neutralizing and opsonic antibodies

A

extracellular bacteria

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36
Q

Elicit the production of TH1 cytokines

A

Intracellullar bacteria

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37
Q

Subsets of helper T cells

A

TH1 and TH2

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38
Q

Produces transforming growth factor-β (TGF-β),
whose numerous functions include down-regulation of proliferation
and differentiation of T lymphocytes

A

TH3

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39
Q

A population of CD4 T cells that is essential for preventing
autoimmunity and allergy as well as maintaining homeostasis and
tolerance to self antigens.

A

regulatory T cell (Treg) T cell

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40
Q

Involves retro-translocation of antigens from
the endosome to the cytosol for peptide generation in the proteosome
and is thought to be useful in generating effective immune
responses against infected host cells that are incapable of priming
T lymphocytes

A

Cross-presentation

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41
Q

Ways by which CD8 induce target cell death

A
  1. Granzymes
  2. Perforins
  3. Fas-FasL apoptosis pathway
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42
Q

The repertoire of antigen specificities by T cells is

genetically determined and arises from?

A

T-cell receptor gene rearrangement

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43
Q

The specificities of B cells arise from ?

A

immunoglobulin

gene rearrangement

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44
Q 
A matrure B cell binds the antigen, internalizes
and processes it, and presents its peptide—bound to class
II MHC—to?
A

CD4 helper cells

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45
Q

CD4 helper cells secrete ___ to stimulate B-cell differentiation into memory B cells and antibody-secreting plasma cells

A

IL-4

IL-5

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46
Q

How do antiodies mediate their functions?

A

Antibodies mediate their functions by acting as opsonins to
enhance phagocytosis and cellular cytotoxicity and by activating
complement to elicit an inflammatory response and induce bacterial
lysis.

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47
Q

A purified adenosine deaminase from a bovine source used in the management of Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome

A

Pegademase

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48
Q

first hormonal agents

recognized as having lympholytic properties

A

Glucocorticoids (corticosteroids)

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49
Q

Contact
hypersensitivity mediated by T DTH cells is usually
abrogated by?

A

glucocorticoid therapy

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50
Q

ID Immunosuppressive Agent used: Acquired factor XIII antibodies

A

Cyclophosphamide plus factor XIII

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51
Q

ID Immunosuppressive Agent used: Acute glomerulonephritis

A

Prednisone, mercaptopurine, cyclophosphamide

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52
Q

ID Immunosuppressive Agent used: Liver Organ transplantation

A

Cyclosporine, prednisone, azathioprine, tacrolimus, sirolimus

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53
Q

ID Immunosuppressive Agent used: Bone Marrow Organ transplantation

A

Cyclosporine, cyclophosphamide, prednisone, methotrexate, ALG

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54
Q

ID Immunosuppressive Agent used: Prevention of cell proliferation
Coronary stents

A

Sirolimus (impregnated stent)

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55
Q

ID Immunosuppressive Agent used: Prevention of cell proliferation Neovascular macular degeneration

A

Ranibizumab (labeled), bevacizumab (off-label)

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56
Q

first-line immunosuppressive therapy for both solid

organ and hematopoietic stem cell transplant recipients

A

Glucocorticoids (corticosteroids)

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57
Q

Peptide antibiotic that appears to act
at an early stage in the antigen receptor-induced differentiation of
T cells and blocks their activation

A

Cyclosporine (cyclosporin A, CSA)

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58
Q

MOA of Cyclosporine (cyclosporin A, CSA)

A 
Cyclosporine binds to cyclophilin
, a member of a class of intracellular proteins called immunophilins.

Cyclosporine and cyclophilin form a complex that
inhibits the cytoplasmic phosphatase, calcineurin, which is necessary
for the activation of a T-cell-specific transcription factor. This
transcription factor, NF-AT, is involved in the synthesis of interleukins
(eg, IL-2) by activated T cells.

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59
Q

ophthalmic

solution of this drug is now available for severe dry eye syndrome and ocular graft-versus-host disease

A

Cyclosporine (cyclosporin A, CSA)

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60
Q

Inhaled form of this drug is being

investigated for use in lung transplantation.

A

Cyclosporine (cyclosporin A, CSA)

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61
Q

This immunosuppressive agent causes nephrotoxicity, hypertension,
hyperglycemia, liver dysfunction, hyperkalemia, altered
mental status, seizures, and hirsutism.

A

Cyclosporine (cyclosporin A, CSA)

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62
Q

This immunosuppressive agent causes increased incidence
of lymphoma and other cancers (Kaposi’s sarcoma, skin
cancer)

A

Cyclosporine (cyclosporin A, CSA)

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63
Q

This immunosuppressive agent induces

TGF-β, which promotes tumor invasion and metastasis.

A

Cyclosporine (cyclosporin A, CSA)

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64
Q

sole immunosuppressant for cadaveric transplantation
of the kidney, pancreas, and liver, and it has proved extremely
useful in cardiac transplantation as well

A

Cyclosporine (cyclosporin A, CSA)

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65
Q

A standard prophylactic regimen to

prevent graft-versus-host disease after allogeneic stem cell transplantation

A

Cyclosporine (cyclosporin A, CSA) + methotrexate

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66
Q

an immunosuppressant macrolide antibiotic

produced by Streptomyces tsukubaensis

A

Tacrolimus (FK 506)

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67
Q

Cyclosporine (cyclosporin A, CSA) and Tacrolimus (FK 506) bind to which enzymes?

A

cytoplasmic peptidylprolyl isomerases

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68
Q

Calcineurin Inhibitors

A

Cyclosporine (cyclosporin A, CSA) and Tacrolimus (FK 506)

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69
Q

While cyclosporine binds to cyclophilin,

tacrolimus binds to the?

A

immunophilin FK-binding protein

FKBP

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70
Q

now considered a standard prophylactic agent
(usually in combination with methotrexate or mycophenolate
mofetil) for graft-versus-host disease

A

Tacrolimus (FK 506)

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71
Q

Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus are primarily metabolized by the ____ enzyme system in the
liver with resultant multiple drug interactions

A

P450 3A

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72
Q

Its
toxic effects include nephrotoxicity,
neurotoxicity, hyperglycemia, hypertension, hyperkalemia,
and gastrointestinal complaints.

A

Tacrolimus (FK 506)

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73
Q

currently used in the therapy of atopic

dermatitis and psoriasis

A

Tacrolimus ointment

74
Q

mTOR inhibitors analogs (called “rapalogs”)

A

everolimus and temsirolimus

75
Q

an immunosuppressant macrolide antibiotic produced

by Streptomyces hygroscopicus and is structurally similar to tacrolimus

A

Sirolimus

76
Q

Sirolimus binds the _________, resulting in an active complex that inhibits the
kinase activity of mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR)

A

circulating immunophilin FK506-

binding protein 12

77
Q

Has been used effectively alone and in combination
with other immunosuppressants (corticosteroids, cyclosporine,
tacrolimus, and mycophenolate mofetil) to prevent rejection of
solid organ allografts

A

Sirolimus

78
Q

5 drugs used to to prevent rejection of

solid organ allografts

A 
Sirolimus
corticosteroids
cyclosporine
tacrolimus
mycophenolate mofetil
79
Q

used as prophylaxis and as therapy for
steroid-refractory acute and chronic graft-versus-host disease in
hematopoietic stem cell transplant recipients.

A

Sirolimus

80
Q

used in some dermatologic disorders and, in combination

with cyclosporine, in the management of uveoretinitis

A

Sirolimus

81
Q

Toxicities can include profound
myelosuppression (especially thrombocytopenia), hepatotoxicity,
diarrhea, hypertriglyceridemia, pneumonitis, and headache.

A

mTOR inhibitors

82
Q

Because nephrotoxicity is of major concern when administering
calcineurin inhibitors, _____ is frequently employed as firstline
immunosuppressant therapy in both solid organ and stem
cell transplantation because renal toxicity is usually not seen

A

sirolimus

83
Q

When combined
with tacrolimus, has revealed an increased incidence of hemolytic-
uremic syndrome.

A

sirolimus

84
Q

a semisynthetic derivative of mycophenolic acid, isolated from the mold Penicillium glaucus .

A

Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF)

85
Q

used in solid organ transplant

patients for refractory rejection

A

Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF)

86
Q

Its antiproliferative properties
make it the first-line drug for preventing or reducing chronic
allograft vasculopathy in cardiac transplant recipients.

A

Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF)

87
Q

used as prophylaxis for and treatment of
both acute and chronic graft-versus-host disease in hematopoietic
stem cell transplant patients

A

Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF)

88
Q 
Toxicities include gastrointestinal disturbances (nausea and
vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain) headache, hypertension, and
reversible myelosuppression (primarily neutropenia).
A

Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF)

89
Q

inhibits
angiogenesis and has anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory
effects

A

Thalidomide

90
Q

It inhibits tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α), reduces
phagocytosis by neutrophils, increases production of IL-10, alters
adhesion molecule expression, and enhances cell-mediated immunity
via interactions with T cells.

A

Thalidomide

91
Q

currently used in the treatment of multiple

myeloma at initial diagnosis and for relapsed-refractory disease.

A

Thalidomide

92
Q

Thalidomide is combined with what drug to increase response rate to myeloma by 90%?

A

Dexamethasone

93
Q

has been used
for many years in the treatment of some manifestations of leprosy
and has been reintroduced in the USA for erythema nodosum
leprosum

A

Thalidomide

94
Q

it is also useful in management of the skin manifestations

of lupus erythematosus

A

Thalidomide

95
Q

adverse effects include peripheral
neuropathy, constipation, rash, fatigue, hypothyroidism, and
increased risk of deep vein thrombosis

A

Thalidomide

96
Q

effectivene in the treatment of the myelodysplastic

syndrome with the chromosome 5q31 deletion

A

Lenalidomide

97
Q

Advantages of lenalidomide over thalidomide

A

less teratogenic effect and

fewer thromboembolic event

98
Q

another
oral IMiD that is being investigated for the treatment of multiple
myeloma and myelodysplasia

A

Pomalidomide (CC4047)

99
Q 
The only IMiD currently used as an
immunosuppressive medication (ie, in transplant recipients)
A

thalidomide

100
Q

prodrug of mercaptopurine and, like mercaptopurine,

functions as an antimetabolite

A

CYTOTOXIC AGENT: Azathioprine

101
Q

Azathioprine has significant drug interaction with?

A

Allopurinol

Much of the drug’s
inactivation depends on xanthine oxidase

102
Q

MOA CYTOTOXIC AGENT: Azathioprine

A

Azathioprine and mercaptopurine appear to produce immunosuppression
by interfering with purine nucleic acid metabolism at
steps that are required for the wave of lymphoid cell proliferation
that follows antigenic stimulation.

103
Q

MOA CYTOTOXIC AGENT: Azathioprine

A

destroy stimulated lymphoid cells

104
Q

management of acute glomerulonephritis

and in the renal component of systemic lupus erythematosus

A

CYTOTOXIC AGENT: Azathioprine

105
Q

proved useful in some cases of rheumatoid

arthritis, Crohn’s disease, and multiple sclerosis

A

CYTOTOXIC AGENT: Azathioprine

106
Q

have
been of occasional use in prednisone-resistant antibody-mediated
idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura and autoimmune hemolytic
anemias

A

CYTOTOXIC AGENT: Azathioprine

107
Q

The chief toxic effect of azathioprine and mercaptopurine is?

A

bone marrow suppression, usually manifested as leukopenia,

although anemia and thrombocytopenia may occur

108
Q

Hepatic dysfunction, manifested by very high serum alkaline

phosphatase levels and mild jaundice, occurs occasionally in which cytotoxic agent?

A

Azathioprine

109
Q

The alkylating agent that destroys proliferating lymphoid cells

A

Cyclophosphamide

110
Q

Effective against acquired factor XIII
antibodies and bleeding syndromes, autoimmune hemolytic anemia,
antibody-induced pure red cell aplasia, and Wegener’s granulomatosis

A

Cyclophosphamide

111
Q

Treatment with large doses of cyclophosphamide carries considerable
risk of?

A

pancytopenia and hemorrhagic cystitis

112
Q

prodrug of an inhibitor of pyrimidine synthesis approved only for rheumatoid
arthritis at present

A

Leflunomide

113
Q

Toxicities include elevation of liver enzymes with some risk of
liver damage, renal impairment, and teratogenic effects.

A

Leflunomide

114
Q 
an antimalarial agent thought to suppress intracellular antigen
processing and loading of peptides onto MHC class II molecules
by increasing the pH of lysosomal and endosomal compartments,
thereby decreasing T-cell activation.
A

Hydroxychloroquine

115
Q

The antibiotic ____ has
also been used with some success at the time of impending renal
transplant rejection

A

dactinomycin

116
Q

appears to be quite useful in

idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura refractory to prednisone

A

Vincristine

117
Q

has been shown to prevent
mast cell degranulation in vitro by binding to microtubule
units within the cell and to prevent release of histamine and
other vasoactive compounds

A

vinblastin

118
Q

adenosine deaminase inhibitor primarily
used as an antineoplastic agent for lymphoid malignancies, and
produces a profound lymphopenia

A

Pentostatin

119
Q

Acts primarily on the small, long-lived peripheral lymphocytes causing an impairment of delayed hypersensitivity
and cellular immunity while humoral antibody formation
remains relatively intact

A

antilymphocyte

globulin (ALG)

120
Q

An immunosuppressive antibody directed against the CD3 molecule on the surface of human T cells and can be
useful in the treatment of renal transplant rejection

A

Muromonab-CD3

121
Q

Effective in reducing systemic inflammation and preventing coronary artery aneurysms in Kawasaki Disease

A

Immune Globulin Intravenous (IGIV)

122
Q

It has also brought about good
clinical responses in systemic lupus erythematosus and refractory
idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (like azathioprine)`

A

Immune Globulin Intravenous (IGIV)

123
Q

administered to the mother

within 24–72 hours after the birth of an Rh-positive infant

A

Rh o (D) Immune Globulin Micro-Dose

124
Q

The usual dose of Rh o (D) immune globulin

A

2 mL intramuscularly,

containing approximately 300 mcg anti-Rh o (D) IgG

125
Q

for treatment of respiratory syncytial virus, cytomegalovirus,
varicella zoster, human herpesvirus 3, hepatitis B virus,
rabies, tetanus, and digoxin overdose

A

Hyperimmune Immunoglobulins

126
Q

humanized IgG 1 with a kappa chain that binds
to CD52 found on normal and malignant B and T lymphocytes,
NK cells, monocytes, macrophages, and a small population of
granulocytes

A

Antitumor MABs:

Alemtuzumab

127
Q

Approved for the treatment of B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia in patients who have
been treated with alkylating agents and have failed fludarabine
therapy

A

Antitumor MABs:

Alemtuzumab

128
Q

Precaution when taking alemtuzumab

A

patients should
be closely monitored for opportunistic infections and hematologic
toxicity because they may become lymphopenic and may also become neutropenic,
anemic, and thrombocytopenic

129
Q

humanized IgG 1 monoclonal antibody that
binds to vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and inhibits
VEGF from binding to its receptor, especially on endothelial cell

A

Antitumor MAB: Bevacizumab

130
Q

approved for firstline
treatment of patients with metastatic colorectal cancer alone
or in combination with 5-FU-based chemotherapy

A

Antitumor MAB: Bevacizumab

131
Q

approved for treatment of non-small cell lung cancer, glioblastoma
multiforme that has progressed after prior treatment, and metastatic
kidney cancer when used with interferon-alpha

A

Antitumor MAB: Bevacizumab

132
Q

2 precautions when takling bevacizumab

A

Since bevacizumab
is antiangiogenic, it should not be administered until
patients heal from surgery.

Patients taking the drug should be
watched for hemorrhage, gastrointestinal perforations, and wound
healing problems.

133
Q

Off-label use of bevacizumab

A

Bevacizumab has also been used off label by
intravitreal injection to slow progression of neovascular macular
degeneration

134
Q

human-mouse chimeric monoclonal antibody

that targets epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)

A

Antitumor MAB: Cetuximab

135
Q

It is indicated for use in patients with EGFR-positive
metastatic colorectal cancer and, along with radiation therapy, in
patients with head and neck cancer.

A

Antitumor MAB: Cetuximab

136
Q

HAMAs are generated by about 4% of

patients being treated with?

A

Antitumor MAB: Cetuximab

137
Q

a human IgG 1 monoclonal antibody directed

against a different epitope on CD20 than rituximab

A

Antitumor MAB: Ofatumumab

138
Q

It is approved
for patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) who are
refractory to fludarabine and alemtuzumab.

A

Antitumor MAB: Ofatumumab

139
Q

Risk associated with use of Antitumor MAB: Ofatumumab

A

There is a slight risk of hepatitis B virus reactivation

in patients taking ofatumumab.

140
Q

fully human IgG 2 kappa light chain monoclonal

antibody.

A

Antitumor MAB: Panitumumab

141
Q

It is approved for the treatment of EGFR expressing
metastatic colorectal carcinoma with disease progression
on or following fluoropyrimidine-, oxaliplatin-, and irinotecancontaining
chemotherapy regimens.

A

Antitumor MAB: Panitumumab

142
Q

Advantage of Panitumumab over Cetuximab

A

distinct advantage over cetuximab is that it is fully human, and therefore does not elicit HAMAs

143
Q

the first FDA-approved
monoclonal antibody produced from transgenic mice expressing
the human immunoglobulin gene loci.

A

Antitumor MAB: Panitumumab

144
Q

chimeric murine-human monoclonal IgG 1
(human Fc) that binds to the CD20 molecule on normal and
malignant B lymphocytes and

A

Rituximab

145
Q

approved for the therapy of
patients with relapsed or refractory low-grade or follicular B-cell
non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

Rituximab

146
Q

approved for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis in
combination with methotrexate in patients for whom anti-
TNF-α therapy has failed

A

Rituximab

147
Q

a recombinant DNA-derived, humanized
monoclonal antibody that binds to the extracellular domain of the
human epidermal growth factor receptor HER-2/ neu

A

Trastuzumab

148
Q

approved for the treatment of

HER-2 /neu -positive tumors in patients with breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab

149
Q

approved for the treatment of patients with metastatic gastric or gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma.

A

Trastuzumab

150
Q

MABs Used to Deliver Isotopes to Tumors

A

Arcitumomab
Capromab pendetide
Ibritumomab tiuxetan
Tositumomab

151
Q

a murine Fab fragment from an anticarcinoembryonic
antigen (CEA) antibody labeled with technetium
99m ( 99m Tc)

A

Arcitumomab

152
Q 
used for imaging patients with metastatic
colorectal carcinoma (immunoscintigraphy) to determine extent
of disease
A

Arcitumomab

153
Q

murine monoclonal antibody specific
for prostate specific membrane antigen. It is coupled to isotopic
indium ( 111 In)

A

Capromab pendetide

154
Q

used in immunoscintigraphy for patients
with biopsy-confirmed prostate cancer and post-prostatectomy in
patients with rising prostate specific antibody level to determine
extent of disease

A

Capromab pendetide

155
Q

an anti-CD20 murine monoclonal

antibody labeled with isotopic yttrium ( 90 Y) or 111 In

A

Ibritumomab tiuxetan

156
Q

approved for use in patients
with relapsed or refractory low-grade, follicular, or B-cell non-
Hodgkin’s lymphoma, including patients with rituximab-refractory
follicular disease.

A

Ibritumomab tiuxetan

157
Q

anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody
and is complexed with iodine 131 ( 131 I) used in
two-step therapy in patients with CD20-positive, follicular non-
Hodgkin’s lymphoma whose disease is refractory to rituximab and
standard chemotherapy.

A

Tositumomab

158
Q

Tositumomab should not be administered to

patients with

A

greater than 25% bone marrow involvement

159
Q

completely human IgG 1 approved for use in
patients with rheumatoid arthritis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis,
psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, Crohn’s disease, and
plaque psoriasis

A

Adalimumab

160
Q

recombinant humanized Fab fragment

that binds to TNF-α.

A

Certolizumab pegol

161
Q

Certolizumab is indicated for

patients with

A

Crohn’s disease and rheumatoid arthritis

162
Q

dimeric fusion protein composed of human IgG 1

constant regions fused to the TNF receptor

A

Etanercept

163
Q

approved for adult rheumatoid arthritis,
polyarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis
and psoriatic arthritis.

A

Etanercept

164
Q

human IgG monoclonal antibody that also
binds to soluble and membrane-associated TNF-α indicated for patients
with rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and psoriatic
arthritis.

A

Golimumab

165
Q

MAB Used as Immunosuppressants and
Anti-Inflammatory Agents that has the advantage of increased half-life such that subcutaneous
injections may be self-administered only once per month.

A

Golimumab

166
Q

currently
approved for use in Crohn’s disease, ulcerative colitis,
rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, plaque psoriasis, and
psoriatic arthritis

A

Infliximab

167
Q

recombinant fusion protein composed of the extracellular
domain of cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4
(CTLA-4) approved for patients with
rheumatoid arthritis and juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

Abatacept

168
Q

Patients on abatacept should..

A

Patients
should not take other anti-TNF drugs or anakinra while taking
abatacept.

patients should
be screened and treated for latent tuberculosis infection

169
Q

leukocyte-function-associated antigen-3 (LFA-3) fused
to a human IgG 1 Fc region (hinge, CH 2 , and CH 3 ) approved
for the treatment of plaque psoriasis. It

A

Alefacept

170
Q

They are indicated for prophylaxis
of acute organ rejection in renal transplant patients and either
may be used as part of an immunosuppressive regimen that also
includes glucocorticoids and cyclosporine A.

A

Basiliximab and Daclizumab

171
Q

humanized IgG4 monoclonal antibody that
binds to the α4-subunit of α4β1 and α4β7 integrins expressed on
the surfaces of all leukocytes except neutrophils indicated for patients with multiple sclerosis and Crohn’s disease
who have not tolerated or had inadequate responses to conventional
treatments.

A

Natalizumab

172
Q

anti-IgE recombinant humanized monoclonal
antibody that is approved for the treatment of allergic asthma in
adult and adolescent patients whose symptoms are refractory to
inhaled corticosteroids

A

Omalizumab

173
Q

recombinant humanized IgG 1 that binds to soluble
and membrane-associated IL-6 receptors for treatment of patients with rheumatoid arthritis
who are refractory to other anti-TNF-α biologicals.

A

Tocilizumab

174
Q

human IgG 1 monoclonal antibody that binds to

the p40 subunit of IL-12 and IL-23 cytokines for patients with moderate to severe plaque psoriasis

A

Ustekinumab

175
Q

It is indicated as an adjunct to percutaneous
coronary intervention for the prevention of cardiac
ischemic complications

A

Abciximab

176
Q

indicated for
treatment of postmenopausal women with osteoporosis at high risk
for fracture.

A

Denosumab

177
Q

approved for patients with
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) and dramatically
reduces the need for red blood cell transfusions

A

Eculizumab

178
Q

monoclonal antibody that binds to the fusion

protein of respiratory syncytial virus

A

Palivizumab

179
Q

labeled for
intravitreal injection in patients with neovascular age-related macular
degeneration and sudden blurring or vision loss secondary to
macular edema following retinal vein occlusion

A

Ranibizumab

180
Q

pegylated oligonucleotide that binds extracellular VEGF and is also
given by intravitreous injection to slow macular degeneration

A

Pegaptanib

Pharmacology (8 decks)

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