Chemotherapy - Dra. Alabastro Flashcards

1
Q

Etiology of cancer

A

characterized by a shift in the control mechanisms that govern cell proliferation and differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

PHASE OF CELL CYCLE: nuclear membrane breaks down, mitotic spindle forms, chromosomes condense

A

Mitotic Phase - Prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PHASE OF CELL CYCLE: chromosomes condense at the center

A

Mitotic Phase - Metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PHASE OF CELL CYCLE: chromosomes separate into chromatids

A

Mitotic Phase - Anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

PHASE OF CELL CYCLE: cells divide into parent and daughter cells

A

Mitotic Phase - Telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PHASE OF CELL CYCLE: Resting phase

A

G0 Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PHASE OF CELL CYCLE: RNA synthesis

A

G1 Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PHASE OF CELL CYCLE: DNA Replication

A

Synthesis Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

PHASE OF CELL CYCLE: Preparation for mitosis

A

G2 Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Crucial component of cells’ machinery for organizing and dividing chromosomes

Forms spindles during mitosis

A

Microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Basis for advanced treatment therapy for cancer

A

Proteins in control of cell growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Class 1 proteins

A

growth factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Class 2 proteins

A

Receptors for growth factors and hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Class 3 proteins

A

Intracellular signal transducers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Class 4 proteins

A

Nuclear transcription factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Class 5 proteins

A

cell-cycle control proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Factors affecting tissue growth

A
  1. Cell cycle time
  2. Growth fraction
  3. Total # of cells in the population
  4. Increased cell death rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Stages of tumor growth

A

Lag Phase: cells try to accustom themselves
Log Phase: cells repeatedly double in number
Plateau Phase: leveling off of cell doubling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Causes of cancer cells overproduction

A
  1. Failure of abnormal cells to undergo apoptosis
  2. Inappropriate stimulation of cell proliferation by genetic abnormalities
  3. Abnormalities of tumor suppressor gene (p53)
  4. Tumor angiogenesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Factor of tissue growth that determines MAXIMUM GROWTH RATE of tumor

A

Cell Cycle Time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Factor of tissue growth that determines portion of cells sensitive to drug

A

Growth Fraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Factor of tissue growth that gives an index of how advanced the cancer is.

A

Total # of cells in population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Indications for Chemotherapy

A
  1. Cure certain malignancies
  2. Palliate symptoms
  3. Treat asymptomatic patients
  4. Allow less mutilating surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Contraindications to Chemotherapy

A
  • Inadequate facilities
  • Survival unlikely even if tumor shrinkage is accomplished
  • Unlikely to obtain benefits because of severe debilitation
  • Asymptomatic patient with slow growing incurable tumors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Primary treatment for advanced cancer for which no alternative treatment exists

A

Primary Induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Patients with localized cancer for which alternative therapies exit but less than completely effective

A

Neoadjuvant example: CT, RT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Reduces the incidence of both local and systemic recurrence and to improve the overall survival

A

Adjuvant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

CLASSIFICATION OF CELL-CYCLE SPECIFIC CHEMOTHERAPEUTIC DRUGS

A
  1. Antimetabolites
  2. Antitumor antibiotic
  3. Vinca alkaloids
  4. Epipodophyllotoxins
  5. Taxanes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CLASSIFICATION OF CHEMOTHERAPEUTIC DRUGS

A

Cell Cycle Specific Drugs

Cell Cycle non-specific drugs

Phase Specific Drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CLASSIFICATION OF CELL-CYCLE NON-SPECIFIC CHEMOTHERAPEUTIC DRUGS

A
  1. Alkylating Agents
  2. Anthracyclines
  3. Antitumor antibiotics
  4. Camptothecins
  5. Platinum Analogs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

GOALS OF CANCER THERAPY

A
  1. Damage the DNA of the affected cancer cells
  2. Inhibit the synthesis of new DNA strands to stop the cell from replicating
  3. Stop mitosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why are combinations effective?

A
Prevents resistant clones
Less cytotoxicity
Biochemical enhancement of effects
To have sanctuary access
Rescue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Neutrophil count and platelet count should be modified when?

A

Absolute neutrophil count <120,000/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

General Adverse Effects of CT drugs

A

Nausea & vomiting
Mucositis; Stomatitis
Baldness
Myelosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When to modify drug dose in terms of renal toxicity?

A

Drugs that cause renal toxicity not administered unless creatinine clearance >55 ml/min (MTX; Cisplatin; Streptozocin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which drugs should have their dose reduced in cases of hepatic impairment

A

Vinca alkaloids

Anthracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
ALKYLATING AGENTS (give most commonly used drug):
Nitrogen mustard
A

cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
ALKYLATING AGENTS (give most commonly used drug):
Ethylenemelamine derivatives
A

Thiotepa

Altretamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
ALKYLATING AGENTS (give most commonly used drug):
Alkyl Sulfonate
A

Busulfan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
ALKYLATING AGENTS (give most commonly used drug):
Triazene
A

Dacarbazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
ALKYLATING AGENTS (give most commonly used drug):
Platinum Analogs
A

Cisplatin

Oxaloplatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Adverse effects of platinum analogs

A

Nephrotoxicity
Ototoxicity
Neurotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Mechanism of action of ALKYLATING AGENTS

A

Attachment of alkyl groups to DNA bases at N7 guanine forms fragmented DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Characteristics of alkylating agents

A

Cell cycle non-specific

Phase non-specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What should not be given in the administration of alkylating agents and why?

A

Do not give GLUTATHIONE as it can inactivate an alkylating agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which among alkylating agents has a direct vesicant effect on the skin?

A

Nitrogen mustard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which alkylating agents are irritants?

A

Cisplatin

Dacarbazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Indication of Chlorambucil (nitrogen mustard)

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Indication of cyclophosphamide IV/PO (nitrogen mustard)

A

BREAST

LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

AE of cyclophosphamide IV/PO (nitrogen mustard)

A

Severe N/V
Alopecia
Hemorragic cystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Indication of THIOTEPA (ETHYLENEMELAMINE DERIVATIVE)

A

Breast and ovarian CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Indication of Busulfan (alkyl sulfonate)

A

(CML) Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

AE of Busulfan (alkyl sulfonate)

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

Interstitial Pneumonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Indication of Dacarbazine (triazene)

A

Melanoma
Hodgkin’s
Soft tissue sarcoma

55
Q

AE of Dacarbazine (triazene)

A

CNS depression

56
Q

Platinum analog that causes ototoxicity

A

Cisplatin

57
Q

Platinum analog that causes severe N/V

A

carboplatin

58
Q

Platinum analog indicated for COLON CA

A

Oxaliplatin IV

59
Q

Oxaliplatin is resistant to?

A

Cisplatin

60
Q

Alkylating Agent that causes SEVERE N/V

A

Cyclophosphamide

61
Q

Alkylating agent that causes alopecia

A

Cyclophosphamide

62
Q

Alkylating agent that causes hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Cyclophosphamide

63
Q

Alkylating agent that causes REVERSIBLE neuropathy

A

Oxaliplatin

64
Q

Alkylating agent that causes IRREVERSIBLE ototoxicity

A

Cisplatin

Carboplatin

65
Q

MOA of NITROSOUREAS

A

alkylation and carbamoylatio

66
Q

Characteristic of nitrosoureas

A

Highly lipid soluble allowing them to cross BBB

Has delayed myelosuppressive effects (6 - 8 weeks)

67
Q

Nitrosourea with minimal bone marrow toxicity

A

Streptozocin

68
Q

Irritant nitrosourea

A

Carmustine (BCNU)

69
Q

Newest nitrosourea that is sugar-containing and indicated for insulin secreting islet cell pancreatic CA

A

Streptozocin

70
Q

Prototype of antifolate (antimetabolite)

A

Methotrexate IV/PO

71
Q

MOA of antimetabolites

A

inhibits critical enzymes involved in nucleic acid (NA) synthesis or become incorporated into the NA and produces incorrect codes

72
Q

Antimetabolite that does not have a non-linear dose response curve

A

5-FU

73
Q

Antimetabolites with both IV/PO preparation

A

Methotrexate

Mercaptopurine

74
Q

Antifolate Methotrexate indication

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Anemia

75
Q

Antifolate Methotrexate AE

A

Megaloblastic anemia

76
Q

5-Fluorouracil mainly indicated for?

A

Breast and colorectal CA

77
Q

5-Fluorouracil AE

A

Megaloblastic anemia

78
Q

DEOXYCYTIDINE ANALOG Cytarabine indication

A

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)

79
Q

PURINE ANTAGONIST mercaptopurine indication

A

Childhood acute leukemia

AML

80
Q

MOA of VINCA ALKALOIDS (NATURAL PRODUCTS)

A

Inhibits tubulin polymerization resulting to metaphase arrest and inhibition of mitosis

81
Q

common toxicity of vinca alkaloids

A

Leukopenia

Areflexia (neurotoxic)

82
Q

Prototype of vinca alkaloid which is indicated for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

A

Vincristine

83
Q

Natural product that stabilizes microtubule polymer

A

Taxane

84
Q

Taxanes can only be given via?

A

IV

85
Q

How many percent of taxanes are excreted in the urine?

A

10% only

86
Q

Main toxicity of taxanes

A

bone marrow /myelosuppression

Peripheral sensory neuropathy

87
Q

Paclitaxel mainly indicated for?

A

Breast and lung CA

88
Q

Toxicity of Paclitaxel

A

Myalgia

arthralgia

89
Q

EPIPODOPHYLLOTOXIN MOA

A

Inhibits topoisomerase II to promote DNA breakage and arrest in S and early G2 phase

90
Q

Characteristic of EPIPODOPHYLLOTOXIN

A

Cell cycle specific

91
Q

EPIPODOPHYLLOTOXIN given as IV only

A

Teniposide

92
Q

Most common ADR of EPIPODOPHYLLOTOXIN

A

diarrhea

93
Q

EPIPODOPHYLLOTOXIN indicated for small and non-small lung CA

A

Etoposide

94
Q

EPIPODOPHYLLOTOXIN indicated ALL

A

Teniposide

95
Q

Natural product Topoisomerase I inhibitor which cuts and re-ligates ssDNA to cause damage

A

CAMPTOTHECINS

96
Q

How is IRINOTECAN (IV CAMPTOTHECIN) eliminated from the body?

A

Through bile and feces

97
Q

CAMPTOTHECIN for lung and ovarian CA

A

Toptecan

98
Q

CAMPTOTHECIN for colorectal CA

A

IRINOTECAN (IV)

99
Q

ANTICANCER ANTIBIOTICS that cause Topoisomerase II-dependent DNA cleavage & intercalate with DNA double helix

A

Anthracycline and Dactinomycin

100
Q

ANTICANCER ANTIBIOTIC that complexes with Mg++ to DNA & Blocks DNA/RNA synthesis

A

Plicamycin

101
Q

ANTICANCER ANTIBIOTIC that causes cross links between complementary strands of DNA that impair replication

A

Mitomycin

102
Q

ANTICANCER ANTIBIOTIC that causes strand scission by interacting with O2 and iron

A

Bleomycin

103
Q

ANTICANCER ANTIBIOTIC that poorly crosses BBB

A

Bleomycin

104
Q

Cardiotoxic ANTICANCER ANTIBIOTICS

A

anthracyclines (DOXORUBICIN & DAUNOROBUCIN)

105
Q

ANTICANCER ANTIBIOTICS that cause pukmonary fibrosis

A

Bleomycin

106
Q

ANTICANCER ANTIBIOTIC that is hepatotoxic

A

Plicamycin

107
Q

ANDROGEN ANTAGONIST for prostatic CA

A

Flutamide

108
Q

AE of FLUTAMIDE

A

Hot flashes
impotence
loss of libido

109
Q

Androgen hormone drug that causes cholestatic jaundice

A

Fluoxymesterone

110
Q

AE of estrogen antagonist TAMOXIFEN

A

Hot flashes

Osteoporosis

111
Q

AE of steroids

A

Immunosuppression

112
Q

AE of ANASTROZOLE (aromatase inhibitor)

A

Myelosuppression

113
Q

Indication of ANASTROZOLE

A

Advanced ER/PR (+) non-tamoxifien responsive breast cacner

114
Q

Antiangiogenesis drug for colon CA

A

Bevacizumab

115
Q

Treatment for ADR of cisplatin or cytoprotective against cisplatin

A

AMIFOSTINE

116
Q

Serotonin antagonist for mgt of N/V during CT

A

ONDANSETRON

117
Q

Management for myelosuppression AE

A

Give hematopoietic growth factors

118
Q

Drug combination for Cervical Cancer

A

Cisplatin or Carboplatin + 5FU

119
Q

Drug combination for Colon CA

A

FOLFIRI: 5-FU + Leucovorin + IRInotecan/Topotecan

FOLFOX: 5-FU + Leucovorin + OXaliplatin

CapeOx:
Capecitabine + Oxaliplatin
CapeOx +/- bevacizumab

120
Q

Drug combination for Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) REMISSION

A

Vincristine + Prednisone

121
Q

Drug combination for Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) maintenance

A

6-mercaptopurine + Methotrexate + Cyclophosphamide

122
Q

Drug combination for Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

A

Cytarabine + Doxorubicin

123
Q

Drug combination for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

A

Chlorambucil + Prednisone

124
Q

Drug combination for Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

A

Busulfan

125
Q

Drug combination for adjuvant therapy to prevent relapse of BREAST CA

A

Anastrozole or letrozole/tamoxifen

126
Q

Drug combination for BREAST CA with METS

A

AC: doxorubicin (Adriamycin) + cyclophosphamide + Paclitaxel/Docetaxel

127
Q

Drug combination for BREAST CA

A

CAF: cyclophosphamide + doxorubicin (Adriamycin) + 5-FU

AC: doxorubicin (Adriamycin) + cyclophosphamide

CMFP: cyclophosphamide + methotrexate + 5-FU + prednisone

128
Q

Drug combination for LUNG CA

A

Etoposide + cisplatin/carboplatin

Topotecan + other agents

129
Q

Most popular breakthrough in cancer therapy

A

Nanotechnology

130
Q

MOA of non-classic alkylating agents

A

DNA alkylation; methylates DNA and inhibits DNA synthesis and function

131
Q

MOA of Platinum Analogs

A

Forms intrastrands and interstrand DNA cross-links; binds to nuclear and cytoplasmic proteins

132
Q

Common AE of Nitrosoureas

A

Nausea and vomiting

133
Q

Common toxicity of anthracyclines

A

Vesicant

134
Q

Aromatase inhibitors that cause myelosuppression

A

Anastrozole
Aminoglutethimide
Letrozole