Immunology Lab Final Material Flashcards

1
Q

3 Ways to Look at Failure of Passive Transfer in foals

A
  1. Refractometry
  2. ELISA
  3. Radial Immunodiffusion (RID)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

factors to decide what test

A

sensitivity, specificity, time frame for results, ease of use, cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Refractometry

A

measure of refractive index of a sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are we measuring directly with a refractometer?

A

refractive index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are we measuring indirectly with a refractometer?

A

total protein content of serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

refractive index

A

relative velocity of light of light in a medium compared to through the air (higher the number, the slower it moves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

SNAP Foal IgG test

A

ELISA, AB specific for equine IgG already bound to test, whole blood added on sample spot, then conjugate (peroxidase labeled anti-equine IgG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how to read a snap foal test

A

color relative to <400 and >800 mg/dl ranges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which test gives the most precise levels?

A

radioimmunodiffusion (RID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Radioimmunodiffusion

A

specific test that precipitates an Ag-Ab complex in the gel (agar has anti-canine IgG), add serum, measure ring, plot the squared value on regression graph compared to controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

canine immunoproliferative disorders

A

abnormal proliferation of Ig-producing cells and an excess of Ig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

3 types of canine immunoproliferative disorders

A
  1. multiple myeloma (a monoclonal gammopathy, proliferation of plasma cells)
  2. macroglobulinemia (IgM)
  3. Polyclonal gammopathy (multiple Igs (chronic infections, autoimmune, etc))
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Canine ImmunoDeficiency Disorders

A

result from the absence or failure of normal function in the innate and/or adaptive immune systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

primary canine immunodeficiency disorder

A

due to intrinsic defects in the cells or their products, typically genetic (rare in dogs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

secondary canine immunodeficiency disorder

A

acquired as a consequence of some disease process like again, neoplasia, disease, FPT, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cutoff for Canine IgG levels

A

less than 700mg/100ml is deficient

17
Q

Cutoff for Canine IgM levels

A

less than 75mg/100ml is deficient

18
Q

Cutoff for Canine IgA levels

A

less than 40mg/100ml is deficient

19
Q

What if the foal is over 18 hours old?

A

IgG will have to be given intravenously

20
Q

What type HST reaction do you get acutely if wrong blood transfusion given?

A

Type 2

21
Q

major crossmatch

A

detect Ab in the recipient serum against donor erythrocytes

22
Q

minor crossmatch

A

test donor plasma with recipient RBC (can remove the plasma)

23
Q

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn

A

fetal RBC leak into maternal circulation, mom develops Abs against these RBCs, then when the foal ingests colostrum and the ingested Ab cause RBC destruction

24
Q

Direct Coomb’s Test

A

used to detect RBCs that already have antibody attached to them; add Coomb’s reagent (anti IgG) directly to blood sample

used for patients already in hemolytic crisis

25
Q

Indirect Coomb’s Test

A

detects presence of Ig that is specific for RBC antigens (take recipient blood and mix with serum/colostrum from donor, THEN add Coomb’s reagent)

26
Q

atopy

A

allergic reaction

27
Q

allergen

A

type of antigen which produces an abnormally vigorous immune threat

28
Q

Main clinical sign of allergies?

A

pruritis (itchy!)

29
Q

Do serology IgE tests tell you what an animal is allergic to?

A

no, only that they’ve been exposed to that antigen sometime in their life

30
Q

Intradermal skin test

A

evaluates antigen-specific IgE bound to mast cells

31
Q

What should always be addressed first before pursuing allergy testing?

A

ectoparasite treatment

32
Q

positive control for IDST

A

histamine

33
Q

negative control for IDST

A

saline

34
Q

Most common allergen?

A

dust mites!

35
Q

Reasons for positive IDST reactions

A

-patient allergic
-patient allergic to a cross-reacting antigen
-irritant was too concentrated
-large volume injected

36
Q

Reasons for negative IDST reactions

A

-patient not allergic
-SQ injection (instead of intradermal)
-insufficient antigen
-patient is on drugs and not enough withdrawal time, affecting the reaction