Immunology - First Aid Flashcards

Question

In the spleen, B cells are found in...

Answer 1

follicles within the white pulp.

Answer 2

red pulp and white pulp, contains APCs and specialized B cells, and is where APCs present blood-borne antigens.

Answer 3

remove encapsulated bacteria.

Answer 4

decreased IgM which leads to decreased complement activation, which leads to decreased C3b opsonization which leads to increased susceptiblity to encapsulated organisms.

Answer 5

SHiNE SKis 1. Strep pneumo 2. H. influenzae 3. N. meningitidis 4. E. coli 5. Salmonella 6. Klebsiella 7. group B Strep

Answer 6

1. Howell-Jolly bodies (nuclear remnants) 2. target cells 3. thrombocytosis

Answer 7

site of T-cell differentiation and maturation. It is encapsulated.

Answer 8

epithelium of the 3rd pharyngeal pouches. Contains lymphocytes of mesenchymal origin.

Answer 9

dense with immature T cells.

Answer 10

pale with mature T cells and Hassall corpuscles containing epithelial reticular cells.

Answer 11

- neutrophils - macrophages - monocytes - dendritic cells - NK cells - complement

Answer 12

- T cells - B cells - circulating antibodies

Answer 13

- germline encoded | - resistance persists through generations, does not change within an organism's lifetime

Answer 14

- variation through VDJ recombination during lymphocyte development - microbial resistance not heritable

Answer 15

- nonspecific | - occurs rapidly (mins to hrs)

Answer 16

- hihgly specific, refined over time | - develops over long periods; memory response is faster and more robust

Answer 17

- epithelial tight junctions | - mucus

Answer 18

lysozyme complement CRP defensins

Answer 19

immunoglobulins

Answer 20

-TLRs: pattern recognition receptors that recgonize PAMPs

Answer 21

LPS (gram negative bacteria) flagellin (bacteria) ssRNA (viruses)

Answer 22

Memory cells: activated B and T cells; subsequent exposure to a previously encountered antigen leads to a stronger, quicker immune response

Answer 23

HLA genes and presents antigen fragments to T cells and binds TCRs.

Answer 24

HLA-A HLA-B HLA-C

Answer 25

HLA-DR HLA-DP HLA-DQ

Answer 26

TCR and CD8

Answer 27

TCR and CD4

Answer 28

expressed on all nucleated cells; not expressed on RBCs

Answer 29

only on APCs

Answer 30

present endogenously synthesized antigens (viral) to CD8 cytotoxic T cells

Answer 31

present exogenously synthesized protesin (bacterial proteins, viral capsid proteins) to T helper cells

Answer 32

antigen peptides loaded onto MHC I in RER after delivery via TAP peptide transporter

Answer 33

antigen loaded following release of invariant chain in an acidified endosome

Answer 34

Beta-2-microglobulin

Answer 35

hemochromatosis

Answer 36

Psoriatic arthritis Ankylosing spondylitis arthritis of IBD Reactive arthritis

Answer 37

celiac disease

Answer 38

MS hay fever SLE Goodpasture

Answer 39

T1DM SLE Graves

Answer 40

Rheumatoid arthritis | T1DM

Answer 41

``` Pernicious anemia (leading to B12 deficiency) Hashimoto ```

Answer 42

perforin and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected cells and tumor cells.

Answer 43

IL-2 IL-12 IFN-beta IFN-alpha

Answer 44

a nonspecific activation signal on a target cell and/or to an absence of class I MHC on target cell surface.

Answer 45

antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (CD16 binds Fc region of bound Ig, activating the NK cell).

Answer 46

1. recognize antigen 2. produce antibody 3. maintain immunologic memory

Answer 47

undergo somatic hypermutaiton to optimize antigen specificity.

Answer 48

plasma cells to secrete specific Igs.

Answer 49

persist and accelerate future response to Ag.

Answer 50

help B cells make antibody and produce cytokines to activate other cells of the immune system.

Answer 51

kill virus-infected cells directly.

Answer 52

- delayed cell-mediated hypersensitivity (type IV) | - acute and chronic cellular organ rejection

Answer 53

thymic cortex. T cells expressing TCRs capable of binding surface self MHC molecules survive.

Answer 54

medulla. T cells expressing TCRs with high affinity for self antigen undergo apoptosis.

Answer 55

1. B cells 2. macrophages 3. dendritic cells

Answer 56

1. T cell activation 2. B cell activation 3. class switching

Answer 57

1. Foreign body is phagocytosed by the dendritic cell. 2. Foreign Ag is presented on MHC II and recognized by TCR on Th (helper) cell. Ag is presented on MHC I to Tc (cytotoxic) cells. (signal 1) 3. Costimulatory signal is given by interaction of B7 and CD28. (signal 2) 4. Th cell activates and produces cytokines. Tc cell activates and is able to recognize/kill virus-infected cells.

Answer 58

1. Helper T cell activation 2. B cell receptor-mediated endocytosis; foreing antigen is presented on MHC II and recognized by TCR on Th cell (signal 1). 3. CD40 receptor on B cell binds CD40 ligand on Th cell (signal 2). 4. Th cell secretes cytokines that determine Ig class switching of B cell. B cell activates and undergoes class switching, affinity maturation, and antibody production.

Answer 59

IFN-gamma.

Answer 60

macrophages and cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

Answer 61

IL-4 and IL-10 (from the Th2 cell).

Answer 62

IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, and IL-13.

Answer 63

eosinophils for parasite defense and promotes IgE production by B cells.

Answer 64

IFN-gamma (from the Th1 cell).

Answer 65

Macrophages release IL-12 which stimulates T cells to differentiate into Th1 cells. Th1 cells release IFN-gamma to stimulate macrophages.

Answer 66

virus-infected, neoplastic, and donor graft cells by inducing apoptosis.

Answer 67

cytotoxic granules containing preformed proteins: 1. perforin that helps deliver content of granules into target cell 2. granzyme B = a serine protease that activates apoptosis inside a target cell 3. antimicrobial that induces apoptosis

Answer 68

suppressing CD4 and CD8 T-cell effector functions.

Answer 69

cell surface markers CD3, CD4, CD25 (alpha chain of IL-2 receptor) and transcription factor FOXP3.

Answer 70

variable part of L and H chains.

Answer 71

fix complement.

Answer 72

Fc and Fab fractions.

Answer 73

Fab fraction only.

Answer 74

antigen binding fragment.

Answer 75

the idiotype: it is a unique antigen-binding pocket. Only 1 antigenic specificity is expressed per B cell.

Answer 76

constant region with a carboxy terminal. It binds complement and has carbohydrate side chains.

Answer 77

isotype (IgM, IgD, etc.)

Answer 78

1. random recombination of VJ (light chain) or VDJ (heavy chain) genes 2. random combination of heavy chains 3. somatic hypermutation (following Ag stimulation) 4. addition of nucleotides to DNA during recombination by terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

Answer 79

IgM and IgD on their surfaces.

Answer 80

germinal centers of LNs by isotype switching (gene rearrangement; mediated by cytokines and CD40 ligand) into plasma cells that secrete IgA, IgE or IgG.

Answer 81

secondary (delayed) response to an antigen. It is the most abundant isotype in the serum.

Answer 82

- fixes complement - crosses placenta to provide infants w/ passive immunity - opsonizes bacteria - neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses

Answer 83

attachment of bacteria and viruses to the mucous membranes. It does NOT fix complement.

Answer 84

transyctosis. It is a monomer in circulation and a dimer when secreted.

Answer 85

produced antibody overall but is released into secretions (tears, saliva, mucus) and early breast milk (colustrum).

Answer 86

secretory component from epithelial cells before secretion.

Answer 87

the primary (immediate) response to an antigen. It fixes complement but does not cross the placenta.

Answer 88

surface of B cells.

Answer 89

monomer on B cell or pentamer when secreted; the pentamer shape allows it to efficiently trap free Ags out of tissue while the humoral response evolves.

Answer 90

on the surface of many B cells and in the serum.

Answer 91

mast cells and basophils. Has the lowest concentration in serum.

Answer 92

cross-linke mediating immediate (type I) hypersensitivity through the release of inflammatory mediators such as histamine.

Answer 93

worms by activating eosinophils.

Answer 94

antigens lacking a peptide component (ex. lipopolysaccharides from gram-negative bacteria).

Answer 95

presented by MHC to T cells. They are weakly or non-immunogenic.

Answer 96

boosters. (ex. pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine).

Answer 97

antigens containing a protein component (ex. diphtheria vaccine).

Answer 98

class switching and immunologic memory.

Answer 99

factors whose serum concentrations change significantly in response to inflammation.

Answer 100

liver in both acute and chronic inflammatory states.

Answer 101

IL-6, IL-1, TNF-alpha and IFN-gamma.

Answer 102

- serum amyloid A - C-reactive protein - ferritin - fibrinogen - hepcidin

Answer 103

- albumin | - transferrin

Answer 104

prolonged elevation can lead to amyloidosis

Answer 105

opsonin; fixes complement and facilitates phagocytosis | measured clinically as a sign of ongoing inflammation

Answer 106

binds and sequesters iron to inhibit microbial iron scavenging

Answer 107

coagulation factor; promotes endothelial repair; correlates with ESR

Answer 108

prevents release of iron bound by ferritin leading to anemia of chronic disease

Answer 109

reduction during acute phase reaction acts to conserve amino acids for positive reactants

Answer 110

internalized by macrophages to sequester iron.

Answer 111

interacting plasma proteins that play a role in innate immunity and inflammation. MAC defends against gram-negative bacteria.

Answer 112

Classic pathway - IgG or IgM mediated Alternative pathway - microbe surface molecules Lectin pathway - mannose or other sugars on microbe surface

Answer 113

C3b - opsonization C3a, C4a, C5a - anaphylaxis C5a - neutrophil chemotaxis C5b-9 - cytolysis by membrane attack complex

Answer 114

C3b and IgG. C3b also helps clear immune complexes.

Answer 115

decay-accelerating factor (DAF aka CD55) and C1 esterase inhibitor.

Answer 116

hereditary angioedema. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated.

Answer 117

severe, recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections. It increases susceptibility to type III HSRs.

Answer 118

susceptibility to recurrent Neisseria bacteremia.

Answer 119

complement-mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria.

Answer 120

``` IL-1 IL-6 IL-8 IL-12 TNF-alpha ```

Answer 121

endogenous pyrogen (aka osteoclast-activating factor).

Answer 122

fever and acute inflammation. It activated endothelium to express adhesion molecules and induces chemokine secretion to recruit leukocytes.

Answer 123

endogenous pyrogen that causes fever and stimulates production of acute phase reactants.

Answer 124

chemotactic factor for neutrophils.

Answer 125

differnetiation of T cells into Th1 cells and activates NK cells.

Answer 126

septic shock, activates the endothelium and causes leukocyte recruitment, vascular leak.

Answer 127

- IL-2 | - IL-3

Answer 128

growth of helper, cytotoxic and regulatory T cells

Answer 129

growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells. It functions like GM-CSF.

Answer 130

IFN-gamma.

Answer 131

antiviral and antitumor properties. IT activates NK cells to kill virus-infected cells. It increases MHC expression and antigen presentation in all cells.

Answer 132

IL-4 IL-5 IL-10

Answer 133

differentiation into Th2 cells. It promotes growth of B cells and enhances class switching to IgE and IgM.

Answer 134

differentiation of B cells. It enhances class switching to IgA. Stimulates growth and differentiation of eosinophils.

Answer 135

inflammatory response. It inhibits the actions of activated T cells and Th1.

Answer 136

innate host defense against both RNA and DNA viruses.

Answer 137

glycoproteins synthesized by viral-infected cells that act locally on uninfected cells "priming" thme for viral defense.

Answer 138

1. RNAase L (leading to degradation of viral/host mRNA 2. protein kinase (leading to inhibition of viral/host protein synthesis) *This essentially results in apoptosis, thereby interrupting viral amplification.

Answer 139

1. TCR (binds antigen-MHC complex) 2. CD3 (associated with TCR for signal transduction) 3. CD28 (binds B7 on APC)

Answer 140

CD4 | CD40 ligand

Answer 141

- Ig (binds antigens) - CD19, CD20, CD21 (receptor for EBV), CD40 - MHC II, B7

Answer 142

- CD14, CD40 - MHC II, B7 - Fc and C3b receptors (enhanced phagocytosis)

Answer 143

- CD16 (binds Fc of IgG) | - CD56 (unique marker for NK)

Answer 144

self-reactive T cells become nonreactive without a costimulatory molecule.

Answer 145

cross-link the beta region of the T-cell receptor to the MHC class II on APCs. They can activate any T cell leading to a massive release of cytokines.

Answer 146

macrophages by binding to endotoxin receptor CD14; Th cells are not involved.

Answer 147

1. Salmonella (2 flagellar variants) 2. Borrelia (relapsing fever) 3. Neisseria gonorrhae (pilus protein) 4. influenza virus (major shift, minor drift) 5. Trypanosomes (programmed rearrangement)

Answer 148

DNA rearrangement and RNA segment reassortment.

Answer 149

- IgA in breast milk - maternal IgG crossing placenta - antitoxin - humanized monoclonal antibody

Answer 150

natural infection vaccines toxoid

Answer 151

tetanus toxin, botulinum toxin, HBV or Rabies.

Answer 152

hep B or rabies exposure.

Answer 153

microorganism loses its pathogenicity but retains capacity for transient growth within the inoculated host. Mainly induces a cellular response.

Answer 154

induces strong, lifelong immunity

Answer 155

may revert to virulent form, often contraindicated in pregnancy and immune deficiency

Answer 156

- mumps - measles - rubella - polio (Sabin) - influenza (intranasal) - varicella - yellow fever

Answer 157

pathogen is inactivated by heat or chemicals; maintaining epitope structure on surface Ag is important; humoral immunity is induced.

Answer 158

stable and safer than live vaccines

Answer 159

weaker immune response, boosters usually required

Answer 160

- cholera - hep A - polio (salk) - influenza (injection) - rabies

Answer 161

anaphylactic and atopic. Free antigen cross-links IgE on presensitized mast cells and basophils, triggering immediate release of vasoactive amines that act at postcapillary venules.

Answer 162

rapidly after Ag exposure because of preformed Ab. The delayed response follows due to production of arachidonic acid metabolites (leukotrienes).

Answer 163

skin test specific for IgE

Answer 164

cytotoxic (antibody mediated) - IgM, IgG bind to fixed Ag on "enemy" cell, leading to cellular destruction.

Answer 165

1. opsonization leading to phagocytosis or complement activation 2. complement-mediated lysis 3. antibody-dependnet cell-mediated cytotoxicity, usually due to NK cells or macrophages

Answer 166

direct and indirect Coombs

Answer 167

detects antibodies that have adhered to pt's RBCs | ex. test an Rh+ infant of an Rh- mother

Answer 168

detects antibodies that can adhere to other RBCs | ex. test an Rh- woman for Rh+ antibodies

Answer 169

immune complex - antigen-antibody (IgG) complexes activate complement which attracts neutrophils; neutrophils release lysosomal enzymes.

Answer 170

an immune complex disease (type III) in which antibodies to the foreign proteins are produced (takes 5 days). IMmune complexes forma and are deposited in membranes where they fix complement (leading to tissue damage).

Answer 171

drugs acting as haptens. Fever, urticaria, arthralgias, proteinuria, lymphaadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure.

Answer 172

local, subacute antibody-mediated HSR type III. Intradermal injection of antigen induces antibodies, which form antigen-antibody complexes in the skin.

Answer 173

edema, necrosis, and activation of complement.

Answer 174

immunofluorescent staining

Answer 175

delayed (T cell mediated) type. Sensitized T lymphocytes encoutner antigen and then release lymphokines which leads to macrophase activation. NO antibody involved.

Answer 176

patch test, PPD

Answer 177

1. anaphylaxis (bee sting, food/drug allergy) | 2. allergic/atopic disorders (rhinitis, hay fever, eczema, hives, asthma)

Answer 178

immediate, anaphylactic, atopic

Answer 179

1. autoimmune hemolytic anemia 2. pernicious anemia 3. ITP 4. erythroblastosis fetalis 5. rheumatic fever 6. goodpasture syndrome 7. bullous pemphigoid 8. pemphigus vulgaris

Answer 180

disease tends to be specific to tissue or site where antigen is found

Answer 181

1. SLE 2. polyarteritis nodosa 3. poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis 4. serum sickness 5. arthus rxn

Answer 182

associated with vasculitits and systemic manifestations

Answer 183

1. MS 2. Guillain-Barre 3. GVHD 4. PPD (test for TB) 5. Contact dermatitis (poison ivy, nickel allergy)

Answer 184

Typer I HSR against plasma proteins in transfused blood.

Answer 185

urticaria, pruritis, wheezing, fever. Treat with antihistamines.

Answer 186

severe allergic rxn; IgA-deficient individuals must receive blood products that lack IgA

Answer 187

dyspnea, bronchospasm, hypotension, respiratory arrest, shock

Answer 188

Type II HSR. Host antibodies agaisnt donor HLA Ags and leukocytes.

Answer 189

fever, HAs, chills, flushing

Answer 190

Type II HSR. Intravascular hemolysis (ABO blood group incompatibility) or extravascular hemolysis (host Ab rxn against foreign antigen on donor RBCs).

Answer 191

fever, hypotension, tachypnea, tachycardia, flank pain, hemoglobinemia (intravascular), and jaundice (extravascular hemolysis).

Answer 192

myasthenia gravis

Answer 193

goodpasture syndrome

Answer 194

SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome

Answer 195

limited sclerosderma (CREST syndrome)

Answer 196

pemphigus vulgaris

Answer 197

bullous pemphigoid

Answer 198

drug-induced lupus

Answer 199

polymyositis, dermatomyositis

Answer 200

Hashimoto thyroiditis

Answer 201

primary biliary cirrhosis

Answer 202

SLE (nonspecific)

Answer 203

scleroderma (diffuse)

Answer 204

autoimmune hepatitis

Answer 205

Sjogren syndrome

Answer 206

mixed CT disease

Answer 207

granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)

Answer 208

celiac disease

Answer 209

microscopic polyangiitis, Churg-Strauss

Answer 210

Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer 211

``` CMV EBV JCV VZV chronic infx with respiratory/GI viruses ```

Answer 212

Candida, PCP

Answer 213

Encapsulated bacteria

Answer 214

Enteroviral encephalitis, poliovirus (live vaccine contraindicated)

Answer 215

Giardia (no IgA)

Answer 216

Staph Burkholderia cepacia Serratia Nocardia

Answer 217

Candida | Aspergillus

Answer 218

Neisseria (no MAC)

Answer 219

recurrent bacteiral infxns while T-cell deficiencies tend to produce more fungal and viral infections.

Answer 220

Defect in BTK, a tyrosine kinase gene leading to no B cell maturation.

Answer 221

recurrent bacterial and enteroviral infxns after 6 months (decreased maternal IgG).

Answer 222

- normal CD19+ B cell count - decreased pro-B - decreased Ig of all classes - absent LNs and tonsils

Answer 223

- usually asymptomatic - can see airway and GI infections - autoimmune disease - atopy - anaphylaxis to IgA-containing products

Answer 224

defect in B-cell differentiation

Answer 225

-can be acquired in 20-30s; increased risk of autoimmune disease, bronchiechtasis, lymphoma, sinopulmonary infxns

Answer 226

- decreased plasma cells | - decreased immunoglobulins

Answer 227

- 22q11 deletion | - failure to develop 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches (leading to an absent thymus and parathyroids)

Answer 228

- tetany (hypocalcemia) - recurrent viral/fungal infxns (T-cell deficiency) - conotruncal abnormalities (tetralogy of fallot and truncus arteriorsus)

Answer 229

- decreased T cells - decreased PTH - decreased calcium - absent thymic shadow on CXR - 22q11 deletion detected by FISH

Answer 230

decreased Th1 response; autosomal recessive

Answer 231

disseminated mycobacteiral and fungal infxns; may present after administration of BCG vaccine

Answer 232

decreased IFN-gamma

Answer 233

-deficiency of Th17 cells due to STAT3 mutation leading to impaired recrutiment of neutrophils to the site of infxn

Answer 234

- coarse Facies - cold staphylococcal abscesses - retained primary teeth - dermatolgic problems (eczema)

Answer 235

- increased IgE | - decreased IFN-gamma

Answer 236

T-cell dysfunction

Answer 237

noninvasive candida infections of the skin and mucous membranes

Answer 238

- absent invitro T-cell proliferation in response to candida | - absent cutaneous rxn to candida antigens

Answer 239

several types including defective IL-2R gamma chain (most common, X-linked), adenosine deaminase deficiency (autosomal recessive)

Answer 240

- FTT - diarrhea - thrush - recurrent viral, bacterial, fungal and protzoal infxns

Answer 241

bone marrow transplant

Answer 242

- decreased T cell receptor excision circles (TRECs) - absense of thymic shadow - absence of germinal centers (LN biopsy) - absence of T cells (flow cytometry)

Answer 243

defects in ATM gene leading to DNA double strand breaks leading to cell cycle arrest

Answer 244

``` cerebellar defects (ataxia) spider angiomas (telangiectasia) IgA deficiency ```

Answer 245

- increased AFP - decreased IgA, IgG, IgE - lymphopenia - cerebellar atrophy

Answer 246

most commonly due to defective CD40L on Th cells (class switching defect); X-linked

Answer 247

severe pyogenic infections early in life; opportunistic infxn with Pneumocystis, Cryptosporidium, CMV.

Answer 248

- increased IgM | - decreased IgG, IgA, IgE

Answer 249

- mutation in WAS gene (x-linked recessive) | - T cells unable to reorganize actin skeleton

Answer 250

- Thrombocytopeic purpura - eczema (esp. trunk) - recurrent infections - increased risk of atuoimmune disease and malignancy

Answer 251

- decreased/normal IgG, IgM - increased IgE, IgA - fewre and smaller platelets

Answer 252

defect in LFA-1 integrin (CD18) protein on phagocytes; impaired migration and chemotaxis; AR

Answer 253

recurrent bacterial skin and mucosal infections, absent pus formation, impaired wound healing, delayed separation of umbilical cord

Answer 254

- increased neutrophils | - absence of neutrophils at infection sites

Answer 255

defect in lysosomal trafficking regulator gene (LYST). Microtubule dysfunction in phagosome-lysosome fusion; AR

Answer 256

recurrent pyogenic infxns by staph and strep, partial albinism, peripheral neuropathy, progressive neurodegeneration, infiltrative lymphohistiocytosis

Answer 257

- giant granules in neutrophils and platelets - pancytopenia - mild coagulation defects

Answer 258

defect of NADPH oxidase leading to decreased ROS and absent respiratory burst in neutrophils; X-linked

Answer 259

increased susceptiblity to catalase positive organisms

Answer 260

- abnormal dihydrorhodamine test | - nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test is negative

Answer 261

pre-existing recipient antibodies react to donor antigen (type II HSR) and activate complement

Answer 262

widespread thrombosis of graft vessesl leading to ischemia/necrosis. (graft must be removed)

Answer 263

Cellular: CTLs activated against donor MHCs Humoral: similar to hyperacute, excpt antibodies develop after transplant

Answer 264

- vasculitis of graft vessels with dense interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate - prevent/reverse with immunosuppressants

Answer 265

recipient T cells perceive donor MHC as recipient MHC and react against donor antigens presented; both cellular and humoral components

Answer 266

- irreversible; t-cell and antibody mediated damage - Heart: atherosclerosis - Lungs: bronchiolitis obliterans - Liver: vanishing bile ducts - Kidney: vascular fibrosis, glomerulopathy

Answer 267

grafted immunocompetent T cells proliferate in the immunocompromised host and reject host cells with "foreign" proteins leading to severe organ dysfunction

Answer 268

- maculopapular rash, jaundie, diarrhea, hepatosplenomegaly - usually in bone marrow and liver transplants (rich in lymphocytes) - potentially beneficial in BMT for leukemia (graft vs. tumor)

Answer 269

calcineurin inhibitor; binds cyclphilin; blocks T-cell activation by preventing IL-2 transcription

Answer 270

transplant rejection prophylaxis psoriasis RA

Answer 271

- Nephrotoxicity** - HTN - hyperlipidemia - hyperglycemia - tremor - hirsutism - gingival hyperplasia

Answer 272

calcineurin inhibitor; binds FK506 binding protein; blocks T cell activation by preventing IL-2 transcription

Answer 273

transplant rejection prophylaxis

Answer 274

- increased risk of diabetes and neurotoxicity | - nephrotoxic**

Answer 275

mTOR inhibitor; binds FKBP | blocks T cell activation and B cell differentiation by preventing IL-2 signal transduction

Answer 276

kidney transplant rejection prophylaxis

Answer 277

- anemia - thrombocytopenia - leukiopenia - insulin resistance - hyperlipidemia - NON-nephrotoxic

Answer 278

monoclonal antibody; blocks IL-2R

Answer 279

kidney transplant rejection prophylaxis

Answer 280

edema HTN tremor

Answer 281

antimetabolite precursor of 6-MP; inhibits lymphocyte proliferation by blocking nucleotide synthesis

Answer 282

- transplant rejection prophylaxis - RA - Crohn disease - glomerulonephritis

Answer 283

- leukopenia - anemia - thrombocytopenia

Answer 284

inhibit NF-kappaB; suppress both B and T cell fxn by decreasing transcription of many cytokines

Answer 285

- transplant rejection prophylaxis (immune suppression) | - inflammation

Answer 286

- hyperglycemia - osteoporosis - central obesity - muscle breakdown - psychosis - acne - HTN - cataracts - peptic ulcers

Answer 287

Cushing Syndrome.

Answer 288

anemias esp. in renal failure.

Answer 289

thrombocytopenia.

Answer 290

thrombocytopenia.

Answer 291

recovery of bone marrow.

Answer 292

recovery of bone marrow.

Answer 293

renal cell carcinoma and metastatic melanoma.

Answer 294

Hep B/C, Kaposi sarcoma, hairy cell leukemia, condyloma acuminatum, RCC, and malignant melanoma

Answer 295

chronic granulomatous disease

Answer 296

CD52 and is used for CLL.

Answer 297

VEGF and is used in colorectal cancer and RCC.

Answer 298

EGFR and is used in Stage IV colorectal cancer and head/neck cancer.

Answer 299

CD20 and is used in B-cell non-hodgkin lymphoma, RA, and ITP

Answer 300

HER2/neu and is used in breast cancer and gastric cancer.

Answer 301

TNF-alpha and are used in IBD, RA, ankylosing spondyliits and psoriasis.

Answer 302

alpha4-integrin and is used in MS and Crohn disease.

Answer 303

glycoprotein IIb/IIIa and is used as an anti-platelet agent for prevention of ischemic complications in pts undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.

Answer 304

RANKL and is used in osteoporosis to inhibit osteoclast maturation.

Answer 305

digoxin and is used for digoxin toxicity.

Answer 306

IgE and is used for allergic asthma; it prevents IgE binding to FcepsilonRI.

Answer 307

RSV F protein and is used for RSV prophylaxis for high-risk infants.