Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Define sensitivity and hypersensitivity

A

Sensitivity: normal response to a stimulus
Hypersensitivity: reproducible symptoms or signs following exposure to a stimulus at a dose which is tolerated by normal people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define allergen

A

any substance stimulating the production of IgE or a cellular immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define sensitisation

A

production of IgE antibodies (detected by serum IgE assay) after repeated exposure to an allergen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define atopy

A

A personal/ familial tendency to produce IgE antibodies in response to ordinary exposures to potential allergens, Strongly associated with asthma, rhinitis, conjunctivitis, eczema and food allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define allergy

A

A hypersensitivity reaction initiated by specific immunological mechanisms, leading to disease. This can be IgE medicate or non- IgE mediated.
The developing immune system must be sensitised to an allergen before an allergic immune response develops.
Age is important to the history, e.g. eczema after the age of 2 is less likely to be allergic as they have been exposed to most allergens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the pathophys of a IgE mediated immune response

A
  • allergen binds to TH2 cell, which stimulated B cell to become plasma cell and produce IgE antibodies to that antigen
  • on second exposure antigen binds to specific IgE
  • leads to mast cell activation and degranulation
  • this leads to release of:
  • histamine (vasodilates, increases permeability, bronchoconstricts, mucus production)
  • prostaglandins (bronchoconstricts)
  • trypase
  • leukotrienes
  • IL-3,4,5 (cytokines)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How can adverse reactions to food be classified?

A
  • immunological reactinons: can be either IgE mediated or non IgE mediated
  • non immunological reactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What questions should be asked in history of someone presenting with adverse food reaction?

A
  • what foods
  • what symptoms
  • when do symptoms occur
  • what age did it start (NOT MILK ALLERGY IF >1yr OLD)
  • how much food needed to cause symptom
  • do they occur every time they have that food
  • how long do symptoms last
  • is there phx or fhx of allergy/ atopy
  • feeding history, age of weaning, formula vs breast
  • have any exclusion diets been tried
  • is their diet nutritionally sufficient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How should IgE mediated and non IgE mediated allergy be investigated

A

IgE: skin prick test, serum IgE assay, atopy patch testing and oral food challenges
Non IgE mediate: elimination diet to see if improved then reintroduce to see if returns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do the features of IgE mediated and non IgE mediated allergy differ?

A

IgE mediated: symptoms start within 2 hrs of ingestion and go within 12. Can cause GI, resp, cutaneous or cardiac symptoms.
Non IgE mediated: presents hrs or days after ingestion and lasts for days. Usually only causes GI or cutaneous symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

State the common IgE mediated allergens

A
  • wheat
  • sesame
  • eggs
  • milk
  • soya milk
  • kiwi
  • seafood
  • shellfish
  • tree nuts
  • peanuts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

State the 4 common non IgE mediated allergens

A
  • wheat
  • eggs
  • soya
  • milk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is anaphylaxis

A

A severe generalised or systemic hypersensitivity reaction characterised by being rapid in onset affecting 2 or more organ systems with potentially life-threatening airway, breathing or circulation symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the diagnostic criteria for anaphylaxis

A

Acute onset of an illness with involvement of the skin, mucosals tissue or both
AND AT LEAST 1 OF;
• Resp compromise (e.g. dyspnoea, wheeze bronchospasm, stridor, hypoxaemia)
• Reduced BP or associated symptoms of end organ dysfunction (e.g. syncope)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give 5 symptoms of anaphylaxis

A
  • Skin/ mucosal: itching lips/ tongue, lip/ tongue/ uvula swelling, skin flushing, itching, urticaria, angiodema
  • Resp: stridor, SOB, tight chest, wheeze, cough, nasal itching and congestion, throat itching, hoarseness, cyanosis and resp arrest
  • GI: abdo pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
  • cardio: chest pain, tachy, brady, palpitations, hypotension, feeling faint, arrest
  • CNS: altered behaviours, headache, dizzy, confused, feeling of impending doom
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give 3 unusual but possible presentations of anaphylaxis

A
  • biphasic anaphylaxis: second reaction 4-12 hrs after initial reaction
  • idiopathic anaphylaxis: diagnosed where no triggers can be found on hx and allergy tests are negative
  • post prandial exercise induced: reaction requires food contact followed by exercise
17
Q

give 5 common triggers for atopic eczema

A
  • irritants eg soaps/ detergents
  • environmental factors: cold/ dry weather, dampness, house dust mites, pet fur, pollen, moulds
  • food allergies- cows milk, eggs, wheat, peanuts, soya
  • wools and synthetic fibres
  • skin infections
18
Q

Describe the 3 types of allergic rhinitis

A
  • Seasonal: occurs at certain times of the year, usually due to pollen
  • Perennial (persistent): throughout the year, commonly die to dust or pets
  • Occupational: due to exposure of allergens, e.g. latex gloves
19
Q

Describe the pathophys of allergic rhinitis

A

An IgE mediated inflammation of the nasal mucosa following exposure to allergens. This causes histamine to be released in response.
• Acute phase response (mins): sneezing and increase in nasal secretions
• Late phase response (6-12hrs): characterised by nasal obstruction

20
Q

How is allergic rhinitis managed?

A
  • allergen avoidance
  • non sedating antihistamines eg cetirizine- nasally 1st then orally
  • nasal saline washouts
  • topical intra nasal steroids
  • then refer to allergy clinic
  • surgical reduction of inferior turbinates or correction of deviated nasal septum can help
21
Q

When does a child receive vaccinations?

A

2,3,4 and 12 months, 2 years, 3.3 years, age 12/13 and 14

22
Q

What can vaccines be made from? give an example for each (4)

A
  • inactivated organisms (pertussis, poliomyelitis)
  • live attenuated organisms (meales, mumps, rubella, BCG, OPV)
  • secreted products (tetanus, diptheria)
  • recombinant products
  • constituents of cells wall (HiB, pneumococcus, meningococcus)
23
Q

What is the difference in effect between plain polysaccharide vaccines (HiB, meningococcus, pneumococcus) and protein vaccines (tetanus, diptheria)

A

polysaccharides stimulate the immune system less broadly, so last less long.

24
Q

Describe the clinical features of diptheria infection?

A
  • Local disease: Affects URT with (pseudo-) membranous pharyngitis, enlarged anterior cervical nodes (BULL NECK) and soft tissue swelling
    • Systemic disease: Toxin affects myocardium, nervous and adrenal tissues causes paralysis and cardiac failure
25
Q

Describe the clinical features of pertussis infection (3 phases)

A

Clinical features: Initial catarrhal phase, similar to viral URTI.
Then paroxysms of intense coughing followed by ‘whoop’ or by vomiting. Infants may not have whoop rather periods of apnoea- can last months (called 100 day cough). Then chronic cough phase lasting for a few weeks.
Complications:
• Pneumonia
• Weight loss from repeated vomiting
• Cerebral hypoxia with resultant brain damage
• Severe and potentially fatal in infants under 6 months old

26
Q

Describe the clinical features of a tetanus infection

A

Trismus (lockjaw) and facial spasms (risus sardonicus) Neck stiffness and difficulty swallowing, Spasms leading to opisthotinos, Pyrexia, sweating, elevated BP and tachycardia

27
Q

What causes tetanus

A

Tetanus toxin, released following infection by the bacterium Clostridium tetani.
Tetanus spores are present in soil or manure and enter the body through a puncture wound, burn or scratch – which may go unnoticed.
Neonatal tetanus is due to infection of the umbilical stump

28
Q

What causes polio

A
  • poliomyelitis infection
  • spreads faecal- oral
  • virus multiplies in GI mucosa then drains to cervical and mesenteric lymph nodes then to blood stream
  • in 5% it crosses blood brain barrier to enter CNS
29
Q

How does polio present? 3 ways)

A

• Sub-clinical: 95% of cases experience no or mild coryzal symptoms.
• Non-paralytic: A small number will have flu-like symptoms such as a high fever, sore throat, headache, nausea and abdominal pain and aching muscles.
- Paralytic: Symptoms follow those of non-paralytic polio floppy muscle weakness. paralysis is irreversible and 5-10% will die from resp failure.

30
Q

How may haemophilus influenza present?

A

Meningitis (commonest presentation), epiglottitis, bacteraemia without concomitant infection, pneumonia, pericarditis, septic arthritis, osteomyelitis, and cellulitis

31
Q

Which meningitis vaccines are given and when are they given?

A

Hib/ MenC conjugate given at 12 months. MenACYW and 4CMenB at 14 yrs

32
Q

When is MMR given?

A

12 months and booster at 3 yrs 4 months

33
Q

What disease causes cough coryza and conjunctivitis, kolpik spots and maculopapular rash starting on face then behind ears, trunk and then extremities.

A

measles

34
Q

give 3 complications of measles

A
  • pneumonia, crough, otitis media
  • diarrhoea
  • encephalitis
35
Q

State 3 types of non IgE mediated food allergy

A
  • Food protein induced enterocolitis syndrome (FPIES)
  • Food protein induced enteropathy (FPE)
  • Coeliac
  • Allergic proctocolitis (AP)
  • dermatitis herpetiformis
36
Q

State 3 types of IgE mediated food allergy

A
  • anaphylaxis
  • immediate gastrointestinal hypersensitivity
  • pollen associated food allergy syndrome
  • delayed food induced anaphylaxis to meats
  • food induced exercise induced anaphylaxxis