Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What is SPUR?

A
Serious infections 
Persistent infections 
Unusual infections 
Recurrent infections 
When you see a patient with SPUR think about immune deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are clinical features suggestive of immunodeficiency?

A
SPUR
Weight loss or failure to thrive 
Severe skin rash (eczema)
Chronic diarrhoea 
Mouth ulceration 
Unusual autoimmune disease
Family history
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the classification of immunodeficiencies?

A

Secondary or primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the characteristics of a secondary immunodeficiency?

A

Common
Often subtle
Often involves more than one component of the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the characteristics of a primary immunodeficiency?

A

Rare - 1:10000 live births

>200 primary immune deficiencies now described

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some conditions associated with secondary immune deficiency?

A
Physiological immune deficiency 
Infection
Treatment interventions 
Malignancy 
Biochemical and nutritional disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What cells and protetins are involved in the innate immune system?

A
Marcophages 
Neutrophils 
Mast cells 
NK cells 
Complement proteins 
Acute phase protiens
Cytokines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the function of the innate immune system?

A

To recognise structures (PAMPs) that are unique to infectious organisms. Rapidly clear microorganisms, stimulate the adaptive immune response and buy time whilst the adaptive immune system is mobilized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of cells phagocytose?

A

Neutrophils

Monocytes/macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the function of phagocytosis?

A

To initiate and amplify the inflammatory response
To scavenge for cellular and infectious debris
To ingest and kill microorganisms
To produce inflammatory molecules which regulate other components of the immune system
Resolution and repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are clinical features of phagocyte deficiencies?

A

Recurrent infections:
May affect common or unusual sites
Organisms:
Common bacteria such as staphylococcus aureus
Unusual bacteria: Burkholderia cepacia
Myobacteria: TB and atypical myobacteria
Fungi: Candida, aspergillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the life cycle of a neutrophil?

A

Mobilisation of neutrophil and precursors in the bone marrow or within tissues
Upregulation of endothelial adhesion markers that allow neutrophil adhesion and migration into the tissues
Recognition of the organism
Phagocytosis and killing of organism
Activation of other components of the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can occur if there is a failure to produce neutrophils?

A

There is a failure of stem cells to differentiate along myeloid lineage. The primary defect results in reticular dysgensis and the decondary defect results after stem cell transplantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is reticular dysgenesis?

A

More severe form of inobrn SCID. Absence of neutrophils and other myeloid cells and almost complete deficiency of lymphocytes in peripheral blood and a lack of innate and adaptive immune responses leading to fatal septicemia within days after birth
The production of RBCs is not affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What can occur if there is specific neutrophil maturation?

A

Kostmann syndrome: severe congenital neutropaenia

Cyclic neutropaenia - episodic neutropaenia every 4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Kostmann syndrome?

A

A rare autosomal recessive disorder that causes severe chronic neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is severe chronic neutropenia?

A

The absolute neutrophil count is <200 microlitres whereas the normal is >3000 microlitres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Kostmann syndrome?

A
Infections usually within 2 weeks of birth - recurrent bacterial infections, systemic or localised infection 
Fever
Irritability 
Oral ulceration 
Failure to thrive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the management of Kostmann syndrome?

A

Supportive treatment: Prophylactic antibiotics
Prophylactic antifungals
Mortality 70% in the first year of life without definitive treatment
Definitive treatment: Stem cell transplantation - defect is in neutrohphil precursor to the strategy is to replace all precursors with allogenic stem cells and start again
Granulocyte colony stimulation factor (G-CSF) :
Give specific growth factor to assist maturation of neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is leukocye adhesion deficiceny?

A

A rare primary immunodeficiency that is caused by a genetic defect in leucocyte integrins (CD18)
This results in failure of neutrophil adhesion and transendothelial migration the clinical picture is characterized by marked leukocytosis and localized bacterial infections that are difficult to detect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is direct recognition?

A

There are many different types of pathogen recognition receptors:
Toll like receptors
Scavenger receptors
Lectin receptors
These recognise microbial-specific structures:
Bacterial sugars
Lipopoplysaccharides
They exhibit genetic polymorphism - some are associated with increased susceptibility to bacterial infection but most do not cause significant disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is indirect regonition?

A

Opsonins - molecules that act as binding enhancers for the process of phagocytosis, these include complement C3b, IgG antibody and C-reactive protein
Phagocytes express Fc receptors which allow the binding of antibodies that are also bound to an antigen.
Phagocytes also express complement receptor 1 (CRI) which binds to complement fragments which are also bound to antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can occur from defects in recognition?

A

Defect in opsonin receptors may cause defective phagocytosis however significant redundancy means that this generally does not cause significant disease
Any defect of complement or antibody will also result in decreased efficieny of opsonisation = functional defect of phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What can occur from failure of oxidative killing mechanisms?

A

Chronic granulomatous disease
Absent respiratory burst - deficiency of the intracellular killing mechanism of phagocytes. The commonest form is deficiency of p47phox component NADPH oxidase which is x-linked
An inibility to generate oxygen free radicals (ROS/RNS)
Impaired killing of intracellular micro-organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are some characteristic of failure of oxidative killing mechanisms
Inability to clear organisms Excessive inflammation - failure to degrade chemoattractants and antigens persisten accumulation of neutrophils, activated macrophages and lymphocytes Granuloma formation
26
What are features of chronic granulomatous disease?
``` Recurrent deep bacterial infections - especially staphylococcus, aspergillus, pseudomonascepacia Mycobacteria, atypical mycobacteria Recurrent fungal infections Failure to thrive Lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly Granuloma formation ```
27
What are laboratory investigations of granulomatous disease?
NBT test - feed patient neutrophils source of E coli Add dye that is sensitive to hydrogen peroxide If hydrogen peroxide is produced by neutrophils then the dye changes colour
28
What is the treatment for chronic granulomatous disease?
Supportive treatment - prophylactic antibiotics Prophylactic antifungals Definitive treatmen - stem cell transplantation, gene therapy
29
How do some intracellular organisms hide from the immune system?
By locating within cells - salmonella, chlamydia, rickettsia Some will even hide within the immune cells - mycobacteria species Therefore specific strategies are needed to clear infections
30
What happens when there is an infection with mycobacteria (TB)?
Activated IL-12: IFNgamma network Infected macrophages are stimulated to produce IL-12 IL-12 induces TH1 cells to secrete gamma interferon Then gamma interferon feeds back to macrophages and neutrophils to stimulate the production of tumour necrosis factor alpha This activates NADHP oxidase which stimulates the oxidative pathway
31
What happens if there is a defect in this pathway?
May cause increased susceptibility to mycobacterial infections
32
What infections occur if there is a gamma interferon receptor deficiency or IL-12 deficiency?
A mycobacterial infection such as TB or an atypical mycobacteria
33
What infection occurs if there is an IL-12 receptor deficiency?
Salmonella
34
How can you investigate phagocyte function?
FBC and differentiation from mobilisation from bone marrow Presence of pus and expression of neutrohpil adhesion molecules from migration to site of infection Find and catch the bug Chemotactic assays - chemotaxis Phagocytosis assays - formation of phagolysosome NBT test of oxidative killing
35
How can phagocyte deficiencies be treated?
Aggressive management of infection by prophylaxis - septrin, itraconazole - anti-fungal Oral/intravenous antibiotics Surgical draning of abscesses Definitive therapy - bone marrow transplantation, specific treatment for CGS - gamma interferon therapy, gene therapy
36
What is the function of the adaptive immune system?
Responds sepcifically to an antigen It is responsive to an unlimited number of molecules Specificity - able to discriminate between very small differences in molecular structure Memeory - able to recall previous encounters with an antigen and respond more effectively than on the first occasion
37
What is the primary lymphoid tissue?
Thymus and bone marrow
38
What is the secondary lymphoid tissue?
Lymph nodes and spleen
39
What is the life of a T lymphocyte?
Arise from a haematopoetic stem cell in bone marrow Exported as immature cells to the thymus, where they undergo selection (only 10% of cells survive) Mature T lymphocytes enter the circulation and reside in lymph nodes and secondary lymphoid follicles
40
What are CD8 T cells?
Cytotoxic cells that kill infected cells Virus cells DNA will be expressed on the surface of the cell and form a complex with an MHC class 1 receptor. Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes can recognise MHC complexes and kill the cell
41
What is TH1 cell's primary function?
To secrete interferon gamma, this links TH1 cells to macrophages. Once the macrophages receive interferon gamma signals, they will become super killer cells and produce NADHP oxidase to kill intracellullar pathogens and viruses
42
What do CD4+ lymphocytes produce?
Costimulatory signals which is necessary for the activation of CD8+ T lymphocytes and naive B cells Influences phagocyte function Prooduces cytokines Regulates lymphocytes and phagocytes Recognises peptides presented on MHC Class 2 molecules
43
Where are B lymphocytes produced?
Arise from haemopoetic stem cells in the bone marrow. Mature B lymphocytes are found mainly in bone marrow, lymphoid tissue or the spleen
44
What is the function of B lymphocytes?
Antibody production | Antigen presentation
45
What is immunoglobulin class switching?
IgM can switch to other types of antibodies. This is controlled and helped by CD4+ T cells. TH2 cells secrete cytokines that influence what antibody is made
46
How are B cells activated?
Encounters with antigens occurs at lymph nodes. If provided with appropriate co-stimulatory signals from T cells then the antigen-activated B cells will rapidly proliferate, this is helped by TH1 cells They will undergo highly complex genetic rearrangements to generate B cells that express antibodies with different Ig heavy chain constant regions They can then further differentiate into long-lived memory cells and plasma cells which produce antibodies
47
What are the functions of antibodies?
Identify pathogens Recruit other components of the immune response to remove pathogens such as the complement, phagocytes and NK cells Neutralisation of toxins Particularly important in the defence against bacteria of all kinds
48
What can happen if the haemopoetic stem cells are defective?
``` Failure to produce: Neutrophils Lymphocytes Monocytes/macrophages Platelets ```
49
What can happen as a results of failure to produce lymphocytes?
Severe combined immunodeficiency
50
What is the clinical phenotype of SCID?
``` Unwell by age 3 Persistent diarrhoea Failure to thrive Infections of all types Unusual skin disease: graft vs host disease: colonosiation of infants empty bone marrow by maternal lymphocytes Family history of early infant death ```
51
What are some known causes of SCID?
Deficiency of cytokine receptors Deficiency of signalling molceules Metabolic defects Defective receptor rearrangements Presence of different lymphocyte subsets (T, B, NK) depends on exact mutations If you cannot form a functional antigen binding site on the T cell because you cannot shuffle the alpha and beta chains to create a functional receptor then the T cell will not work properly
52
What is the commonest form of SCID?
X - linked SCID | 45% of all SCID
53
What is the problem in x-linked SCID?
A mutation of a component of the IL-2 receptor which is shared by many other cytokine receptors. This results in the inability to respond to cytokines, failure of T cell and NK development and production of immature B cells
54
What is the phenotype of X-linked SCID?
Very low or absent T cells as IL-2 is needed for T cell development Normal or increased B cells but they are abnormal Poorly developed lymphoid tissue and thymus - to maintain their size the secondary lymphoid tissues require T cells and therefore in X-linked SCID they will shirnk
55
What is the prophylactic treatment of SCID?
Avoid infections: Prophylactic antibiotics and antifungals No live attenuated vaccines Aggressive treatment of existing infections Antibody replacement - intreavenous immunoglobulin
56
What is the definitive treatment of SCID?
Stem cells transplant from HLA identical sibling if possible Stem cell transplant from other sibling or parent or from matched unrelated donor
57
What is DiGeorge syndrome?
A complex developmental disorder caused by a chrosomal deletion at 22q11 This results in: Failure of thymic develpoment Congenital heart defects Cleft palate Hypocalcaemia secondary to hypoparathyodism Developmental delay Psychiactric disorders: OCD, schizophrenia
58
How is DiGeorge syndrome diagnosed?
Absent of decreased numbers of T cells Normal or increased B cells but low IgG, IgA and IgE. Poor antibody response to specific pathogens Normal NK
59
How is DiGeorge syndrome managed?
Correct metabolic/cardiac abnormalities Prophylactic antibiotics Early and aggressive treatment of infection Immunoglobulin replacement
60
What can cause disorders of T cell effector function?
Cytokine production Ctyotoxicity T-B cell communication
61
What is the process when there is an infection with mycobacteria?
IL-12: IFNgamma network Infected macrophages stimulated to produce IL-12 IL-12 induces T cells to secrete IFNgamma IFNgamma then feeds back to macrophages and neutrophils to produce TNF which in turn activates NADHP oxidase
62
What can occur where there is deficiencies in IL-12, IL-12 receptors, IFNgamma and IFNgamma receptors?
TB Atypical mycobacteria BCG infection after vaccination Deep fungal infections e.g. aspergillus
63
What is bare lymphocyte syndrome?
Mutations that affects the MHC production or antigen processing and presentation by MHC molecules. Type of SCID but has normal T cells numbers
64
What is autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS)?
Rare genetic disorder of immune system that affects children and adults. High numbers of WBC accumulate in lymph nodes, liver and spleen causing enlargement. Can cause: anaemia, thrombocytopenia and neutrophenia
65
What are some clinical features of T cell deficiencies?
Recurrent infections: viral, fungal, bacterial, mycobacteria Opportunistic infections Malignancies at young age Autoimmune disease
66
How are T cell deficiencies investigated?
Total WBC count Quantilation of lymphocyte subpopulations Serum immunoglobulins Functional tests of T cell activation and proliferation HIV test
67
What is the presentation of antibody deficiencies?
Recurrent bacterial infections: recurrent upper and lower resp tract infections Recurrent GI infections Often common organisms Viral infections less common but may occur
68
What is Bruton's X-linked hypogammaglobulinaemia?
No circulating B cells No plasma cells No circulating antibodies after first 6 months
69
What is selective IgA deficiency?
2/3rd are asymtomatic | 1/3rd have recurrent resp tract infections
70
What is common variable immune deficiency?
Low IgG, IgA and IgE Recurrent bacterial infections Often associated with autoimmune disease
71
How are B cell deficiencies investigated?
Total WCC Serum/urine immunoglobulins Quantilation of B and T cell lymphocytes Measure IgG antibodies against tetanus, haemophilus influenzae B and S. pneumoniae
72
How are B cell deficiencies managed?
Aggressive treatment of infection Immunoglobulin replacement: derived from pooled plasma from thousands of donors Contains IgG antibodies to a wide variety of common organisms Stem cell transplant
73
What is type 1: immediate hypersensitivity?
An IgE-mediated antibody response to external antigens (allergens)
74
What type of conditions are characterized by type 1 immediate hypersensitivity?
``` Asthma Hayfever Urticaria Angioedema Atopic eczema Food allergy Drug allergy and anaphylaxis Allergic rhinitis ```
75
What are some types of allergens?
``` House dust mite Pollen and animal dander Food Drugs Latex Bee and wasp venom ```
76
What is the hygiene hypothesis?
Improved sanitation and decreased incidence of infectious disease has resulted in a world that is too clean Changes in microbial stimuli influences the maturation of the immune response resulting in increased predisposition to allergic conditions during childhood
77
What are some generic features of type 1 allergic disease?
Occurs quickly after exposure to antigen Responses are sterotyped May be associated with more than one organ system Presentation is influenced by site of contact Threshold for reactions may be influenced by cofactors such as exercise, alcohol and infection
78
What are some specific features of type 1 allergic disease?
``` Asthma Urticaria Angioedema Allergic rhinitis (hayfever) Allergic conjunctivitis Diarrhoea and vomiting Anaphylaxis ```
79
What occurs during sensitisation of Type 1 hypersensitivity
Allergen presented to naive T cells by dendrites or macrophages Naive T helper cell binds to antigen and costimulatory molecule and naive T cell turns into TH2. TH2 cells release IL-4 which induces B cells to undero class switching - changing from IgM to IgE that are specific to the allergen TH2 also release IL-5 which stimulates production and activation of eosinophils IgE will bind to Fc receptors on the mast cells
80
What interlukins (cytokines) help change the CD4+ into a TH2 cell?
IL-4 IL-5 IL-10
81
What occurs during secondary exposure in type 1 hypersensitivity?
The primed mast cells that have IgE bound to their Fc receptors will recognise that allergen and cross link to it, causing the mast cell to degranulate releasing pro-inflammatory molecules, this includes histamine
82
What chemicals do mast cells contain and what occurs when they degranulocyte?
``` Histamine, tryptase and heparin leukotrines and prostaglandins Proinflammatory cytokines including IL-4 and TNFalpha They increase blood flow Contract smooth muscle Increase vascular permeability Increase secretions at mucosal surfaces Important in defence against parasites and wound healing ```
83
What is extrinsic asthma?
A response to an external allergen IgE mediated Triggers: house dust, mite, grass pollen, animal dander Associated with other allergic disease
84
What haappens clinically when an allergic reaction ocurs in the lung?
There is a release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators
85
What does hisatmine and other inflammatory mediators in the lung cause?
Muscle spasm - bronchoconstriction and wheeze Mucosal inflammation - mucosal oedema and increases secretions - sputum production Inflammatory cell infiltrate - infiltration of lymphocytes and eosinophils into bronchioles - clinical manifestation - yellow sputum
86
What are other names for urticaria?
``` Hives Wheals Nettle rash Blisters Lesions appear within an hour ```
87
What is angioedema?
Self-limiting, localised swelling of subcutaneous tissues or membranes Non-pitting oedema Not itchy unless associated with urticaria
88
What are the clinical features of anaphylaxis?
Feeling of impending doom, loss of consciousness or death Conjunctival infection, rhinorrhea, angiodema Flushing urticaria Wheeze, bronchoconstriction Itch of palms Laryngeal obstruction Hypotension, cardiac arrythmias, myocardial infarct Oral itching, vomiting, diarrhoea, abdo pain
89
Why are allergies diagnosed?
To identify causitive agents - pinpoint specific allergens and target measures to reduce exposure and encourage lifestyle modification Determine risk of future severe reaction Determien appropriateness of therapy
90
How can allergies be diagnosed?
Skin prick tests Quantitate specific IgE to putative allergen Challenge test During an acute anaphylactic episode: serum mast cell tryptase levels
91
How are IgE mediated allergic disorders managed?
``` Block mast cell activation Prevent effects of mast cell activation Anti-inflammaotry agents Management of anaphylaxis Immunotherapy ```
92
How is mast cell activation blocked?
Mast cell stabilisers - sodium cromoglycate, stabilises the mast cell membranes and prevents the release of inflammatory mediators such as histamine from mast cells Topical spray for prophylaxis
93
How are the effects of mast cell activation prevented?
Anti-histamines - H1 receptor antagonists that blocks the biological effects of histamines Leukotrine receptor antagonists
94
What is type 2 hypersensitivity?
Direct cell killing thats main feature is antibody binding to cell surface antigens Antibody binding to cell-surface antigen results in activation of complement - cell lysis, opsonisation, anti-body mediated phagocytosis
95
What are the effects of complement activation?
Chemotaxis Solubilization of immune complexes Direct killing of bacteria Opsonisation which enhances phagoytosis by macrophage and neutrophils
96
What is the classical pathway of complement activation?
IgM and IgG trigger the classical pathway that leads to the cleavage of C3 into C3a and C3b, C3b can then move downstream into many different functions
97
What does the activation of complement result in/
The formation of membrane attack complexes that can punch holes in bacterial cell membranes and directly kill encapsulated bacteria
98
What complement proteins are important in chemotaxis?
C3a and C5a are very important in chemotaxis, they are released after activation and increase the permeability of blood vessels and increase traffic of cells to sites of infection
99
What is an immune complex?
Antigen + antibody complexes Fragments of complexes can disssolve the immune complexes that triggered them switching off the process of complement activation
100
What is central tolerance?
Developing immune cells that are self-reactive are destroyed whereas immune cells that aren't are allowed to survive Some self-reactive cells can escape causing an autoimmune disease
101
Where does central tolerance occur?
In the primary lymphoid organs | Thymus in T cells and bone marrow for B cells
102
What happens to self-reactive B cells in type 2 hypersensitivity?
The B cells start to produce IgM or with the help from CD4+ T cells produce IgG which will bind to antigens on self cells
103
What are the types of antigens present on cells in type 2 hypersensitivity?
Intrinsic - normally made by host | Extrinsic - antigen from an infection or drugs such as pencilin that gets attached to the host cell
104
What is an antigen-antibody complex?
When the antibody binds to the antigen | This usually happens in infection but it causes problems when it occurs on host tissues
105
What is the complement system?
A series of small proteins that work in an enzymatic cascade to fight infection
106
How is the complement system activated?
C1 will bind to the Fc portion of IgG or IgM and will iniate the complement cascade
107
What do C3a, C4a and C5a act as?
Chemotactic factors - attract neutrophils which will then degranulate releasing peroxidase, myeloperoxidase and proteinase 3 which are oxygen radicals that will cause tissue damage
108
What is good pastures syndrome?
Antibodies bind to intrinsic antigens on collagen of the basement membrane of the glomeruli in the kidneys or the alveoli in the lungs
109
What forms the membrane attack complex?
C5b + C6 + C7 + C8 + C9
110
How does the MAC attack the cell?
It inserts itself into the cell membrane punching a hole - creating a channel to allow fluids and molecules to flow into the cell causing cell lysis
111
What is a direct coomb's test?
The red cells are separated from the plasma and then reacted with coomb's reagent - an antibody against human antibodies If the cells agglutinate it suggests that there are antigens present on the cell
112
How can the complement system perform type 2 hypersensitivity?
IgG antibodies coat cells that are bound by C3b. They opsonise the cell - making it a target for phagocytosis The cell will then move to the spleen where it meets a macrophage. The macrophage will either bind to the Fc region of the IgG or the C3b complement fragment and will engulf it
113
What is antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity?
The bound antigen-antibody complex is recognised by NK cells which will bind to the Fc region of the antibody releasing its granules causing apoptosis of the cells
114
What is a non-cytotoxic type 2 hypersensitivity?
Antibody-mediated cellular dysfunction
115
What is antibody-mediated cellular dysfunction?
When an antibody binds to the antigen it can change the way the cell functions
116
What is a clinical presentation of type 2 hypersensitivity?
Immune haemolytic anaemia
117
How can type 2 hypersensitivity be managed?
Plasmapheresis - removal of pathogenic antibody | Immunosuppresion - rebound antibody production limits the efficacy of plasmapheresis
118
What is type 3 hypersensitivity?
Antigen-antibody complexes deposit in blood vessel walls causing inflammation and tissue damage
119
What are type 3 hypersensitivity reactions mediated by?
Immune complexes - antigen-antibody complexes
120
What happens when a B cell becomes cross linked?
2 IgM antibodies expressed on the surface of the B cell bind to an antigen where it will be taken into the cell. The B cell will then express a MHC 2 receptor which is presents to the T helper cells along will complementary molecules causing the T helper cell to release cytokines resulting in class switching
121
What is the class switching in type 3 hypersensitivity?
IgM to IgG
122
What is an example of a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction?
Systemic lupus erythematosus - DNA is released from a damaged cell and a dysfunctional B cell will recognize this self antigen and attack it
123
What are small immune complexes and what do they do?
They are less immunogenic - they are less attractive to macrophages and so won't be removed from the blood stream and will therefore make its way into the basement membrane of cells. Here they will activate the complement system
124
What is an anaphylatoxin?
Complement proteins (C3a + C4a + C5a) which increase vascular permeability allowing fluid to leak out causing odema. Neutrophils are then attracted to the site and will degranulate causing more tissue damage
125
Where does lupus cause problems?
Kidneys - glomerulonephritis | Joints - arthritis
126
What is a clinical type of local type 3 hypersensitivity?
Famers lung - inhaled fungal particles are deposited in the lungs and stimulate antibody formation. The antibodies form immune complexes with antigens resulting in complement activation, causing inflammation and the recruitment of other leukocytes
127
What is acute hypersensitivy pneumonitis?
Adaptive immune response generated creating IgG binding to bird antigens forming complexes that get deposited in the alveoli. This drives complement and neutrophil activation and inflammation. This creates chronic inflammation in the alveoli of the lungs
128
What are the clinical symptoms or acute hypersensitivity pneumonitis?
Wheeze - bronchoconstriction, inflammation of terminal bronchioles and alveoli Breathlessness - airways become swollen due to inflammation, decreased gas transfer Malaise, pyrexia - production of a particular cytokine that sends signals to the hypothalamus and drives fever
129
What is the management of type 3 hypersensitivity?
Avoidance Decrease inflammation - corticosteroids Decrease production of antibodies - immunosuppression
130
What are diseases associated with delayed type 4 hypersensitivity reactions?
Autoimmune - type 1 diabetes, psoriasis, rheumatoid arthritis Non-autoimmune - contact dermatitis, TB, leprosy, sarcoidosis, cellular rejections of solid organ transplant
131
What drives type 4 hypersensitivity?
CD4+ T cells | CD8+ cytotoxic T cells
132
Where are T cells produced?
The thymus
133
What do T cells start off as?
Naive cells because their T cell receptor hasn't yet bound to the antigen
134
Where do dentritic cells go with an antigen?
To the lymph node