Immunology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Second most common cause of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) and how does it cause the immunodeficiency?

A

Adenosine deaminase (ADA) [adenosine ⏩ inosine] deficiency ▶️ ⬆️ Adenosine ▶️ toxic to lymphocytes T and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which mechanism leads in a asplenic patient to have a severe bacterial infection? Immunologic functions of the spleen.

A
  • 🚫 Systemic bacterial clearance ▶️ ⬆️ risk infections by encapsulated organism (vaccinate against S. pneumoniae, Hib, N. meningitidis)
  • Blood filter ▶️ remove circulating pathogens; Major site of opsonizing antibody synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the different between western blot and ELISA? And the similitude?

A
  • Both identify proteins (Antibodies of the patient)
  • ELISA ▶️ patient’s serum is tested directly (Ex look for Ab against some HIV proteins, or Ag as HBsAg)
  • WB proteins are first separated by electrophoresis then the antibodies are added (in case to HIV test patient’s serum is added ▶️ Ex confirm that the Ab are specifically for the viral proteins directly extracted from the patient)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is activated the classical complement pathway through C1?

A

C1 bind at least 2 different molecules of IgM or IgG ▶️ Fc portion near hinge region ▶️ C1 release catalytic factors for rest of pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How can you avoid the activation of classical complement pathway if no antigen is present?

A

Ag bind to IgM ▶️ expose region to bind C1; unbounded IgM hide C1 site binding ▶️ avoid activation without antigen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which enzyme is initially involved in ubiquitine proteasome pathway for the presentation of antigens in MHC type I? Function.

A

Ubiquitine ligase ▶️ recognize specific protein substrates and catalyze ubiquitine attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do you identify a X-linked (Bruton) agammaglobulinemia and which is the gene mutated?

A
  • Recurrent bacterial and enteroviral infections after 6 mo (⬇️ maternal IgG)
  • Bruton tyrosine kinase gene (X-linked recessive) ▶️ maturation of B cells ▶️ stop until point to produce mu chain
  • ⬇️Ig of all classes, ⬇️ peripheral CD19 cells, BM Bx ▶️ ⬆️ cells with cytoplasmic mu chains
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the objective to administer anti-Rh(D) immunoglobulin to pregnant women? When is it applied?

A
  • Anti-Rh(D) immunoglobulin (IgG anti-D, polyclonal Ab) ▶️ opsonize fetal RBC Rh (+) that enter to the maternal circulation ▶️ induce clearance by maternal reticuloendothelial macrophages (spleen) ▶️ avoid alloimmunization
  • Give routinely all Rh (-) pregnancy at 28 weeks and immediately after birth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Recurrent skin and mucosal infections, without purulent secretion, absence of CD18 at leukocyte surface. Which other features do you find and what is the disease?

A
  • Leukocyte adhesion deficiency→absence of CD18→no formation of functional beta-2 integrins
  • Recurrent periodontal disease, persistent leukocytosis with neutrophilia, wound healing impaired and late separation of the umbilical cord (>21 days)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Classic triad of Reactive arthritis and with which genetic marker is associated?

A
  • Nongonococcal urethritis (or enteritis) [1-4 weeks previously to next symptoms], conjunctivitis, oligoarthritis. 20% present sacroiliitis
  • HLA-B27

*Seronegative spondyloarthropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Scenarios which graft vs host disease can develop. Background condition that allow the response and mechanism of disease.

A
  • Bone marrow transplantation, transfusion of non-irradiated blood, organs rich in lymphocytes (as liver)
  • Immunocompromised►primary disease or immunosuppressive medications→donor T cells from graft migrate into host tissues→recognize host MHC as foreigns→(+) CD4 and CD8 (no B cells)→host cell destruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most common organs affected by graft vs host disease.

A
  • Skin→diffuse maculopapular rash with predilection by palms and soles (may desquamate)
  • Liver→abnormal liver function tests (if transplant was liver, it could not be affected→recognized as self)
  • GI tract→diarrhea, intestinal bleeding, abdominal pain.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In which background condition is the hyperacute rejection of a transplant developed?

A

Tissue recipient has antibodies against donor ABO antigens

*Minutes of transplantation→ischemia and necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Substances resulting in degranulation of mast cells and basophils during anaphylaxis.

A
  • Histamine

- Tryptase►specific of mast cells, ↑serum levels→support Dx of anaphylaxis (marker of mast cell activation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you differentiate a cellular and humoral mediated acute transplant rejection reaction?

A
  • Humoral→necrotizing vasculitis with a neutrophilic infiltrate, C4d deposition [Host B lymphocyte sensitization]
  • Cellular→dense interstitial infiltrate of mononuclear cells (lymphocytes) and arterial intima (endothelitis) [Host T lymphocyte sensitization]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment and prevention of acute transplant rejection reaction

A
  • Prevent→calcineurin inhibitors (cyclosporine or tacrolimus)
  • Tx→corticosteroids + maintenance calcineurin inhibitors
17
Q

Surface marker for the monocyte-macrophage cell linage

A

CD14

18
Q

Difference of type of immunity gotten by inactivated and live-attenuated influenza vaccine?

A
  • Inactivated▶️inducing neutralizing antibodies againts hemagglutinin antigen▶️❌binding of hemagglutinin to sialylated receptors on the host cell membrane (humoral response)
  • Live-attenuated▶️MHC class I antigen-processing pathway▶️cytotoxic CD8+ T lymphocytes▶️kill infected cells (CMI and humoral response)
19
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is the acute hemolytic transfusion reaction? what is the mechanism?

A
  • Antibody-mediated (type II) hypersensitivity reaction - Minutes to hours.
  • Anti-ABO antibodies (mainly IgM)→bind Ag on donor RBC→complement activation►anaphylotoxins (C3a, C5a)→vasodilatation and shock; MAC formation (C5b-C9)→complement-mediated cell lysis
20
Q

Symptoms of acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.

A
  • Fever, chills, hypotension, shock, hemoglobinuria, dyspnea, chest and/or back pain
  • May develop DIC, renal failure
21
Q

What do you suspect in a patient with recurrent sinopulmonary or GI tract infections, autoimmune disease associated and anaphylactic reaction during blood products transfusion? Why do they have that anaphylactic reaction?

A
  • Selectively IgA deficiency▶️most common immunodeficiency
  • Failure of B cells to differentiate in IgA-secreting plasma cells▶️Severe IgA deficiency▶️forms IgE againts IgA▶️blood products have IgA
22
Q

Uses of Southwestern blotting. Examples.

A
  • Detection of DNA-binding proteins→transcription factors (c-Jun, c-Fos), nucleases, histones
23
Q

What is the difference between lung and intraabdominal solid organ (kidney) chronic rejection?

A

Chronic lung transplant rejection▶️inflammation of the small bronchioles⏩bronchiolitis obliterans

  • Chronic rejection in renal transplant▶️primarily vascular obliteration
  • Accelerated atherosclerosis (heart) ƒ
  • Chronic graft nephropathy (kidney) ƒ
  • Vanishing bile duct syndrome (liver)
24
Q

Where and by whom is made the positive and negative selection of T-lymphocyte? In which each process consists?

A
  • Positive selection (thymus-cortex)→thymic cortical epithelial cells►TCR bind self MHC survive. insufficient affinity→apoptosis
  • Negative selection (thymus-medulla)→thymic medullary epithelial cells and dendritic cells►TCR bind with high affinity self MHC→apoptosis [eliminate autoreactive T cells]
25
Q

How may you identify clinically chédiak-higashi syndrome?

A
  • Immunodeficiency→recurrent pyogenic infections by streptococci and staphylocci
  • Partial albinism
  • Neurologic dysfunction→nystagmus, peripheral and cranial neuropathies
  • Infiltrative lymphohystiocytosis

*Autosomal recessive

26
Q

Pathogenesis of chédiak-higashi syndrome.

A

Defect in lysosomal trafficking regulator gene (LYST)→microtubule dysfunction in phagosome-lysosome fusion in neutrophils

27
Q

Findings in peripheral blood smear of chédiak higashi syndrome.

A

Giant (lysosomal inclusions) cytoplasmic granules in neutrophils, monocytes and platelets

28
Q

Type of hypersensitivity reaction that is Goodpasture syndrome? Another examples.

A

Hypersensitivity type II

  • Goodpasture syndrome, rheumatic fever, hyperacute transplant rejection→Abs bind to cell surfaces►(+) complement, Fc receptor mediated inflammation
  • Myasthenia gravis, Graves disease→Abs bind to cell surface receptors►cellular dysfunction
29
Q

Pathogenesis of ataxia-telangiectasia. Clinical presentation associated.

A
  • Defect in ATM gene→fail to repair broken dsDNA►cell cycle arrest (hypersensitivity to ionizing radiation)
  • Triad: Ataxia, Angioma (telangiectasia), IgA deficiency (recurrent sinopulmonary infections)
  • ↑Risk of cancer (leukemia, lymphoma)
30
Q

Advantage of innactivated polio vaccine respect oral polio vaccine.

A
  • Oral polio vaccine (OPV)→can revert to a fully virulent form►vaccine-associated paralytic poliomielitis; ability to produce contact immunity by shedding vaccine virus on stool (IgA mucosa immunity); more durable CMI.
  • Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)→lower incidence of complications, cannot revert to a virulent form (killed virus - used in developed countries)