Immunology 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Two types of immunizaton

A

Active immunization

Passive immunization

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2
Q

Develop of own protective cells calledantibodies uponadministration of vaccines or toxoids

A

Active immunization

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3
Q

Synonymous with vaccination

A

Active immunization

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4
Q

Artificially acquired
Induce active immunity by administering vaccinesor toxoid
Lasts for weeks, months, years

A

Active immunization

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5
Q

Importance of immunization

A

Protect yourself
Protect the people around you
Vaccines promote healthby helping people stay healthy
Vaccine have expansive reach to protect individuals, communities & entirepopulation, especially those who are not allowed to be immunized
VACCINES SAVE LIVES & COSTS

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6
Q

Things to consider in immunization

A
Age
Medical History (seizures)
Immunization History
Type of vaccine given
Current medical conditions (Moderately or severely ill,fever, immunocompromised)
Allergic reactions
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7
Q

Contain attenuated microorganisms ortheir parts to which immune system responds

A

Vaccine

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8
Q

Inactivated toxins; not harmful but retainimmunologic activity

A

Toxoid

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9
Q

True or False.

Immune response is the same as an individual withdisease but disease doesn’t occur.

A

True

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10
Q

True or False.

In vaccines, epitopes are retained but lost ability to cause disease.

A

True

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11
Q

True or False.

Vaccines cannot be used to prevent disease after a person hasbeen exposed.

A

True

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12
Q

True or False.
In active immunization, the time required for immunity to develop may be greaterthan incubation period of disease except rabies vaccine (long incubation and active immunization can be used).

A

True

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13
Q

Characteristics of an effective vaccine

A
  1. Low levels of adverse effects or toxicity.
  2. Protect against exposure to natural wild forms ofpathogen.
  3. Stimulate both antibody (B-cell) response andcell-mediated (T-cell response)
  4. Should have long term lasting effects
  5. Should have not require numerous doses or boosters
  6. Should be inexpensive, with relatively long shelf lifeand easily administered
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14
Q

Preparation of vaccines

A
  1. Live Attenuated cells or viruses
  2. Killed whole cell or inactivated virus
  3. Subunit Recombinant, Polysaccharide and conjugatevaccines
  4. Toxoid
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15
Q

Examples of live attenuated cells or viruses

A

Virus: Sabin polio vaccine, MMR, small pox,yellow fever, chicken pox, oral polio vaccine,rotavirus, influenza (intranasal)
Bacteria: TB vaccines, Oral typhoidvaccine

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16
Q

Examples of killed whole cell or inactivated virus

A

Virus: Rabies Vaccine, Sulk polio vaccine, Hepa A, Influenza
Bacteria: Cholera, Pneumococcal pneumonia, Pertussis vaccine, Typhoid,Plague

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17
Q

Example of subunit recombinant, polysaccharid and conjugate vaccines

A

Capsule of meninggococcus &pneumococcus, surface protein of Hepa B virus

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18
Q

Examples of toxoid

A

Diptheria

Tetanus

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19
Q

Vaccine derived from disease causing viruses or bacteria, use living but weakened microbesand closely mimics an actual infection

A

Live attenuated cells or viruses

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20
Q

General rule of vaccination

A

The more similar a vaccine is to the disease causing form of an organism, the better the immune response to the vaccine.

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21
Q

True or False.
To produce immune response: live attenuatedvaccines must replicate/grow in the vaccinatedperson. Small dose of virus/bacteria is administered whichreplicates in the body enough to stimulate an immuneresponse but aims not to cause disease.

A

True

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22
Q

If a vaccine can cause the disease but in a milder form, it is called

A

Adverse reaction

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23
Q

Vaccine that use microbes that have been killed or inactivated with formulation of phenol, radiation, heat (doesn’t destroy antigenicity) and requires larger doses or more boosters

A

Inactivated vaccine

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24
Q

Vaccines that use antigenic molecules derived from bacterial cells or viruses, give very strong immune response and can be used by everyone.

A

Subunit, recombinant, polysaccharide and conjugate vaccines

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25
Q

Use only antigenic fragments (typically a surfaceprotein of microbes that best stimulate an immune response against the pathogen from which it is derived.

A

Subunit

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26
Q

Long chain of sugar molecules that make up the cell wall of the bacteriabut not consistently immunogenic to children <2y.o.

A

Capsular Polysaccharide Vaccines

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27
Q

Examples of capsular polysaccharide vaccines

A

Pneumococcal, Meningococcal, Salmonella typhi, Haemophilius type b (Hib)​, Pertussis (part of theDTaP combined vaccines)

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28
Q

Subunit vaccines produced by genetic engineeringtechniques

Microbes are programmed to produce the desired antigenic fraction

A

Recombinant vaccines

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29
Q

Examples of recombinant vaccines

A

Hepa B vaccine (Portion of protein viral coatproduced by genetically engineered yeast), HPV,Influenza

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30
Q

Combine a weak antigen with a strong antigen ascarrier so that the immune system has a stronger response to the weak antigen

A

Conjugate vaccine

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31
Q

Develop due to poor immune response of children to polysaccharides.
Given to children less than 2 years of age.

A

Conjugate vaccine

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32
Q

True or False.
In conjugate vaccines, the antigen of some pathogenic bacteria does not elicit a strong response from the immune system, so a vaccination against this weak antigen would not protect the person later in life.

A

True

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33
Q

Examples of conjugate vaccines

A

Hib conjugate vaccine (Haemophilus influenza)
Streptococcus pneumoniae vaccine
Neisseria meningitidis vaccine

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34
Q

Inactivated toxins
Directed at the toxins produced by a pathogen
Consist of a purified fragment of bacterial exotoxin that is most antigenic
Requires a series of injections of full immunity followed by boosters of 10 yrs

A

Toxoid

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35
Q

True or False.

Boosters are given for short lived immunity.

A

True

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36
Q

The first shot stimulates the

A

Primary immune response

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37
Q

The second shot stimulates the

A

Secondary immune response

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38
Q

True or False.

1st shot is not good for protection just stimulates the primary immune system but the 2nd and 3rd provides protection.

A

True

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39
Q

Functions of booster shots

A

Increase number of Ab

Expand memory cells population

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40
Q

Objective of different routes of administration

A

Deliver Ag stimulus to body site affected by the disease

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41
Q

Routes of administration

A

Injected (IM, subcutaneous, intradermal routes)
Oral (Rotavirus)
Intranasal (spray or drops; LAIV)

42
Q

Any compound that enhances immunogenicity and prolong antigen retention at the injection site

A

Adjuvant

43
Q

Examples of adjuvant

A

Aluminum hydroxide salts, Freud’s adjuvant (mineral oil, water, extracts of mycobacteria)

44
Q

It precipitates the antigen and holds it in the tissues so that it will be released gradually which gives more time for contact with macrophages and lymphocytes.

A

Adjuvant

45
Q

Storage of vaccines

A

Important to maintain effectiveness
Store in cold ares
Used in certain prescribed time

46
Q

Ready made Ab are introduced into an unprotected individual; given immunity to non-immune person exposed to the disease or at least lessen severity of disease

A

Passive immunity

47
Q

Also called antisera

A

Passive immunity

48
Q

Serum containing preformed antibodies collected from human blood plasma donors or from horses intentionally exposed to disease agent for temporary immunity

A

Antisera

49
Q

Administer preparations of antisera

A
  1. Immune Serum Globulins (ISG, Gamma Globulins)
  2. Hyperimmune serum
  3. Antitoxin
50
Q

Contains pooled gamma globulins (IgG antibody fraction from thousands of adult donors) which provide passive immunity to common disease

A

Homologous pooled human antibody (Immune serum globulins; gamma globulins)

51
Q

Uses of HPHA

A

Post exposure prophylaxis to measles, hepatitis A, mumps

Treatment of certain congenital immunoglobulin deficiencies

52
Q

From a more defined group of donors
Contains high titers of specific kind of Ab
Made from donated plasma of humans with high levels of Ab of interest
Contains other Ab in lesser quantities

A

Specific Immune Globulins (Hyperimmune Sera)

53
Q

Donors of SIG

A

Patients who are convalescing (getting better) in hyperimmune state

54
Q

Uses of SIG

A

Postexposure prophylaxis of Hep B, rabies, tetanus, and varicella

55
Q

Contain Ab against specific toxins

Produced in animals (horses) and contains antibodies against only one antigen

A

Heterologous Hyperimmune Serum (Antitoxin)

56
Q

Use of HHS

A

Botulism and Diphtheria

57
Q

Adverse effect of HHS

A

Patient may experience serum sickness (immune reaction to horse protein): fever, weakness, hives, itching, joint pain, rash, swollen lymph nodes

58
Q

Vaccines in progress

A

DNA vaccines

Recombinant vector vaccines (Platform-based vaccines)

59
Q

Involves the direct introduction of a plasmid containing the DNA sequence encoding the antigen(s) against which an immune response is sought into appropriate tissues
Relies on the in situ production of the target antigen

A

DNA vaccines

60
Q

Advantages of DNA vaccines

A
Easy and inexpensive to make
Produce strong, long-term immunity
Stimulation of both B- and T-cell responses
Improved vaccine stability
Absence of any infectious agent
Relative ease of large-scale manufacture
61
Q

These are live replicating viruses that are engineered to carry extra genes derived from a pathogen- and these extra genes produce proteins against which we want to generate immunity

A

Recombinant vector vaccines (Platform-based vaccines)

62
Q

Use a harmless virus or bacterium as a vector, or carrier, to introduce genetic material into cells

A

Recombinant vector vaccines

63
Q

Act like a natural infection, so they’re especially good at teaching the immune system how to fight germs and currently used in vaccines in animals

A

Recombinant Vector vaccine

64
Q

Objective of clinical immunology diagnostic testing

A

To provide laboratory testing to support the diagnosis and monitoring of patients with immune disorders

65
Q

Types of Antibody evaluation assays

A

ELISA
Immunofluoresence
Immunoblot

66
Q

AB evaluation assay widely used for biological products (antigen, antibody, hormones, peptides, antibody-antigen detection)

A

ELISA

67
Q

Uses of ELISA

A

Sensitive and specific in detecting antibodies to a number of diseases (HIV, Syphilis,)
Detect auto-antibodies present in patients with systemic and organ-specific auto-immune diseases (SLE, scleroderma, Sjogren syndrome)

68
Q

Principle of ELISA

A

Can also detect Antigens
Antigen attach to antibodies bonded to enzymes that may catalyze a reaction and result in a change in color that is measured colorimetrically and converted to numeric values

69
Q

Results of ELISA

A

Chance in color: positive result

Lack of color: antigen was not present

70
Q

True or False.
Depending on the antigen-antibody combination, the assay is called direct ELISA, indirect ELISA, sandwich ELISA, competitive ELISA, etc.

A

True

71
Q

A target protein is immobilized on the surface of microplate wells and incubated with an enzyme-labeled antibody to the target protein (or a specific antigen to the target antibody). After washing, the activity of the microplate well-bound enzyme is measured.

A

Direct method

72
Q

A target protein is immobilized on the surface of microplate wells and incubated with an antibody to the target protein (the primary antibody).
Followed by a secondary antibody against the primary antibody.
After washing, the activity of the microplate well-bound enzyme is measured.

A

Direct ELISA

73
Q

True or False.
Although indirect ELISA requires more steps than direct ELISA, labeled secondary antibodies are commercially available, eliminating the need to label the primary antibody.

A

True

74
Q

An antibody to a target protein is immobilized on the surface of microplate wells and incubated first with the target protein.
Then with another target protein-specific antibody, which is labeled with an enzyme .
After washing, the activity of the microplate well-bound enzyme is measured. The immobilized antibody (orange) and the enzyme-labeled antibody (green) must recognize different epitopes of the target protein.

A

Sandwish ELISA

75
Q

True or False.
Compared to direct ELISA, the sandwich ELISA (combining antibodies to two different epitopes on the target protein) has a higher specificity.

A

True

76
Q

True or False.

Sandwich ELISA is useful for applications that require a high accuracy.

A

True

77
Q

An antibody specific for a target protein is immobilized on the surface of microplate wells and incubated with samples containing the target protein and a known amount of enzyme-labeled target protein.
After the reaction, the activity of the microplate well-bound enzyme is measured.

A

Competitive ELISA

78
Q

True or False.
When the antigen level in the sample is high, the level of antibody-bound enzyme-labeled antigen is lower and the color is lighter.

A

True

79
Q

True or False.
When antigen level is low, the level of antibody-bound enzyme-labeled antigen is higher and the color, darker. The graph above and to the right illustrates the correlation between absorption and antigen levels in samples.

A

True

80
Q

True or False.
When a target antigen is a small molecule, such as histamine, pesticide, and dioxin, two antibodies cannot simultaneously bind to the antigen in sandwich ELISA.

A

True

81
Q

True or False.

A

Competitive ELISA is useful for the measurement of low molecular weight targets.

82
Q

The process in which antibodies are labeled with a fluorescent dye (fluorochromes) causing the presence of an antibody to observed using UV light in a fluorescence microscope.

A

Immunofluorescence

83
Q

Two types of immnofluourescence

A

Direct

Indirect

84
Q

Direct or Indirect IFS.

Detects antigens in tissues

A

Direct

85
Q

Direct or Indirect IFS.

Detects specific antibodies in individuals’s serum

A

Indirect

86
Q

Direct or Indirect IFS.
Diagnose enterohepatic E. coli, N. meningitidis, S. typhi, Shigella sonnei, Listeria monocytogenes, H. influenzae type b, and Rabies virus

A

Direct

87
Q

Direct or Indirect IFS.
Detect presence of Ab in serum following exposure to microorganisms like Treponema pallidum (Treponema antibody absorption, FTA-ABS)

A

Indirect

88
Q

Direct or Indirect IFS.
Primary (direct) immunofluorescence uses a single, primary antibody, chemically linked to a fluorophore which recognizes the target molecule (antigen) and binds to the epitope.

A

Direct

89
Q

Direct or Indirect IFS.
Secondary (indirect) immunofluorescence uses two antibodies:
1. The unlabeled first (primary) antibody specifically binds the target molecule
2. Secondary antibody, which carries the fluorophore, recognizes the primary antibody and binds to it

A

Indirect

90
Q

Direct or Indirect IFS.

Positive Result: Fluorescing cells/specks , which indicate Ab-Ag complex

A

Direct

91
Q

AKA Western blot
Used to identify an antigen in a complex mixture of proteins (Eg. microorganisms like HCV and Lyme disease)
Bands are compared to known positive and negative samples

A

Immunoblot

92
Q

Procedures of Immunoblot

A
  1. Protein molecules are separated according to their charges and molecular sizes using a method called gel electrophoresis
  2. Following separation, the proteins are transferred from the gel onto a blotting membrane
  3. Membrane is incubated with serum sample
  4. If serum contains specific Ab that reacts with the protein on membrane, Ab will remain on membrane
  5. Membrane is washed and incubated with substrate mixture
  6. Enzyme and enzyme substrate mixture allows for colorimetric detection
93
Q

Confirmatory test for HIV

A

Immmunoblot

94
Q

Tools used to evaluate cellular responses

A

Flow cytometry

Agglutination test

95
Q

Laser based method

Used for analysis of cells and cell components (Immunophenotyping of cell population)

A

Flow cytometry

96
Q

Procedure or flow cytometry

A
  1. Single cell suspensions are passed through a laser beam for sensing
  2. As cells pass through the laser they scatter light
  3. If cells contain fluorescent molecules this will be detected
  4. Scattered light and fluorescent light information are then analyzed
97
Q

Demonstrate the presence of the antigen
In addition to causing precipitation of soluble molecules and flocculation of molecules in suspension, antibodies can also clump together cells or particles (e.g., antigen-coated latex beads)

A

Agglutination

98
Q

Clinical method to detect certain antigens or antibodies in a variety of bodily fluids such as blood, saliva, urine, or cerebrospinal fluid.

A

Latex agglutination test

99
Q

Observed when a sample containing the specific antigen (or antibody) is mixed with an antibody (or antigen) which is coated on the surface of latex particles

A

Latex agglutination

100
Q

The reaction between a particulate antigen and an antibody results in visible clumping

A

Agglutination

101
Q

Detects microbial and viral infections, autoimmune diseases, hormones, drugs and serum proteins

A

Particle agglutination

102
Q

The sample to be tested is sent to the lab where it is mixed with latex beads coated with a specific antigen or antibody. The clumping of latex beads (agglutination) indicates the presence of suspected particles.

A

Particle agglutination