Bacteria Associated With Skin Infections 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Some bacteria associated with skin infections

A
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Erysipelothrix
Bacillus
Clostridium
Mycobacterium
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2
Q

Some general Characteristics of Staphylococcus

A
Gram positive cocci in grape-like cluster
Facultative anaerobe
Some are capsulated
Non-motile
Non-spore forming
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3
Q

Classification of Staphylococcus

A

S. aureus
S. epidermidis
S. saprophyticus

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4
Q

Biotypes of S. aureus

A

Biotypes A, B, C, D

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5
Q

Most commonly found biotype in humans

A

Biotype A

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6
Q

S. aureus is involved the pathogenesis of

A

Superficial (Localized) Infection
Deep (Systemic) Infection
`Toxigenic diseases

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7
Q

Nosocomial Staphylococcus bacteria found in medical instruments or devices (including catheters, CSF shunts, prosthetic heart valve implants)

A

S. epidermidis

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8
Q

S. epidermidis is involved the pathogenesis of

A

Endocarditis associated with valvular prosthesis
Intravenous catheter infection
Peritonitis in patients undergoing CAPD
Ventricular shunt infections

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9
Q

S. saprophyticus is involved the pathogenesis of

A

Urinary tract infection in young sexually active women

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10
Q

Antigenic structures of Staphylococcus

A

Capsule
Slime layer
Protein A
Peptidoglycan-teichoic acid complex

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11
Q

True or False.

Antigenic structures are not always associated with the virulence factors.

A

True

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12
Q

Virulence Factor of Staphylococcus

A
Capsule
Slime layer
Protein A
Polysaccharide A (Ribitol Teiochoic Acid)
Extracellular enzymes
Toxins
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13
Q

This is a virulence factor that is produced by some S. aureus strains (≥ 8 capsular types identified) and anti- phagocytic

A

Capsule

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14
Q

This is a virulence factor that is only produced by S. epidermidis

A

Slime layer

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15
Q

This is a virulence factor that is involved in adherence and persistence on foreign body; main factor contributing to biofilm formation

A

Slime layer

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16
Q

This is a virulence factor that is a surface protein convalently bound to peptidoglycan

A

Protein A

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17
Q

This is a virulence factor that is regularly present in human strains of S. aureus but not found in (coagulase-negative Staphylocccus or CONS)

A

Protein A

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18
Q

This is a virulence factor that is binds non-specifically with Fc portion of IgG

A

Protein A

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19
Q

When protein A binds to the Fc portion of IgG, it

A

Prevents Fc-mediated opsonization
Induces complement activation by generating chemotactic factors
Used in antigen detection (co-agglutination test)

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20
Q

This is the part of Polysaccharide A that provides rigid exoskeleton and has interpeptide bridge connecting oligoglycine peptides

A

Peptidoglycan

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21
Q

This is the part of Polysaccharide A that is composed of water soluble polymers of ribitol or glycerol phosphate

A

Teichoic acid

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22
Q

An extracellular enzyme that hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid in connective tissues

A

Hyaluronidase

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23
Q

Also known as spreading factor

A

Hyaluronidase

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24
Q

An extracellular enzyme that enhances invasion and survival in tissues by binding cells together and rendering the intercellular spaces passable to pathogen

A

Hyaluronidase

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25
Also known as fat-splitting enzyme
Lipase
26
An extracellular enzyme that splits fats and oils
Lipase
27
An extracellular enzyme that is essential for survival of Staphyloccoccus in sebaceous areas of the body and in the formation of furuncles and carbuncles
Lipase
28
Also known as fibrinolysin
Staphylokinase
29
An extracellular enzyme that dissolves fibrin clots
Staphylokinase
30
An extracellular enzyme that lays down fibrin barrier during abscess formation to prevent the spread of organism that is bound in the center of the abscess
Free coagulase
31
True or False. Hyaluronidase, lipase and staphylokinase are used for the spreas of the organism in the body while coagulase is for the localization of the organism.
True
32
Type of toxin that is expressed by about 2-4% of S. aureus and is a pore-forming cytotoxin causing leukocyte destruction and tissue necrosis
Leukocidin (e.g. Panton Valentine)
33
Type of toxin that is phage-encoded
Leukocidin
34
Two protein components of Leukocidin
LukS-PV (Slow) | LukF-PV (Fast)
35
Difference of LukS-PV from LukF-PV
Electrophoretic mobility
36
Type of toxin associated with recurrent skin and soft tissue infections and necrotizing pneumonia
Leukocidin
37
Four major types of hemolytic toxins
Alpha Beta Gamma Delta
38
Toxin responsible for causing damage to red cell membrane and produce hemolytic zones on BAP
Hemolytic toxins
39
Major hemolytic toxin
Alpha
40
Hemolytic toxin that forms transmembrane pores and has lethal, dermonecrotic, and leucocidal activities
Alpha
41
Hemolytic toxin formed by majority of human strains of S. aureus but not CONS
Alpha
42
Hemolytic toxin that lipid binding domain that inserts directly into the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane → pores → cell death
Alpha
43
Toxin that produces intraepidermal splitting of tissues, blister formation and sssociated with S. aureus phage group II
Exfoliative (epidermolytic) toxins
44
Exfoliative toxin that recognize, hydrolyze desmosomes in the skin and cleave Desmoglein 1
Serine proteases
45
Four types of exfoliative toxins
Type A, B C, D
46
Major types of exfoliative toxins
ETA and ETB
47
Toxin that is a family of secreted proteins acting as superantigens which stimulate and enhance the lymphocyte response
Pyrogenic exotoxins
48
Two major types of pyrogenic toxins
Enterotoxins | Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1
49
Seven antigen types of enterotoxins
A, B, C1, C2, D, E, F
50
Antigenic types of enterotoxins that cause food poisoning
A and D
51
Antigenic type of enterotoxins that cause necrotizing enterocolitis
B
52
Pyrogenic exotoxin that is synonymous with Enterotoxin F and associated with menstrual infections in women
Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1 (TSST-1)
53
Superficial (localized) infections caused by S. aureus
Impetigo Folliculitis Furuncles Carbuncles
54
Deep (systemic) diseases caused by S. aureus
Acute osteomyelitis Acute endocarditis Pneumonia
55
Toxigenic diseases caused by S. aureus
Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS/ Ritter’s Disease) Staphylococcal food poisoning Toxic Shock Syndrome
56
True or False. | 90% of impetigo cases are caused by S. aureus while the remaining 10% are caused by Group A Streptococci (GAS).
True
57
Type types of impetigo
``` Bullous impetigo (exclusively by S. aureus) Non-bullous impetigo (by Staph, Strep or both) ```
58
More common in children Occur in warm, humid environments Highly contagious Spread by direct contact with lesions or with nasal carriers
Impetigo
59
Toxin mediated (exfoliative toxin) and accounts for 30% of impetigo cases
Bullous impetigo
60
Type of impetigo that is characterized by vesicles and bullae, when ruptured leaves ligth brown/yellow crusts with oozingn exudates
Bullous impetigo
61
True or False. | Bullous impetigo has fewer lesions than non-bullous impetigo.
True
62
Type of impetigo that represents host response to infection, no toxin is needed to produce clinical manifestations
Non-bullous impetigo
63
True or False. | Non-bullous impetigo is more contagious than the bullous impetigo.
True
64
Type of impetigo that accounts for >70% of impetigo cases
Non-bullous impetigo
65
Formation of the stiking characteristic of non-bullous impetigo
Macule/ papule → vesicles/ pustules → rupture leaving honey- colored crusts which discharge pus when pressured
66
Superficial infection that can occur through shaving, scratching or with any injury to the skin
Folliculitis
67
Follicular-based pustule, most commonly superficial or deep
Folliculitis
68
Most characteristic pustular lesion produced by Staph
Furuncles (boils)
69
Development of furuncles
Start as hard, tender, red nodule surrounding a hair follicle → abscess → pus discharged from center → resolve
70
True or False. | Furuncles does not need surgery and no antibiotic treatment.
True
71
True or False. | No manipulations should be done because it will disrupt the fibrin barrier that will be the start of dissemination.
True
72
Superficial inflammation that arise in hair-bearing areas where there is friction, occlusion, perspiration and may be isolated or multiple
Furuncles
73
Development of carbuncles
Start as smooth, dome-shaped, acutely tender, painful lesion → develop into swollen, painful area discharging pus from several sites
74
Clustered boils but is deeper, more sever, develop and heal more slowly
Carbuncles
75
Frequent areas where carbuncles are found
Nape of the neck, back or thighs
76
Reason why carbuncles are more severe than furuncles
It can be disseminated to vital organs like cavernous sinus or the subarachnoid space
77
Toxigenic disease that is characterized by stripping of superficial layers of the skin from the underlying tissue (involves exfoliative toxin)
SSSS/Ritter’s Disease
78
Most frequently involved age group
Infants and children <5 yrs
79
Major cause
S. aureus phage group II (most commonly, type 71)
80
Laboratory diagnosis of Staphylococcus
``` Gram stain Culture Differential test Susceptibility test Serology Serotyping Phage typing ```
81
Gram stain findings of Staphylococcus
Gram positive cocci in clusters 0.5 – 1.5 micrometer in diameter Gram variable within neutrophils, in resolving lesions, in the presence of antibiotics, and in old cultures
82
Type of culture needed by Staphylococcus
Unenriched media | 7.5%-10% NaCl and in 40% bile
83
True or False. High concentration of NaCl is a selective medium for Staphylococcus allow growth of S. aureus but inhibit growth for other species.
True
84
Media used for diagnosing Staphylococcus
Blood Agar Plate Mannitol Salt Agar Phenyl Ethyl Alcohol Agar
85
Type of media that form smooth, raised colonies and mucoid, if encapsulated
BAP
86
Selective and differential media for S. aureus
MSA
87
True or False. | S. aureus is mannitol fermenting.
True
88
True or False. | Pathogenic staphylococci ferment mannitol and produce acid.
True
89
MSA contains
1% mannitol 7.5% NaCl Phenol Red as pH as indicator
90
Results of MSA
Yellow: (+) acid producing mannitol fermenter | Pink or red: (-) non-mannitol fermenters
91
Staphylococcus species that are mannitol fermenters
S. aureus | S. saprophyticus
92
Two types of differential test used for Staphulococcus
Catalase test | Coagulase test
93
Test that differentiates staphylococci from streptococci
Catalase test
94
Reagent used in Catalase test
3% H2O2
95
Positive catalase test is seen as
Bubble formation/effervescence of gas (Immediate)
96
Results of catalase test
Streptococcus (-) | Staphylococcus (+)
97
Test that distinguishes the different species of Staphylococcus
Coagulase
98
Two types of coagulases secreted by S. aureus
Staphylocoagulase | von Willebrand factor binding protein
99
Coagulase that activates human prothrombin
Staphylocoagulase
100
Coagulase that activates human, rabbit, mouse prothrombin
von Willebrand factor binding protein
101
Coagulase test that detects bound coagulase/clumping factor produced exclusively by S. aureus
Slide test
102
Results of slide coagulase test
If the Slide test is positive no need to do the tube test; confirmed S. aureus If negative proceed to tube test
103
Coagulase test that detects free coagulase and causes clotting of citrated plasma in the presence of coagulase reacting factor (CRF)
Tube test
104
Coagulase test that is for suspected S. aureus that fail to produce bound coagulase
Tube test
105
True or False. | Coagulase test is specific in detecting Staphylococcus aureus.
True
106
Test that is used for complete workup culture and sensitivity test after identification
Susceptibility test
107
Test that aids in choice of systemic drugs and an epidemiologic tool
Susceptibility test
108
Type of test that shows that antibody detection has no value
Serology
109
Test that is adjunct or supplementary to phage typing
Serotyping
110
Test for epidemiologic tracing of infection and depends on differing susceptibilities to lysis by phages, particularly Phage II
Phage typing
111
Suppurative infections are prevented and controlled by
Cleanliness, hygiene, and meticulous hand washing Aseptic management of lesions Isolation of persons with open lesions Suppression/cure of nasal carriage
112
General chracteristics of streptococcus
``` Gram positive cocci in chains Evident in broth medium Facultative anaerobe Some are encapsulated Some are flagellated Non- spore forming Capsuled ```
113
Characterized by a small zone of beta surrounded by alpha hemolysis
Alpha prime hemolysis
114
This is based on group specific carbohydrate antigen (C-CHO) because amino sugar determines serologic specificity
Lancefield pattern
115
Components GAS: _____________ GBS: _____________ GDS: _____________
GAS: rhamnose-N-acetylglucosamine GBS: rhamnose-glucosamine GDS: glycerol teichoic acid
116
Streptococcus groups
A-H, K-V (20 groups)
117
Groups of Human Streptococcus pathogen
A-G
118
Human Streptococcus pathogen that is of greater significance
A and B
119
Nucleotide-based typing scheme
emm classification system
120
Molecular gold standard for GAS typing for M protein- producing strains
emm classification system
121
Sequencing of the emm gene that encodes the M protein based on its amino acid sequence variability of the N terminus (5’ end) such as Streptococcus pyogenes
emm classification system
122
These are used for species which cannot be grouped under the existing ones and to speciate Viridans Streptococci
Biochemical reactions
123
Antigenic structures of GAS
``` Capsule Pili Protein antigens (M, F, G,T proteins) C5a peptidase Group-specific polysaccharide (C-CHO) ```
124
Virulence factors for GAS
``` Capsule Lipoteichoic acid M protein F protein G protein C5a peptidase Serum Opacity Factor Pyrogenic (Erythogenic) Exotoxins Hemolysins Spreading Factors ```
125
Virulence factor composed of hyaluronic acid
Capsule
126
Virulence factor that is not immunogenic because of its antigenic disguise, and anti-phagocytic
Capsule
127
Major virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae
Capsule
128
Virulence factor that is a component of pili and binds with M protein, mediating oral/ pharyngeal and epithelial attachment and subsequent colonization
Lipoteichoic acid
129
Major virulence factor for GAS
M protein
130
Virulence factor that is a component of a pili anti- phagocytic and dominantly binds to epidermis
M protein
131
M protein is anti-phagocytic because
It prevents alternative complement pathway opsonization
132
True or False. M proteins are strongly immunogenic because specific antibodies are produced against it. Hence, it is difficult to come up with vaccines for M-protein.
True
133
Virulence factor that is a fibronectin-binding protein
F protein
134
F protein + M protein
Mediates nasopharyngeal adherence
135
Surface-bound endopeptidase and cleaves C5a
C5a peptidase
136
Anti-polymorphonuclear leukocyte chemo-attractant
C5a peptidase
137
Virulence factor that is an alpha-lipoproteinase and produces opalescence in horse serum broth
Serum Opacity Factor
138
Adjunct to M typing
Serum Opacity Factor
139
True or False. | Pyrogenic or Erythrogenic Exotoxins are protein in nature.
True
140
Four antigenic types of pyrogenic exotoxins
A, B, C, D
141
Most significant antigenic type of pyrogenic exotoxins
Exotoxin A | Exotoxin B
142
ETA or ETB. | Associated with rash in scarlet fever and TSSL
ETA
143
ETA or ETB. | Responsible for tissue destruction in necrotizing fasciitis
ETB
144
ETA or ETB. | Superantigen - stimulates and enhances a response
ETA
145
Streptococcal gangrene
ETB
146
ETA or ETB. | Produced only by lysogenized strains (including bacteriophage)
ETA
147
Basis of Dick’s tests
Erythrogenic toxin | Presence of erythema or redness of the test site
148
Basis of Schultz-Charlton test
Anti-erythrogenic toxin Presence of anti-blanching phenomenon Rash fade
149
Virulence factor responsible for beta-hemolysis on BAP of Streptococcus pyogenes
Hemolysins (Cytotoxic)
150
2 distinct types of Streptolysin
Streptolysin O | Streptolysin S
151
``` SO or SS. Oxygen labile (will not produce if not on surface) ```
SO
152
SO or SS. | Hemolytic in reduced form (to see if there is hemolysis, stab should be performed)
SO
153
SO or SS. | Oxygen stable
SS
154
SO or SS. | Responsible for subsurface hemolysis
SO
155
SO or SS. | Serum soluble
SS
156
SO or SS. | Forms transmembrane pores
SO
157
SO or SS. | Strongly immunogenic
SO
158
SO or SS. | Responsible for surface hemolysis
SS
159
SO or SS. | Non-immunogenic
SS
160
SO or SS. | Can be used serologically to titrate
SS
161
Its titers are determined for the detection of previous or recent streptococcal pharyngeal infection
Anti-streptolysin O (ASO)
162
Enzymes that act as spreading factors in Streptococcus spp
Hyaluronidase Streptokinase (Fibrinolysin) DNAse (Streptodornase)
163
Spreading factor that splits hyaluronic acids in connective tissue
Hyaluronidase
164
Spreading factor that dissolves fibrin clot
Streptokinase (Fibrinolysin)
165
Spreading factor that depolymerizes viscous DNA in pus and is strongly immunogenic
DNAse (Streptodornase)
166
True or False. | Streptolysin O is higher following pharyngeal infection while DNAse is higher following skin infection.
True
167
Most dominant DNAse produced following skin infections
Anti-DNAse B
168
True or False. | Titers of Anti- DNAse B are determined for the detection of previous or recent streptococcal skin infection
True
169
True or False. | Anti-streptolysin O should be detected in pharyngeal infection.
True
170
Habitat of GAS
Inhabits URT and skin of humans
171
Transmission of GAS
Person to person by direct contact with mucosa or secretions (coughing, sneezing) Fomites
172
Clinical Disease of S. pyogenes
``` Pharyngitis Impetigo (pyoderma) Erysipelas (St. Anthony’s Fire) Cellulitis Acute Bacterial Endocarditis Puerperal Fever Toxic Shock Syndrome-like Necrotizing fascitis Scarlet fever ```
173
Most important clinical disease cause by S. pyogenes
Pharyngitis
174
Associated with type A; non-bullous | Most cases begin with strep infection but staph replaces strep over time
Impetigo (pyoderma)
175
Associated M types are frequently nephritogenic (may cause acute glomerulonephritis) In pharyngeal infection – rheumatogenic
Impetigo (pyoderma)
176
Peripherally spreading; hot, bright red, edematous, well circumscribed, sharply marginated lesions
Erysipelas
177
Erysipelas most commonly affects
Face and legs
178
Pattern of spread of Erysipelas
Spreads thru the lymphatic vessels
179
Age group most commonly affected by Erysipelas
Common in infants, children and the elderly; accompanied by severe constitutional symptoms
180
“flesh-eating bacteria”, “streptococcal gangrene” (requirement for aerobic conditions)
Necrotizing fascitis
181
Highly destructive and potentially lethal infection of soft tissue (fatty tissues, fascia, muscles) and always follows trauma
Necrotizing fascitis
182
Toxin the mediates necrotizing fascitis
ETB
183
Toxin that mediates Scarlet Fever
ETA
184
Scarlet colored (boiled lobster), body rashes (sandpaper-like), strawberry like tongue which evolves from tonsillar/pharyngeal focus
Scarlet Fever
185
Laboratory diagnosis used for GAS
``` Gram stain Culture Identification tests Antigenic detection Serology ```
186
General characteristics of GAS in culture
Greyish white, transparent to translucent matte or glossy
187
Glossy: ____________ Matte: ____________
Glossy: less M protein produced Matte: more M protein produced
188
Media used to culture GAS
BAP Chocolate Agar Selective media: CNA, PEA
189
Tests used to identify GAS
Bacitracin disc test (TAXO A) | Pyroglutamic acid arylamidase test (PYR)
190
Test used to differentiate S. pyogenes from other beta-hemolytic streptococci
Bacitracin Disc Test
191
Test that is helpful in screening for group A strep in throat swab
Bacitracin disc test
192
Results of bacitracin disc test
(+) any zone of inhibition (susceptible): Group A
193
Diameter of zone of inhibition to be classifies as susceptible
10mm
194
True or False. | S. pyogenes is the only beta-hemolytic streptococcus that is PYR (+)
True
195
True or False. | Majority of Group A are PYR (+)
True
196
Result of PYR test
(+): Bright pink/cherry red color in 1 minute
197
Laboratory diagnostic that is based on reaction with monoclonal antibodies which reacts with group-specific carbohydrate antigen
Antigenic detection
198
Laboratory diagnostic test that can be used in typing or detection of the organism in clinical specimens or in cultures (Group A-agglutination if it is Group A)
Antigenic detection
199
Two types of serology testing for GAS
Anti-streptolysin O | Anti-DNAse B
200
Serology test that is used to demonstrate previous or recent streptococcal infection, significantly following skin infections
Anti-DNAse B serology
201
Prevention and control of GAS
Early detection and antimicrobial therapy | Treating carriers
202
Replacing penicillin with other antibiotics is a risk factor for antibiotic resistance
Selection pressure
203
Drug of choice for GAS
Penicillin