Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NPLEX 1 > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Primary lymphoid organs

A

Where lymphocytes are generated

Includes bone marrow and thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which lymphocyte matures in the bone marrow?

A

B lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Secondary lymphoid organs

A

Where adaptive immune responses are initiated & Ag/Ab encounter each other
Exist to bring Ag and lymphocytes together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lymph node

A

a secondary lymphoid organ that has many afferents and 1 or more efferents (medulla)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do naive lymphocytes exit the blood?

A

Via high endothelial venules (HEV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Follicle of a LN

A

Site of B-cell localization and proliferation

In the outer cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Parts of a LN

A

Follicle, cortex (outer and paracortex), and medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Primary follicles vs. secondary follicles in LNs

A

Primary - dense and dormant

Secondary - pale central germinal centres and are active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are high endothelial venules?

A
  • Specialized section of post-capillary venules
  • plump endothelial cells protrude into vessel
  • In LNs found in paracortex and some areas of cortex
  • Lymphocytes display increased adhesiveness to HEV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Medulla of a LN

A

Consists of medullary cords and medullary sinuses

Houses macrophages and plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Medullary sinuses

A

communicate with efferent lymphatics and contain reticular cells and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Paracortex in LNs

A

Houses T cells
Region of cortex between follicles and medulla
Contains high endothelial venules through which T and B cells enter from blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What part of the LN enlarges in an extreme cellular immune response (e.g., viral infection)?

A

Paracortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What art of the LN is not well developed in patients with DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Paracortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What area of the body do cervical LN’s drain?

A

Head and neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What area of the body do hilar LNs drain?

A

Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What area of the body do Mediastinal LNs drain?

A

trachea and esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What area of the body do axillary LNs drain?

A

upper limb, breast, skin above umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What area of the body do celiac LNs drain?

A

liver, stomach, spleen, pancreas, upper duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What area of the body do superior mesenteric LNs drain?

A

lower duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon to splenic flexure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What area of the body do inferior mesenteric LNs drain?

A

colon from splenic flexure to upper rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What area of the body do internal iliac LNs drain?

A

lower rectum to anal canal (above pectinate line), bladder, vagina (middle third), prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What area of the body do para-aortic LNs drain?

A

testes, ovaries, kidneys, uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What area of the body do superficial inguinal LNs drain?

A

ana canal (below pectinate line), skin below umbilicus (except popliteal territory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What area of the body do popliteal LNs drain?

A

dorsolateral foot, posterior calf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Spleen

A

collects blood born antigens and also destroys aged RBCs

divided into red pulp and white pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

White pulp of the spleen

A

T cells are found in the periarterial lymphatic sheath within the white pulp
B cells are found in follicles within the white pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Red pulp of the spleen

A

where old RBCs are destroyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The marginal zone btwn the red and white pulp contains what?

A

APCs and specialized B cells , and is where APCs present blood-borne antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do macrophages in the spleen remove?

A

encapsulated bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What occurs in the immune system when there is a splenic dysfunction (e.g., postspenectomy, sickle cell dz)?

A

decreased IgM -> decreased complement activation -> decreased C3b opsonization -> increased susceptibility to encapsulated organisms

Susceptibility to bacteria caused by encapsulated bacteria caused by failure of the immune response to these common extracellular bacteria when the enter the blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

List the pathogens that can cause splenic dysfunction

A

(SHiNE SKS)

Streptococcus pneumoniae
HiB
Neisseria meningitidis
E coli
Salmonella spp.
Klebsiella pneumoniae
group B Streptococci
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Thymus

A

Site of T cell differentiation and maturation

Cortex is dense with immature T cells
Medulla is pale with mature T cells and Hassall corpuscles containing reticular cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The thymus comes from the epithelium of….

A

3rd pharyngeal pouches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Components of the innate immune system

A

neutrophils, macrophages, monocytes, dendritic cells, NK cells (lymphoid origin), complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Components of the adaptive immune system

A

T cells, B cells, circulating antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Innate immune systems response to pathogens

A 
Nonspecific
Occurs rapidly (minutes to hours)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Adaptive immune system response to pathogens

A

Highly specific, refined over time

Develops over long periods; memory response is faster and more robust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Innate immunity physical barriers

A

Epithelial tight junctions, mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Adaptive immunity physical barriers

A

none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Proteins secreted by Innate immunity

A

lysozyme, complement, CRP, defensins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Proteins secreted by adaptive immunity

A

immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Key features in pathogen recognition by innate immunity

A

TLRs: pattern recognition receptors that recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
- signalling induces innate immune responses and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Examples of PAMPs

A

LPS (gram negative bacteria), flagellin (bacteria), ssRNA (viruses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Key features in pathogen recognition by adaptive immunity

A

Memory cells: activated B and T cells; subsequent exposure to previously encountered antigen -> stronger, quicker immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Types of adaptive immune responses

A

Humoral and cell mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Humoral responses

A

Adaptive immunity
mediated by Abs
Produced by bone marrow derived B lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Cell-mediated responses

A

Adaptive immunity

mediated by thymus derived T lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Genes responsible for recognizing a graft as being foreign are termed …?

A

Histocompatibility genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

MHC are encoded by…

A

HLA genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

MHC present antigen fragments to…

A

T cells and bind TLRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

MHC I loci

A

HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

MHC II loci

A

HLA-DR, HLA-DP, HLA-DQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

MHC I molecules present Ags derived from the ______ to _______ cells

A

cytosol; CD8+ T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

MHC II molecules present Ags derived from ______ to _______ cells

A

outside the cell; CD4+ T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

MHC I function

A

present ENDOGENOUSLY synthesized ANTIGENS (e.g., viral) to CD8+ T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

MHC II function

A

present EXOGENOUSLY synthesized PROTEINS (e.g., bacteria) to CD4+ T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

MHC I Ag loading

A

Ag peptides loaded onto MHC I in RER after delivery via TAP peptide transporter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

MHC II Ag loading

A

Ag loaded following release of invariant chain in an acidified endosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

MHC I mode of transport to cell surface

A

beta 2-microglobulin

61
Q

HLA- A3 subtype associated dzs

A

Hemochromatosis

62
Q

HLA- B27 subtype associated dzs

A

Psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, arthritis of inflammatory bowel dz, reactive arthritis

63
Q

HLA- DQ2/DQ8 subtype associated dzs

A

Celiac dz

64
Q

HLA- DR2 subtype associated dzs

A

MS, hay fever, SLE, Goodpasture syndrome

65
Q

HLA- DR3 subtype associated dzs

A

DM type 1, SLE, Grave’s dz

66
Q

HLA- DR4 subtype associated dzs

A

Rheumatoid arthritis, DM type 1

67
Q

HLA- DR5 subtype associated dzs

A

Pernicious anemia -> vit B12 deficiency, Hashimoto thyroiditis

68
Q

NK cells

A 
Use perforin and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected cells and tumour cells 
Induced to kill when exposed to a nonspecific activation signal on target cell and/or to an absence of class I MHC on target cell surface
69
Q

Which cells are the only lymphocyte member of the innate immune system?

A

NK cells

70
Q

NK cells activity are enhanced by which cytokines?

A

IL-2, IL-12, IFN-b, and IFN-a

71
Q

B cell functions (3 main ones)

A

Recognize Ag - undergo somatic hypermutation to optimize Ag specificity
Produce Ab - differentiate into plasma cells to secrete specific immunoglobins
Maintain immunologic memory - memory B cells persist and accelerate future response to Ag

72
Q

T cell functions

A

CD4+ T cells help B cells make Ab and produce cytokines to activate other cells of immune system
CD8+ T cells kill virus infected cells directly
Delayed cell-mediated hypersensitivity (TypeIV)
Acute and chronic cellular organ rejection

73
Q

Describe the process of T cell differentiation

A

T cell precursor starts in the bone marrow
T cell precursor travels to the cortex in the thymus where it becomes a CD4+ and CD8+ T cell
T cell divides in the medulla of the thymus into a CD4+ T cell and a CD8+ T cell
In the LN the cytotoxic CD8+ T cell kills virus infected, neoplastic, and donor graft cells
In the LN the Helper CD4+ T cell differentiates further from cytokines (Th1 cell, Th2 cell, Th17 cell, Threg cell)

74
Q

How many signals are required for T cell activation, B cell activation, and class switching?

A

2

75
Q

Name the APCs?

A

B cells, macrophages, dendritic cells

76
Q

Naive T cell activation stages

A
  1. Foreign body is phagocytosed by dendritic cell
  2. Foreign Ag is presented on MHC II and recognized by TCR (T cell receptor) on Th (helper) cell. Ag is presented on MHC I to Tc (cytotoxic) cells (signal 1)
  3. “Costimulatory signal” is given by interaction of B7 and CD28 (signal 2)
  4. Th cell activates and produces cytokines. Tc cell activates and is able to recognize and kill virus infected cells
77
Q

B cell activation and class switching stages

A
  1. Helper T cell activation
  2. B cell receptor-mediated endocytosis; foreign Ag is presented on MHC II and recognized by TCR on Th cell (signal 1)
  3. CD40 receptor on B cell binds CD40 ligand on Th cell (signal 2)
  4. Th cell secretes cytokines that determine Ig class switching of B cell. B cell activates and undergoes class switching, affinity maturation, and Ab production
78
Q

Which APC is the only one able to activate naive T cells?

A

Dendritic cells

79
Q

Helper T cell - Th1 Cell

A

Secretes IFN-y
Activates macrophages and cytotoxic T cells
Inhibited by IL-4 and IL-10 (from Th2 cell)

80
Q

Helper T cell - Th2 cell

A

Secretes IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-13
Recruits eosinophils for parasite defence and promotes IgE production by B cells
Inhibited by IFN-y (from Th1 cell)

81
Q

Macrophages release IL-12 which stimulates what?

A

Stimulates T cells to differentiate into Th1 cells. Th1 cells release IFN-y to stimulate macrophages

82
Q

Cytotoxic T cells

A

Kill virus infected, neoplastic, and donor graft cells by inducing apoptosis
Release cytotoxic granules containing preformed proteins (perforin and granzyme B)

83
Q

Regulatory T cells

A

Help maintain specific immune tolerance by suppressing CD4 and CD8 T cell effector functions

84
Q

How are regulatory T cells identified?

A

Expression of cell surface markers CD3, CD4, CD25 (alpha chain of IL-2), and transcription factor FOXP3

85
Q

Activated regulatory T cells produce which anti-inflammatory cytokines?

A

IL-10 and TGF-beta

86
Q

Which part of the Ab recognizes Ag?

A

Light and heavy chains

87
Q

The Fc region of an Ab is made from which chain type?

A

Heavy

88
Q

The Fab region of an Ab is made from which chain type?

A

Both - heavy and light

89
Q

Fab region of Ab

A

Ag binding fragment

Determines idiotype: unique Ag binding pocket; only 1 antigenic specificity expressed per B cell

90
Q

Fc region of Ab

A 
Constant
Carboxyl terminal
Complement binding
Carbohydrate side chains
Determines isotype (IgM, IgD, etc.)
91
Q

Ab diversity is generated by…

A 
Random recombination of VJ (light chain) or V(D)J (heavy chain) genes
Random combination of heavy chains with light chains
Somatic hypermutation (following Ag stimulation)
Addition of nucleotides to DNA during recombination bu terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
92
Q

Which immunoglobulins do mature B cells express on their surfaces?

A

IgM and IgD

93
Q

IgG

A

Main Ab in secondary (delayed) response to an Ag.
Most abundant isotype in serum.
Fixes complement, crosses placental (provides infants with passive immunity), opsonizes bacteria, neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses

94
Q

IgA

A

Prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes; does not fix complement.
Monomer in circulation or dimer when secreted
Crosses epithelial cells by transcytosis

95
Q

Which Ab is mostly produces overall?

A

IgA

96
Q

Which Ab is released in our secretions (tears, saliva, mucus)?

A

IgA

97
Q

Which Ab is in colostrum?

A

IgA

98
Q

IgM

A

Produces in primary (immediate) response to Ag. Fixes complement but does not cross the placenta

99
Q

Which Ab crosses the placenta?

A

IgG

100
Q

Which Ab is the Ag receptor on B cells?

A

IgM and IgD

Monomer on B cells or pentamer when secreted

101
Q

IgD

A

Unclear function. Found on the surface of many B cells and in serum.

102
Q

IgE

A

Binds mast cells and basophils; cross links when exposed to allergen, mediating immediate (type 1) hypersensitivity through release of inflammatory mediators such as histamine

103
Q

How does IgE mediate immunity to worms?

A

By activating eosinophils

104
Q

Which Ab is in the lowest concentration in serum?

A

IgE

105
Q

Thymus-independent Ags

A

Ags lacking a peptide component
Weakly or nonimmunogenic
Vaccines often require boosters

106
Q

Which Ag type cannot be presented by MHC to T cells?

A

Thymus-independent antigens

107
Q

Thymus-dependent Ags

A

Ags containing a protein component. Class switching and immunologic memory occur as a result of direct contact of B cells with Th cells (CD40-CD40 ligand interaction)

108
Q

Acute phase reactants

A

Factors whose serum concentrations change significantly in response to inflammation

109
Q

When and where are acute phase reactants produced?

A

Liver in both acute and chronic inflammatory states

110
Q

What cytokines induce acute-phase reactants?

A

IL-6, IL-1, TNF-a, and IFN-y

111
Q

serum amyloid A (Upregulated)

A

prolonged elevation can lead to amyloidosis

112
Q

C-reactive protein (Upregulated)

A

Opsonin; fixes complement and facilitates phagocytosis

Measured clinically as a sign of ongoing inflammation

113
Q

ferritin (Upregulated)

A

binds and sequesters iron to inhibit microbial iron scavenging

114
Q

fibrinogen (Upregulated)

A

coagulation factor; promotes endothelial repair; correlates with ESR

115
Q

hepcidin (Upregulated)

A

prevents release of iron bound by ferritin -> anemia of chronic dz

116
Q

albumin (downregulated)

A

reduction conserves amino acids for positive reactants

117
Q

transferrin (downregulated)

A

internalized by macrophages to sequester iron

118
Q

What kind of pathogens do MACs defend agains?

A

gram-negative bacteria

119
Q

Classic pathway of complement

A

IgG and IgM mediated

120
Q

Alternative pathway of complement

A

microbe surface molecules

121
Q

Lectin pathway of complement

A

mannose or other sugars on microbe surface

122
Q

C3b

A

opsonization

123
Q

C3a, C4a, C5a

A

anaphylaxis

124
Q

C5a

A

neutrophil chemotaxis

125
Q

C5b-9

A

cytosine by MAC

126
Q

Opsonins

A

C3b and IgG are the two primary opsonins in bacterial defence

127
Q

Which complement protein helps clear immune complexes?

A

C3b

128
Q

What are the names of the inhibitors that help prevent complement activation on self cells (e.g., RBCs)

A

Decay-Accelerating factos (DAF aka CD55) and C1 esterase

129
Q

C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency

A

causes hereditary angioedema. ACE inhibitors are CI

130
Q

C3 deficiency

A

Increases risk of severe, recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections; increases susceptibility to type III hypersensitivity reactions

131
Q

C5-C9 deficiencies

A

increases susceptibility to recurrent Neisseria bacteremia

132
Q

DAF deficiency

A

causes complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

133
Q

What cytokines are secreted by macrophages?

A

IL-1, IL-6, IL-8, IL-12, TNF-alpha

134
Q

What cytokines are secreted by T cells?

A

IL-2, IL-3

135
Q

What cytokines are secreted from Th1 cells?

A

IFN-y

136
Q

What cytokines are from Th2 cells?

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-10

137
Q

IL-1

A

Endogenous pyrogen.
Causes fever and acute inflammation
Activated endothelium to express adhesion molecules
Induces chemokine secretion to recruit leukocytes

138
Q

IL-2

A

stimulates growth of all T cells

139
Q

IL - 3

A

supports the growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells

140
Q

IL-4

A 
Stimulates IgE production and IgG through class switching 
induces differentiation into Th2 cells
Promotes growth of B cells
141
Q

IL-5

A

Enhances class switching to IgA
Promotes differentiation of B cells
Stimulates the growth and differentiation of eosinophils

142
Q

IL-6

A

Causes fever and stimulates production of acute phase proteins
Also secreted by Th2 cells

143
Q

IL-8

A

Major chemotactic factor for neutrophils

144
Q

IL-10

A

Moderates inflammation response
Inhibits actions of activated T cells and Th1
Also secreted by regulatory T cells

145
Q

What cytokine has similar actions to IL-10 bc it is involved in inhibiting inflammation?

A

TGF-beta

146
Q

IL-12

A

Induces differentiation of T cells into Th1 cells
Activates NK cells
Also secreted by B cells

147
Q

TNF-alpha

A

Mediates septic shock
Activates endothelium
Causes leukocyte recruitment, vascular leak

148
Q

IFN-y

A

has antiviral and anti tumour properties
activates NK cells to kill virus infected cells
increases MHC expression and Ag presentation in all cells

NPLEX 1 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions