Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

where are B cells located in the lymph node

A

follicle

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2
Q

where are T cells located in the lymph node

A

in the paracortex

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3
Q

what is in the medullary cords

A

plasma cells

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4
Q

what is in the medullary sinus

A

macrophages

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5
Q

which part of the lymph node is not developed in deGoegre syndrome

A

paracortex

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6
Q

head and neck drain to the…

A

cervical nides

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7
Q

lungs drain to the…

A

hilar nodes

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8
Q

trachea and esophagus drain to the…

A

mediastinal nodes

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9
Q

upper limb, breast, and skin above umbilicus drain to the…

A

axillary nodes

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10
Q

liver, stomach, pancreas, spleen and upper duodenum drain to the…

A

celiac nodes

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11
Q

lower duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon to the splenic flexure drain to the

A

superior mesenteric

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12
Q

colon after the splenic flexure, to the upper rectum

A

inferior mesenteric nodes

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13
Q

lower rectum to the anal canal (above the pectinate line), bladder, middle vagina, prostate drain to the…

A

internal iliac

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14
Q

testes, ovaries, kidneys and uterus drain to the…

A

para-aortic nodes

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15
Q

anal canal below the pectinate line and skin below umbilicus

A

superficial inguinal nodes

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16
Q

dorsolateral foot and posterior calf drain to the..

A

popliteal nodes

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17
Q

what is in the red pulp of the spleen

A

RBCs

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18
Q

where are T cells located in the spleen

A

periarticular lymphatic sheath (white pulp)

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19
Q

where are B cells found in the spleen

A

within the follicles (white pulp)

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20
Q

what is the thymus made from

A

epithelium of the 3rd pharyngeal pouch.

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21
Q

cortex vs. medulla of thymus

A

cortex is dense with immature T celsl and medulla is pale with mature T cells and Hassall corpuscles containing epithelial reticular cells

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22
Q

what is LPS

A

this is an example of PAMP that can be recognized by a toll like receptor and it is on gram negative bacteria. it will activate the innate immunity

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23
Q

what cells express MHC I

A

all except RBCs. basically all nucleated cells

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24
Q

HLA A3….

A

hemochromatosis

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25
Q

B27

A

Psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, IBD and reactice arthritis (PAIR)

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26
Q

DQ2/DQ8

A

celiac disease

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27
Q

DR2

A

MS, SLE, hay fever, and goodpasture

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28
Q

DR3

A

type 1 diabetes, SLE graves

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29
Q

DR4

A

RA, type 1 diabetes

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30
Q

DR5

A

pernicious anemia and hashimotos thyroiditis

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31
Q

which signals enhance NK cells

A

IL2, IL12, IFN beta, IFN apla

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32
Q

where does positive selection of t cells in the thymus occur

A

in the cortex

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33
Q

where does negative selection of t cells in the thymus occur

A

medulla

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34
Q

second signal to activate T cells

A

B7 and CD28. B7 is on the dendritic or APC and CD28 on the T cell

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35
Q

second signal for T cell to activate B cell

A

CD40 ligand on the T cell and CD40 R on the B cell

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36
Q

what do TH1 cells secrete

A

IFN gamma mostly

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37
Q

what do TH2 cells secrete

A

IL4, 5, 6, 13

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38
Q

surface markers of a Treg cell

A

CD3, CD4, CD25 and transcription factor FOXP3

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39
Q

most abundant immunoglobulin in the serum

A

IgG

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40
Q

the immunoglobulin that is made first in response to an antigen

A

IgM

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41
Q

why is IgM made first

A

shape of it- large penatmer allows it to efecitvely trap free antigens while humoral immunity builds up its response

42
Q

what does IgE bind to

A

mast cells and basophils.

43
Q

what induces an increase in acute phase reactants

A

IL6, IL1, TNF alpha, and IFN gamma

44
Q

what are two acute phase reactants that are downregualted

A

albumin and transferin (internalized by macrophages to sequester iron).

45
Q

which acute phase reactant is related to ESR

A

firinogen increase- promotes endothelial repair and corelates with ESR

46
Q

what activates the classic pathway for complement

A

antigen-antibody complexes

47
Q

what activates the alternative pathway for complement

A

spontaeous or microbial surfaces

48
Q

what activates the lectin pathway for complement

A

microbial surfaces like mannose

49
Q

what bug are you more suceptible to if you have a C5-C9 deficiency

A

Neisseria bactermia

50
Q

Decay accelerating factor deficiency causes…

A

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

51
Q

function of IL6

A

causes fever and simtulates production of acute phase reactants

52
Q

function of IL8

A

raws in neutrophils

53
Q

function of IL12

A

induces differentiation of T cells into TH1 cells

54
Q

function of TNF alpha

A

mediates septic shock, activates endthelium. causes leuckoyte recruitment.

55
Q

function of IFN gamma

A

antiviral and anti tumor properties. activates NK cells.

56
Q

function of IL4

A

induces differentiation into TH2 cells. promotes growth of B cells. enhances class switching to IgE and IgG

57
Q

IL5 function

A

promotes differentiation of B cells. enhances switching to IgA. stimualtes growht and diferentiation of eosinophils.

58
Q

IL10 function

A

modulates or reduces inflammatory response. inhibits action of activated T cells and TH1. siilar to TGF beta

59
Q

B cell receptors

A

CD19, CD20, and CD21

60
Q

what cell receptor is for EBV

A

DC21

61
Q

NK cell receptors

A

CD16 (binds the Fc of Ig) and CD56 (unique to these cells)

62
Q

where do super antigens work

A

cross link the beta region of the T cell receptor to the MHC class II on APCs

63
Q

how do endotoxins like LPS work

A

directly stimulate macophages by binding to endotoxin receptor CD14. no T cell involvement

64
Q

what 4 diseases can you give preformed antibodies to treat

A

tetanus, botulinum, rabies and HBV

65
Q

which are the live vaccines

A

MMR, varicella, yellow fever, nasal flu and Sabin polio

66
Q

which are the inactivated or killed vaccines

A

cholera, hepatitis A, salk polio, infection flu and rabies

67
Q

what type of response do you get from live vaccines

A

cellular immunity

68
Q

what type of response to do you get from killed vaccine

A

humoral immunity

69
Q

4 Ts of a type 4 reaction

A

T lymphocytes, Transplant rejections, TB skin test and Touching (contact dermatitis)

70
Q

what are poison ivy and nickel allergy

A

these are examples of contact dermatitis and they are a type 4 HS reaction

71
Q

urticaria, itchiness, wheezing and fever after a blood transfusion

A

this is an allergic reaction- type I HS. treat with antihistamines. allergic reaction to the proteins in the plasma

72
Q

shortness of breath, bronchospasm, hypotension and shock from blood transfusion

A

anaphylactic reaction = severe allergic reaction. often someone who is IgA deficiency who got blood with IgA in it

73
Q

fever headache chills and flushing from blood transfusion

A

this is febrile non hemolytic transfusion reaction. type 2 HS reaction- host anitbodies against donor HLA antigens and leukocytes.

74
Q

fever, hypotension, tachypnea, tachycardia, flank pain, hemoglobinemia, jaundice

A

acute hemolytic transfusion reaction- type 2 HS reaction- intravascular hemolysis from ABO incompatiibility or extravascular hemolysis (host antibody reaction against oreign antigen on donor RBCs)

75
Q

anti ach receptor antibodies

A

Myasthenia gravis

76
Q

anti basement membrane antibodies

A

goodpasture

77
Q

anti cardiolipin, lupus anticoagulant

A

SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome

78
Q

anti centromere

A

CREST

79
Q

anti demoglein

A

pemphigus vulgaris

80
Q

anti dsDNA and anti Smoth

A

SLE

81
Q

anti glutamate decarboxylase

A

type 1 diabetes

82
Q

anti hemidesmosome

A

bullous pemphigus

83
Q

anti histone

A

drug induced lupus

84
Q

anti jo1, anti SRP,and MI2

A

polymyositis and dermatomyositis

85
Q

anti microsomal antibodies and anti thyroglobulin

A

hashimoto

86
Q

anti mitochondrial

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

87
Q

anti Scl70

A

cleroderma. thi sis an anti DNA topoisomerase I

88
Q

anti smooth msucle

A

autoimmune hepatitis

89
Q

anti Ro and anti La

A

sjogrens (also known as SSA and SSB)

90
Q

anti TSH receptor

A

Graves disease

91
Q

anti U1 RNP (ribonucleoprotein)

A

mixed conenctive tissue disease

92
Q

c-ANCA

A

granulomatosis with polyangitis (Wegners)

93
Q

IgA antiendomysial, IgA anti tissue transglutaminase

A

celiac disease

94
Q

pANCA

A

microscopic polyangitis and churge strauss

95
Q

what s rheumatoid factor

A

antibody like IgM against IgG Fc region)

96
Q

in general B cell deficiencies give

A

recurrent bacterial infections

97
Q

in general T cell deficiencies give

A

fungal and viral infections

98
Q

no B cells- worry about….

A

encapsulated bacterial organisms. SHiN SKiS

also worry about Gi giardiasis bc no IgA

99
Q

what if you have no granulocytes

A

wory about staph, burkholderia cepacia, serratia and nocardia. in terms of fungal infections worry about candida and aspergillus.

100
Q

what if you have no complement

A

worry about neisseria infection

101
Q

viruses and fungi to worry about with no T cells

A

CMV, EV, JCV, VZV. for fungi worry about candida and PCP