Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

John Step 1 > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Lymph drainage: What does the right lymphatic duct drain?

A

Right arm and right half of head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lymph drainage: What does the thoracic duct drain?

A

Everything except for the right arm and the right half of head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the white pulp of the spleen contain?

A

Contains: 1. Lymphoid follicles with germinal centers (mostly B cells). Can see aggregation of dark basophilic lymphocytic nuclei. 2. Characteristic central arterioles. Surrounded by a Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) which is a collection of T-lymphocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where is the red pulp of the spleen located?

A

Around and between the lymphatic nodules of the white pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Splenic cords: What are they?

A

Structures containing macrophages, plasma cells, lymphocytes, and few RBCs. Separated from each other by splenic sinusoids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Thymus: Function

A

Site of T-cell differentiation and maturation (T cells differentiate in the Thymus. B cells differentiate in the Bone marrow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Thymus: Embryological origin

A

Epithelium of 3rd branchial pouches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lymphocytes: Embryological origin

A

Mesenchyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Thymus: What does the cortex contain and what does it look like?

A

The lobules resemble lymphatic nodules except they are angular, not round.Contains:1. Densely packed (dark) immature T cells.2. Large epithelial reticular cells which appear as holes within the cortical cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is positive selection of T cells?

A

Retention of T cells that have functioning T cell receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where do positive and negative selection of T-cells occur in the thymus?

A

At the corticomedullary junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is negative selection of T cells?

A

Destruction of T-cells that react to self-antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Innate immunity vs adaptive immunity: How are receptors that recognize pathogens encoded?

A

Innate: Germline encoded
Adaptive: Undergo VDJ recombination during development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Innate immunity vs adaptive immunity: How fast is response to pathogens?

A

Innate: Always fast, no memory response.
Adaptive: Slow on 1st exposure but memory response is faster and more robust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T-cell differentiation: What CD?

A

CD3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T-cell differentiation: What happens to T-cell precursors when they enter the thymus, and what are they called?

A

Once T-cell precursors acquire and display CD4 and CD8, they are cortical thymocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T-cell differentiation: Where is the T-cell in its development when it undergoes positive selection?

A

Both CD4 positive and CD8 positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T-cell differentiation: Where in the thymus are cells which are positive for both CD4 and CD8 located?

A

Thymic cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T-cell differentiation: Where is the T-cell in its development when it undergoes negative selection?

A

Either CD4 positive or CD8 positive, not both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T-cell differentiation: Where in the thymus are cells which are positive for either CD4 or CD8 located?

A

Thymic medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T-cell differentiation: What are the two types of helper T cells and where do they differentiate?

A

In the lymph node, helper T cells differentiate into Th1 cells, and Th2 cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Differences between Th1 and Th2 cells: Stimulant for differentiation from archetypical helper T cell.

A

Th1: IL-12 from both other Th1 cells and antigen-presenting dendritic cells
Th2: IL-4 from other Th2 cells and presumably an unknown factor from dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Differences between Th1 and Th2 cells: Cytokines produced by both types

A

Both: IL-2
Th1: IFN-gamma, TNF-alpha
Th2: IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10, IL-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cytokine effects: Interleukin 2

A

Stimulates T-cell growth and proliferationMnemonic for first 5 interleukins: Hot T-bone stEAk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cytokine effects: Interferon gamma

A
  1. Inhibits Th2 cytokines2. Induces class I and II MHC3. Stimulates differentiation of monocytes into macrophages.4. Activates macrophages.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cytokine effects: Tumor Necrosis Factor alpha

A
  1. Activates macrophages, neutrophils (also attracts them), and CD8 cells.2. Induces neutrophil-endothelial cell adhesion.3. Constitutional: sepsis, cachexia (“wasting away”), fever, acute phase proteins. 4. Tumor cell lysis5. Increased proliferation of B-cells6. Increased synthesis of IL-2 receptors by Th cells.7. Stimulates dendritic cell migration to lymph nodes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cytokine effects: Interleukin 4

A
  1. Growth of B-cells2. Growth and proliferation of T-cells3. Synthesis of IgE4. Class switching of IgG to IgE5. Inhibits IL-8, IL-1, and TNF-alphaMnemonic for first 5 interleukins: Hot T-bone stEAk. E as in stimulates IgE production.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cytokine effects: Interleukin 5

A
  1. Differentiation of B cells 2. Class switching of IgA3. Production and activation of eosinophilsMnemonic for first 5 interleukins: Hot T-bone stEAk. A as in stimulates IgA production.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What cytokines stimulate the acute phase response?

A
  1. IL-12. IL-63. TNF-alpha
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are acute phase response proteins used for?

A
  1. Augment immune response (complement, Ig)2. Regulate the extent of response (protease inhibitors like alpha-1-antitrypsin)3. Stimulate additional responses (alpha-2-macroglobulin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cytokine effects: Interleukin 10

A

Big picture: Stimulates Th2 while inhibiting Th1Specifically inhibits:1. IL-82. IL-13. TNF-alpha4. IFN-gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What releases: Interleukin 10

A
  1. Th2 cells2. Macrophages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Differences between Th1 and Th2 cells: Major effects

A

Both: Downregulate each otherTh1: Activates all lymphocytes and APCs, especially CD8 cells and macrophages.Th2 cells: 1. B cells: Increased differentiation, proliferation, antibody, and class switching.2: Activation of eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What releases: Interleukin 2

A

Th cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What releases: Tumor Necrosis Factor alpha

A

Macrophages (emphasized) and Th1 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What releases: Interferon gamma

A

Th1 cells (emphasized) and NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What releases: Interleukin 5

A

T cells (especially Th2) and mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What releases: Interleukin 6

A

T cells (especially Th), macrophages, and endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is MHC and what codes for it?

A

Major Histocompatability Complex encoded by Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

MHC I and II: What cells are they expressed on?

A

I: All nucleated cells except sperm.
II: Antigen Presenting Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

B cells and T cells: Effect on Ig

A

B cells: Make it

T cells: (CD4) Help B cells make it and release IFN-gamma to activate macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

B cells and T cells: Method of killing

A

B cells: IgG opsonizes bacteria and virusesT cells: (CD8) Directly kills virus-infected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

B cells and T cells: Allergy mechanism

A

B: Type I hypersensitivity, through IgET: Type IV hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

B cells and T cells: Organ rejection speed

A

B: Fast, through antibodiesT: Slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

CD/MHC: What binds MHC II?

A

CD4 T-cell receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does MHC I pair with (allosteric interaction)

A

beta2-microglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

CD/MHC: What binds MHC I?

A

CD8 T-cell receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

CD/MHC: What binds CD4 T-cell receptors?

A

MHC II on antigen presenting cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

CD/MHC: What binds CD8 T-cell receptors?

A

MHC I on virus-infected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Cytokine effects: Interleukin 1

A

Big picture: Stimulates growth differentiation or product synthesis by T cells, B cells, neutrophils, fibroblasts, and epithelial cells1. Endogenous pyrogen2. Activates T cells3. Upregulates adhesion molecules4. Induces acute phase reactants5. Synergizes with TNF-alphaMnemonic for first 5 interleukins: Hot T-bone stEAk. Hot as in fever.

51
Q

What releases: Interleukin 1

A
  1. Professional antigen-presenting cells (macrophages, monocytes, dendritic cells, and B cells)2. Some non-professional antigen presenting cells (fibroblasts, endothelial cells, others)
52
Q

How does Interleukin 1 cause fever?

A

Steps1. Migrates to the circumventricular organs2. Binds with endothelial receptors.3. Receptors activate Phospholipase A2-COX2-PGE2 pathway4. Prostaglandin E2’s presence in the hypothalamus elevates the thermoregulatory set point and activates neuroendocrine determinants of fever.

53
Q

What are the professional antigen presenting cells?

A
  1. Macrophages2. B cells3. Dendritic cells
54
Q

What is the CD3 complex?

A

Cluster of polypeptides associated with a T-cell receptor. It is important in signal transduction.

55
Q

How are Th cells activated?

A
  1. APC phagocytoses foreign body.
  2. APC presents antigen on MHC II.
  3. Signal 1: Th cell’s TCR recognizes antigen.
  4. Signal 2 (costimulatory): APC’s B7 molecule stimulates Th cell’s CD28 molecule.
  5. Autocrine IL-2 stimulates Th cell to produces cytokines
56
Q

How are Tc cells activated?

A
  1. Virus-infected cell presents endogenously synthesized proteins on MHC I.
  2. Signal 1: Tc cell’s TCR recognizes antigen.
  3. Signal 2: IL-2 released from Th cell activates T c cell to kill virus infected cell.
57
Q

What part of an antibody recognizes antigen?

A

Variable portion of Fab fragment

58
Q

What part of an antibody fixes complement?

A

Constant part of H chain of IgM and IgG

59
Q

Antibody structure/function, True or False: Light chain contributes to Fab

A

TRUE

60
Q

Antibody structure/function, True or False: Heavy chain contributes to Fab

A

TRUE

61
Q

Antibody structure/function, True or False: Light chain contributes to Fc

A

FALSE

62
Q

Antibody structure/function, True or False: Heavy chain contributes to Fc

A

TRUE

63
Q

What is the middle of the variable component of an antibody component chain called?

A

Hypervariable region

64
Q

What disulfide bonds does an antibody have?

A

Interchain: Bonds between both heavy chains and between corresponding light and heavy chainsIntrachain: On each segment

65
Q

Where on an antibody is the Amino terminal?

A

At the variable edges of the chains

66
Q

Where on an antibody is the carboxyl terminal?

A

At the constant edges of the heavy chains

67
Q

Antibody structure/function: What are the five Cs of Fc?

A
  1. Constant
  2. Carboxy terminal
  3. Complement binding (IgG and IgM only)
  4. Carbohydrate side chains
  5. Complement binding fragment
68
Q

3 main functions of the antibody

A
  1. Opsonization
  2. Neutralization (prevents bacterial adherence)
  3. Complement activation
69
Q

How is antibody diversity generated?

A
  1. Random “recombination” of VJ (light chain) or VDJ (heavy chain) genes.
  2. Random combination of heavy chains with light chains
  3. Somatic hypermutation
  4. Addition of nucleotides to DNA during “genetic recombination” by terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase.
70
Q

What does terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase do?

A

Addition of nucleotides to DNA during “genetic recombination” in B cells

71
Q

What does Tdt stand for?

A

Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

72
Q

Which immunoglobulins are expressed on the surface of mature B cells?

A

IgM and IgD

73
Q

What is isotype switching?

A

Differentiation of B cells into plasma cells that secrete IgG, IgA, or IgE

74
Q

What stimulates isotype switching?

A

Cytokines (IL-4 and IL-5) and CD40-Ligand on T-cells

75
Q

Main antibody isotype in secondary immune response

A

IgG

76
Q

Most abundant antibody isotype

A

IgG

77
Q

Antibody isotypes which cross placenta

A

IgG

78
Q

Antibody isotypes which fix complement

A

IgG and IgM in the classic complement pathwayMnemonic: GM makes classic cars

79
Q

Antibody isotypes which opsonize bacteria

A

IgG (and IgA weakly)

80
Q

Main antibody isotype in primary immune response

A

IgM

81
Q

Antibody isotype with longest half life

A

IgG (26 days compared with 5 for IgM, the next longest)

82
Q

Antibody isotype which prevents bacterial/viral attachment to mucous membranes

A

IgA

83
Q

Antibody isotype found in secretions

A

IgA

84
Q

Antibody isotype which mediates type I hypersensitivity

A

IgE

85
Q

How does IgE cause an allergic response?

A

Type I hypersensitivity

  1. IgE binds to basophils or mast cells
  2. IgE binds antigen
  3. These cells release histamine and leukotrienes.
86
Q

Which cells have receptors for IgE?

A
  1. mast cells
  2. basophils
  3. eosinophils
  4. monocytes/macrophages
  5. platelets
87
Q

Antibody isotype which mediates immunity to worms

A

IgE

88
Q

Least abundant antibody isotype

A

IgE

89
Q

Define allotype

A

An individual’s allele coding for the constant portions of the antibody’s heavy chains.

90
Q

Define isotype

A

Type of chain in an antibodyHeavy isotypes: alpha, gamma, delta, epsilon, muLight isotypes: kappa, lambda

91
Q

Define idiotype

A

antibodies of one idiotype share structure of their variable region and thus, antigen binding specificity.

92
Q

Cytokine effects: Interleukin 3

A

Supports the growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells (similar to GM-CSF). Most important during early growth.Mnemonic for first 5 interleukins: Hot T-bone stEAk. bone, as in bone development

93
Q

What releases: Interleukin 3

A

T cells (emphasis on activated T cells) and thymic epithelial cells

94
Q

Cytokine effects: Interleukin 6

A
  1. Differentiation and growth of B cells and T cells
  2. Systemic effects (Acute Phase Response and Fever)
  3. Stimulates Ig production
95
Q

What releases: Interleukin 4

A

Th2 cells

96
Q

Cytokine effects: Interleukin 8

A
  1. Major neutrophil chemotactic and adhesion factor
  2. Angiogenesis
  3. High levels associated with schizophrenia
97
Q

What releases: Interleukin 8

A
  1. Monocytes
  2. Endothelial cells
  3. Fibroblasts
98
Q

Cytokine effects: Interleukin 12

A
  1. Promotes differentiation of Th cells into Th1

2. Activates NK cells

99
Q

What releases: Interleukin 12

A

Professional Antigen Presenting Cells:

  1. Dendritic cells
  2. Macrophages
  3. B cells
100
Q

Important cell surface proteins and their functions: Helper T cells

A
  1. CD4
  2. TCR
  3. CD3 (Signal transduction)
  4. CD28 and CD40L (Receive costimulatory activation signal respectively from B7 and CD40 which are both on B cells and professional APCs. These two signaling pathways each upregulate the other.)
101
Q

Important cell surface proteins and their functions: Cytotoxic T cells

A
  1. CD8
  2. TCR
  3. CD3 (Signal transduction)
102
Q

Important cell surface proteins and their functions: B cells

A
  1. IgM
  2. MHC II (Presents foreign antigens to Th cells)
  3. B7 and CD40 (Costimulatory activation signal respectively to CD28 and CD40L which are both on T cells. These two signaling pathways each upregulate the other.)
  4. CD19, CD21 (Subunits of co-receptor for BCR complex)
  5. CD20 (Target in non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma of monoclonal antibodies like rituximab)
103
Q

Important cell surface proteins and their functions: Macrophages

A
  1. MHC II (Presents foreign antigens to Th cells)
  2. CD14 (Works with toll-like receptor 4 to bind lipopolysaccharide. Also a marker for monocytes)
  3. Receptors for Fc and C3b (ie opsonins)
104
Q

Important cell surface proteins and their functions: NK cells

A
  1. Receptors for MHC I
  2. CD16 (subunit of low-affinity Fc receptor [ie. opsonins])
  3. CD56 (adhesion molecule)
105
Q

Important cell surface proteins and their functions: Hematopoietic stem cells

A

CD34 (marker for this type of cell, and a receptor for CD62L, a selectin)

106
Q

Complement: Viral neutralization

A

C1, C2, C3, C4

107
Q

Complement: Opsonization

A

C3b

108
Q

Complement: Anaphylatoxins

A

C3a, C5a

109
Q

Complement: Neutrophil Chemotaxis

A

C5a

110
Q

Complement: Membrane attack complex

A

C5b to C9

111
Q

Deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor leads to:

A

Hereditary angioedema (overactive complement)

112
Q

Deficiency of C3 leads to:

A

Severe recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections

113
Q

Deficiency of C6 through C8 leads to:

A

Neisseria bacteremia

114
Q

What is Decay Accelerating Factor?

A

Prevents attachment of the alternative complement complex (C3 convertase) to the membrane

115
Q

When is Decay Accelerating Factor missing?

A

In paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

116
Q

What kind of bacteria does complement defend against?

A

Gram negative bacteria

117
Q

What activates the classic complement pathway?

A

IgG and IgM.Mnemonic: GM makes classic cars.

118
Q

What activates the alternative complement pathway?

A

Microbe surface molecules (especially endotoxin)

119
Q

PGI2

A

Prostacyclin. Vasodilator and inhibits platelet aggregation. Aspirin does not inhibit its synthesis by endothelial cells. Synthesized from PGH2 by prostacyclin synthase in intact endothelial cells.

120
Q

PGH2

A

Synthesizes PGI2 with prostacyclin synthase in intact endothelial cells. Precursor of thromboxanes. Synthesized from PGG2.

121
Q

PGE2

A

Vasodilation, pain and fever. Synthesized from PGH2

122
Q

TxA2

A

Vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation and bronchoconstriction. Coverted from PGH2 by thromboxane synthase.

123
Q

LTB4

A

chemotaxis and activation of neutrophil adhesion molecules

124
Q

LTC4, D4, E4

A

Vasoconstriction, increased vessel permeability, bronchoconstriction

John Step 1 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions