Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DWT exam 1 > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

I did not put in the stuff that is review!

1
Q

dendritic cell function

A

antigen uptake in peripheral sites
antigen presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

mast cell functions

A

release of granules containing histimine and active agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

macrophage function

A

phagocytosis
activation of bacteriocidal mechanisms
antigen presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

neutrophil function

A

phagocytosis
activation of bacteriocidal mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

eosinophil function

A

killing of antibody coated parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

basophil function

A

promotion of allergic response
augmentation of antiparasitic immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

scavenger receptors

A

help phagocytose
on macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

toll like receptors

A

on macrophages
recognize molecular patterns
ex: flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Type 1 interferon response

A

IFN alpha and beta
antiviral responses
1. cell infected by virus
2. IFNalpha/beta produced
3. induce resistance to viral replication
4. increase MHC class 1
5. activate dendritic and macrophages
6. activate NK cells to kill virus infected cell
7. induce chemokines to recruit lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

dendritic cell migration/activation

A
  1. immature dendritic cells in periperal tissues
  2. migrate via lymphatic vessels to regional lymph nodes
  3. mature dendridic activate T cells in lymphoid organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

B cell vs T cell receptor recognition of antigens

A

T cell recognize epitope that is burried inside protein
antigen must be broken down to be presented on MHC

B cell recognize epitope on surface of protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T cell receptor complex parts

A

TCR
* alpha and beta subunits
* recognition

2 CD3 receptors on either side of TCR

ITAMS under membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ITAMs

A

immunoreceptor tyrosine activator motives
under membrane of T cell receptor
controled by phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

cytosolic pathogens

A

degraded in cytosol
MHC class 1
presented to CD8
cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

intravesicular pathogens

A

degraded in endocytic vesicles
MHC class 2
presented to CD4
activation to kill intravesicular bacteria/parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

extracellular pathogens/toxins

A

degraded in endocytic vesicles
MHC class II
presented to CD4
activation of B cells to secrete Ig and eliminate extracellular bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

TH1 cells

A

activate macrophages to kill intracellular bacteria
IFNgamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

TH2 cells

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-13
activate eosinophils, mast cells, B plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

B plasma cells

A

produce antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

TFH cells (follicular T helper cells)

A

causes antibody (isokine) switching on B cells
ex: IgM to IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Th17 cells

A

IL-17
pro inflammatory
recruit neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Treg cells

A

inhibit other T cells, dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

B cell receptor complex

A

heavy chain, light chain, recognition site (variable)
ITAMS for phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

functions of antibodies

A
  1. neutralization
  2. opsonization
  3. complement activation
  4. ADCC (NK cells)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)

A
  1. antibody binds to antigens on surface of target cells
  2. Fc receptors on NK cells recognize bound antibody
  3. cross linking of Fc receptors signal NK cells to kill target cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

mast cell activation process

A

similar to ADCC
1. antibody binds to antigens on surface of target cells
2. Fc epsilon receptors on mast cells recognize bound antibody
3. cross linking of Fc receptors signal mast cells to release granules

27
Q

types of hypersensitivity

A

Type I: immediate-type allergic reactions mediated by **IgE antibodies, with mast-cell activation **as the major effector mechanism.
Type II and III: driven by antigen-specific IgG, with the effector mechanisms being antibody-mediated (II) or immune complex-mediated (III).
Type IV: delayed and depicted as being driven by multiple cellular effectors including T cells and myeloid cells.

28
Q

type 1 hypersensitivity

A

allergies
onset within minutes of antigen challenge
Th2 and B cell activation leading to memory and plasma cells
plasma cell antibodies cause activation of mast cell degranulation

29
Q

mast cells function, products

A

Derived from hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow
Degranulate in response to crosslinking of surface IgE
Products
* Histamine – vasodilation and edema
* Enzymes – destroy parasites, damage tissue
* Leukotrienes and prostaglandin - inflammation
* IL-4 – Increased differentiation of plasma cells and production of IgE
* IL-5 – Recruits and activates eosinophils

30
Q

urticaria

A

type 1 sensitvity in the skin
* “Hives”
* Dermal edema
* Most common in the horse and dog, occurs in all animals
* Characteristic of type I hypersensitivity in the skin
* Caused by chemicals, drugs, insect bites/stings

31
Q

atopic dermatitis

A

type 1 hypersensitivity
Atopy = tendency to develop type I hypersensitivity reactions
* Genetic predisposition
* Environmental triggers (Pollen, mold, food allergens)
* Chronic pruritus/itching
* Typical lesion distribution
* Rhinitis/stuffy nose and asthma in about 15% of patients
* Differential diagnoses: ectoparasites, infectious dermatitis, flea allergy, food allergy

32
Q

anaphylaxis

A

type 1 hypersensitivity
Rare and life-threatening
Dyspnea/difficult breathing
Vomiting, Diarrhea
Collapse
Treatment (species-specific)
* Epinephrine - vasoconstriction
* Diphenhydramine - antihistamine
* Dexamethasone - reduce inflammation
* Fluids – improve circulation
* Terbutaline - bronchodilator

33
Q

testing for type 1 hypersensitivity

A

Blood test
* RAST (radio-allergosorbent test)
* Blood sample evaluated for IgE to allergens

Intradermal test
* Inject small quantities of common allergens
* Evaluate for swelling/erythema

Diet testing for food allergies

34
Q

immunotherapy (allergy shots)

A

Repeated low dose exposure to allergens
Has been used in cats and dogs
Mechanisms
* Decreased mediator release from mast cells and basophils
* Increased numbers of regulatory T cells
* Fewer Th2 cells
* Treg cells produce IL-10 and TGF-B
* Decrease IgE production
* Suppress mast cells and basophils

Not effective for food allergies

35
Q

type 2 hypersensitivity

A

Onset within minutes or a few hours
e.g., autoimmune hemolytic anemia, drug allergies

36
Q

transfusion reaction

A

type 2 hypersensitivity
Blood types are based on erythrocyte surface antigens (EAs)
Plasma contains antibodies to antigens NOT expressed on the erythrocytes
* Naturally-occurring (alloantibodies)
* Induced by previous exposure

Signs of transfusion reactio
* Fever
* Hemolysis (Anemia, Icterus/jaundice, Hemoglobinemia and hemoglobinuria, Disseminated intravascular coagulation)
* Allergic (Hives, Itching)

37
Q

Neonatal Isoerythrolysis in Horses

A

Type 2 hypersensitivity
* Foal inherits RBC antigen that is foreign to the mare
* Mare sensitized to foal’s erythrocyte antigen during pregnancy, parturition, previous transfusion
* Foal nurses and ingests colostrum containing antibodies to its own RBCs
* Hemolysis
* Also reported in cattle, cats

38
Q

type 3 hypersensitivity

A

Can be quick with onset within 2-6 hours
Autoimmune diseases

39
Q

Arthus reaction

A

type 3 hypersensitivity
very rare, can occur after 2nd vaccination
1. locally injected antigen in immune individual with IgG antibody
2. local immune complex formation activates complement, sensitize mast cells
3. degranulation of mast cells
4. local inflammation, increased fluid and protein release, phagocytosis, blood vessel occlusion

40
Q

antigen excess type 3 hypersensitivity

A

Immune complexes form in the vessels
Deposit in the walls of small capillaries
* Renal glomerulus
* Synovium of joints
* Uveal tract of the eyes
* Epidermal basement membrane

Complement fixation
Vasculitis
Thrombosis and ischemic necrosis

41
Q

cutaneous vasculitis

A

type 3 hypersensitivity
Immune complex deposits in the basement membrane of the skin
Common locations
* Pinna
* Paws
* Nose
* Tail

Lesions are:
* Well demarcated
* Often target-shaped (targetoid)

42
Q

immune mediated glomerulonephritis

A

type 3 hypersensitivity
Immune complex deposition in glomerular basement membrane
Disrupts filtration barrier
Loss of protein in the urine
* Hypoproteinemia, edema, effusions
* Proteinuria

43
Q

type 4 hypersensitivity

A

delayed type
sensitization phase: Inflammation by 2-6 h
effector phase: peaks by 24-48 hours

e.g., poison ivy

44
Q

Contact dermatitis

A

type 4 hypersensitivity
poison ivy
delayed response (sensitization then immune response)

45
Q

tuberculin skin test

A

test uses type 4 hypersensitivity
1. Identification of animals infected with Mycobacterium sp. (TB)
2. Inject purified fragments of dead mycobacterial bacteria under the skin
3. Wait 3 days
4. Assess for swelling at injection site

46
Q

autoimmunity definition

A

inappropriate response of the immune system against self components
can be organ specific or systemic

47
Q

autoimmunity and hypersensitivity

A

related to all types of hypersensitivity (esp 2, 3):
1: eosinophilic esophagitis
2: autoimmune hemolytic anemia
3: systemic lupus erythematosus
4: type 1 diabetes

48
Q

autoimmune thyroiditis

A

organ specific autoimmune disease
hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism

49
Q

autoimmune skin diseases

A

organ specific
* psoriasis
* pemphigus
* vitiligo

50
Q

autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

organ specific (blood)
different than transfusion reaction (non self)
IgG targets self RBC

51
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A

non organ specific
can cause systemic issues, not just joints

52
Q

multiple sclerosis

A

non organ specific
targets myelin, but also systemic

53
Q

sex bias in autoimmune disease

A

skewed highky female
female animals have increased severity/incidence

54
Q

type 1 diabetes

A

organ specific autoimmune (pancreas)
young onset, insulin dependent

55
Q

type 1 diabetes stages

A

Chronic autoimmune disease with strong inflammation
Stage 1:
* Induction by PRR- pattern recognition receptor (TLR, RIG-I) ligands (viral dsRNA, dying cells), activate pancreatic beta cells
* Production of Type I interferons
* upregulation of MHC class 1

Stage 2:
* Activation of macrophages and T cells (Th1, Th17, Tregs)
* Involvement of pancreatic b cells in inflammation (next slide)
* Amplification of inflammation

Stage 3:
* Maintenance or resolution depending on the fate of b cells
* activation of beta cell apoptosis and MHC class 2 presentation leading to more T cell activation
* more inflammatory cytokines produced to futhter activate beta cells apoptosis

56
Q

inflammation affect on beta cells

A

Detrimental:
* Suppression of b cell function
* Continued b cell death
* Maintenance of disease

Beneficial:
* Stimulation of b cell proliferation
* For individuals with mild insulitis, inflammation might resolve and normal b cell function be regained

57
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

A

systemic autoimmune disease
mostly effects women of child bearing age
can lead to lupus nephritis (leading cause of death)
treatments: nonselective immunosuppressants

58
Q

causes of Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

A

The exact cause of SLE is unknown, but several factors have been associated with the disease.
Genetics: The disease is not linked to a single gene, but people with lupus often have family members with autoimmune conditions.
Environment: Triggers include UV light, certain medications (e.g. antibiotics), viruses, physical or emotional stress, trauma.
Hormones: Women of childbearing age most vulnerable.

59
Q

criteria for diganosis of lupus (SLE)

A
  • rash
  • photosensitivity
  • oral ulcers
  • arthritis
  • serositis (inflammation of lining around lungs or heart)
  • kidney disorder
  • blood disorder (anemia, leukopenia, lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia)
  • immunologic disorder (anti-DNA or anti-phospholipid antibodies)
  • abnormal antinuclear antibodies
60
Q

lupus immunological mechanisms

A
61
Q

celiac disease

A

allergic reaction with autoimmunity features
gluten modified and presented in MHC class 2
activates CD4 T cells, inflammation

62
Q

general factors contributing to autoimmune disease

A

genetic (HLA and non HLA genes)
immune (breakdown of self tolerance)
environment (drugs, infection, smoking, hormones, nutrition)

63
Q

central tolerance

A

deletion of lymphocytes with self antigens before they are released from generative organs (bone marrow, thymus)

64
Q

peripheral tolerance

A

deletion of lymphocytes that recognize self antigens in peripheral tissues

DWT exam 1 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions