Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What are SPUR infections? What do they indicate?

A

Serious, Persistent, Unusual, Recurrent
Indicate immune deficiency

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2
Q

What is the main hallmark of immune deficiency?

A

Recurrent infections

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3
Q

Primary immune deficiencies are common. True/False?

A

False
Rare! Secondary immune deficiencies are common

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4
Q

Risk of infection ______ as neutrophil count increases

A

Decreases

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5
Q

How can failure to produce neutrophils arise?

A

Failure of stem cell differentiation
Failure of neutrophil maturation

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6
Q

What is Kostmann syndrome?

A

Rare autosomal recessive disorder; congenital neutropenia
Clinically presents as (recurrent) infections 2 weeks after birth

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7
Q

What is leukocyte adhesion deficiency?

A

Rare primary immune deficiency where neutrophils fail to bind to endothelial markers - cannot find where infection is!
Genetic defect in CD18

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8
Q

What is chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Failure of oxidative killing due to inability to generate oxygen free radicals

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9
Q

Name an important related side effect of anti-TNF therapy

A

Reactivation of latent TB

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10
Q

In congenital neutropenia, neutrophil count is normal. True/False?

A

False
Low or absent

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11
Q

Is there pus formation in congenital neutropenia?

A

No

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12
Q

In leukocyte adhesion deficiency, neutrophil count is low during infection. True/False?

A

False
It is high

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13
Q

Is there pus formation in leukocyte adhesion deficiency?

A

No

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14
Q

In chronic granulomatous disease, neutrophil count is normal. True/False?

A

True
Would be raised in the acute stage but not once granuloma has formed

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15
Q

Is there pus formation in chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Yes

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16
Q

Give examples of definitive management of phagocyte deficiencies

A

Bone marrow transplant, gene therapy

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17
Q

What cells do T cells arise from?

A

Haemopoetic stem cells in bone marrow

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18
Q

Defects in stem cell differentiation in haemopoetic cells causes which fatal condition?

A

Reticular dysgenesis

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19
Q

What is Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)?

A

Failure of production of lymphocytes

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20
Q

What are some key clinical phenotypes of SCID?

A

Unwell by 3 months
Diarrhoea
Failure to thrive
Early death

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21
Q

Why does SCID present only after 3 months of age?

A

Maternal IgG protects the infant up to this point

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22
Q

In X-linked SCID, which receptor is mutated?

A

IL2 receptor

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23
Q

What is DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Failed development of the thymus
“Funny looking kid”

24
Q

Which chromosome is deleted in DiG syndrome?

25
In DiG syndrome, the thymus fails to develop. What is the consequence of this?
Low/no T cells can mature (thus low T cell numbers)
26
What is common variable immunodeficiency?
Low IgG, IgA and IgE Leads to recurrent infections, often autoimmune
27
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction do allergic diseases come under?
Type 1
28
Define what is meant by allergy
IgE-mediated response to an external antigen
29
Describe the hygiene hypothesis
Decrease in infectious exposure in early life predisposes to increased sensitivity/predisposition to allergic stimuli
30
Allergic reactions typically take a few hours to develop. True/False?
False Can be from within minutes to a couple hours
31
What is the clinical effect of histamine and other inflammatory mediators in the lung?
Bronchoconstriction Vasodilation Increased vascular permeability Mucosal oedema, mucus secretion Yellow sputum
32
What is urticaria? How long does it last?
Hives/rash Lasts typically 6 hrs
33
Name some elective investigations for identifying allergic disease
Skin prick test Challenge testing
34
What would be measured in an acute anaphylactic episode?
Serum tryptase
35
Which drug class should be discontinued prior to skin prick testing?
Antihistamines for 48hrs
36
Corticosteroids should be stopped before skin prick testing. True/False?
False
37
Why is measuring total IgE not useful in diagnosing allergic disease?
IgE can be raised by lots of things - allergy can also occur in the absence of IgE
38
Which drug supposedly blocks mast cell degranulation?
Sodium chromoglycate
39
What disease type is an example of Type I hypersensitivity?
Allergy
40
Type II hypersensitivity involves direct cell killing through which main mechanism/process?
Complement pathway
41
What mediates Type III hypersensitivity?
Immune complexes
42
Which cell type mediates Type IV hypersensitivity?
T cells
43
What term is given to a collection of activated macrophages and lymphocytes?
Granuloma
44
What is the main danger of live attenuated vaccines?
Can cause disease particularly in immunosuppressed individuals
45
Give examples of live attenuated vaccines
Measles and mumps Chickenpox Rubella Smallpox
46
Which Ig is contained in colostrum?
IgA
47
HLA Class II presents to which T cell?
CD4
48
HLA Class I presents to which T cell?
CD8
49
What are the 2 situations where HLA matching is used to allocate donors?
Stem cell transplants Kidney transplants
50
When is HLA matching not used to allocate donors?
Lung, heart and liver transplants
51
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is acute cellular rejection?
Type IV
52
What is the time-frame over which acute cellular rejection of a transplant takes place?
5-30 days
53
Transplantation of donor tissue between blood groups will always result in hyperacute rejection. True/False?
True
54
Over what time-frame does acute vascular rejection of a transplant occur?
5-30 days
55
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is acute vascular rejection of a transplant?
Type II
56
What is the most major cause of graft loss?
Chronic allograft failure
57
Over what time-frame does chronic allograft failure occur?
Greater than 30 days