Immunologic Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Abnormality in one or more branches of the immune system that renders a person susceptible to diseases normally prevented by an intact immune system

A

Immunodeficiency

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2
Q

Exaggerated or inappropriate immune response

A

Hypersensitivity

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3
Q

Disturbance in the synthesis of immunoglobulins

A

Gammopathy

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4
Q

Inherited immunodeficiency caused by the mutation in the gene of X chromosome 21.3– 22

A

X linked agammaglobulinemia

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5
Q

XLA is detected during what age?

A

Six months

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6
Q

IgE Normal Values

A

0.002 to 2 mg/dl

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7
Q

Other terms for X linked agammaglobulinemia

A

Bruton Type Agammaglobulinemia, X –linked Infantile Agammaglobulinemia, Congenital Agammaglobulinemia

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8
Q

One of its clinical manifestations are serious enteroviral infections like your Coxsackieviruses

A

XLA

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9
Q

In this disease, B lymphocytes are diagnosed to be absent while T cells are within normal values

A

Hypogammaglobulinemia

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10
Q

IgA Normal Values

A

80 to 350mg/dl

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11
Q

IgM Normal Values

A

45 to 250 mg/dl

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12
Q

IgM Normal Values

A

45 to 250 mg/dl

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13
Q

IgD Normal Values

A

0.3 to 0mg/dl

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14
Q

Treatment for Hypogammaglobulinemia includes maintaining IgG at what value?

A

500 mg/dl

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15
Q

Total absence or severe deficiency of IgA

A

SELECTIVE IgA DEFFICIENCY

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16
Q

Total absence or severe deficiency of IgA

A

SELECTIVE IgA DEFFICIENCY

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17
Q

Autosomal recessive inheritance affecting the thymus and endocrine glands

A

Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis

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18
Q

COMBINED B & T CELL IMMUNODEFICIENCY

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome, Ataxia–Telangiectasia, SCID

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19
Q

Congenital failure of the thymus where there is a lack of T cell in chromosome 22

A

Di George’s Syndrome/ Thymic Hypoplasia

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20
Q

Manifestations of Di George’s Syndrome

A
Cardiac abn
Abn Fascies
Thymic Aplasia
Cleft Palate
Hypoparathyroidism/ Hypocalcemia
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21
Q

T cell Immunodeficiencies

A

Di George’s Syndrome, Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis, Hodgkin’s Disease

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22
Q

Characterized by cerebral ataxia, telangiectasis, recurrent infections of the lungs and sinuses and increased incidence of cancer

A

ATAXIA–TELANGIECTASIA

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23
Q

This is accompanied by thrombocytopenia and eczema

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

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24
Q

In Di George’s Syndrome, what is administered for its management?

A

Human Leukocyte Antigen

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25
Q

Neoplasm of the lymphoid tissue

where there is impaired T cell function

A

Hodgkin’s Disease

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26
Q

One of hallmark signs of Ataxia Telangiectasia where there is dilated blood vessels which usually appears in the first 4 years of life

A

Telangiectasia

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27
Q

Clinical manifestations include nails that are thickened, fragmented, discolored and hyperkeratotic

A

Chronic Mucocutaneous Candidiasis

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28
Q

One of hallmark signs of Ataxia Telangiectasia where there is uncoordinated muscle movement

A

Ataxia

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29
Q

Characterized by your lymphoid aplasia and thymic dysplasia

A

SCID

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30
Q

PHAGOCYTIC CELL DISORDERS

A

Hyperimmunoglobulinemia, Chronic Granulomatous Dse

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31
Q

Clinical features include deep, painful mouth ulcers, gingivitis, stomatitis & cellulitis

A

Hyperimmunoglobulinemia

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32
Q

Type of Phagocytic Cell Disorder where your phagocytes do not make hydrogen peroxide which is needed to kill bacteria & molds

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

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33
Q

A type of severe combined immune deficiency where affected children have lymphopenia and thymus is always hypoplastic or absent

A

SWISS TYPE AGAMMAGLOBULINEMIA

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34
Q

Collection of autoimmune diseases in which the human immune system becomes hyperactive and attacks normal, healthy tissues

A

LUPUS ERTYHEMATOSUS

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35
Q

WBC cannot produce an inflammatory response to the skin infections resulting in deep seated abscesses that lack the classic signs and symptoms of inflammation

A

Hyperimmunoglobulinemia

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36
Q

Gammopathy Diseases

A

Macroglubinemia, Hodgkin’s, Myeloma

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37
Q

Malignant disease of the most mature form of B lymphocyte, the plasma cell

A

MM

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38
Q

Characterized by orderly spread of disease from one lymph node grp to another and by the devt of systemic symptoms with advanced disease

A

HODGKIN’S LYMPHOMA

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39
Q

Characterized by  Hyper viscosity syndrome

A

MACROGLOBULINEMIA

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40
Q

Condition in which cold temperature/ strong emotion cause blood vessel spasm that block blood flow to our fingers, toes, nose, ears; evident cyanosis

A

Raynaud’s Phenomenon

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41
Q

Diagnostic test that measures the pattern and amount of autoantibody which can attack the body’s tissues as if they were foreign material

A

Antinuclear Antibodies/ ANA or ANF

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42
Q

This medication is effective for managing cutaneous, and musculoskeletal and mild features of SLE

A

Antimalarial Drug e.g.: Hydroxychloroquine (Planequil)

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43
Q

Collecting plasma which is frozen to preserve it for variety of use

A

Plasmapheresis

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44
Q

CLASSIFICATIONS OF LUPUS

A

Discoid
Drug Induced
Neonatal
Systemic

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45
Q

Lupus Erythematosus where there is chronic skin condition of sores with inflammation and scarring

A

Discoid

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46
Q

Medications that may trigger your Drug Induced LE

A

hydralazine , procainamide, isoniazid, phenothiazine, Penicillin (antibiotic)

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47
Q

Autoimmune disorder, non-contagious, chronic, progressive, inflammatory connective tissue disorder that causes major body and system failure

A

SLE

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48
Q

Benign and self-limited lupus

A

Neonatal LE

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49
Q

Cause is unknown but this is characterized by spontaneous remission (state of absence of the manifestations of disease) and exacerbation

A

SLE

50
Q

Diagnostic criteria of SLE

A

Serositis
Oral Ulcers
Arthritis
Photosensitivity

51
Q

Overabundance of this protein is due to increased proliferation of the plasma cells

A

Monoclonal Paraprotein/ M protein

52
Q

Signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia

A

constipation, thirst, altered mental status, dehydration, confusion and coma

53
Q

Classic Triad for multiple myeloma

A

Plasmacytosis, Lytic Bone lesion (Plasmacytomas), M. protein or Bence Jones Protein

54
Q

Period between onset of HIV infection and appearance of detectable antibodies to the virus

A

Window period

55
Q

Most common secondary immunodeficiency

A

AIDS

56
Q

Point at w/c an infected person converts to from being negative for the presence of HIV antibodies in the blood to being positive

A

Seroconversion

57
Q

Time after infection and before seroconversion

A

Window Period

58
Q

3 Phases of AIDS

A

Primary infection, Latency, Overt

59
Q

Opportunistic infection where the alveoli become filled w foamy, protein rich fluid that impairs gas exchange

A

Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)

60
Q

What can of gait is presented to patients with AIDS dementia complex?

A

Unsteady Gait

61
Q

Opportunistic infection where there is a malignancy of the endothelial cells that line small blood vessel

A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma

62
Q

CD4 count of an immunosuppressed immune system

A

500- 200 cells/mm3

63
Q

What immunizations are given for a child with AIDS?

A

ensure administration of pneumococcal and influenza vaccines

64
Q

What immunization is not allowed for a child with AIDS?

A

Varicella

65
Q

CD4 count of a competent immune system

A

650-12000 cells/mm3

66
Q

Newer drug for AIDS?

A

Trogarzo

67
Q

This medication is recommended for prevention of maternal fetal HIV transmission

A

Zidovudine (AZT)

68
Q

Manifestations for this phase are consistent generalized lymph adenopathy for 3 months, at two different locations

A

Latency/ Chronic Asymptomatic

69
Q

When is Zidovudine administered?

A

AFTER 14 WEEKS AOG with PO medicine; IVTT DURING LABOR; and to the NEONATE post birth for SIX WEEKS

70
Q

Type of HIV that is responsible for most virus worldwide

A

HIV1

71
Q

This phase in AIDS is the Initial response to HIV invasion

A

Primary Infection/ Early Acute Phase

72
Q

At what year was AIDS internationally accepted?

A

1986

73
Q

AIDS defining characteristic in terms of Philippine setting

A

Tuberculosis

74
Q

AIDS defining characteristic in the United States

A

Pneumonia

75
Q

CD4 count of a person with AIDS

A

<200

76
Q

What is the HIV wasting diagnostic criteria?

A

involuntary weight loss exceeding 10% of baseline body weight

77
Q

Four types of hypersensitivity

A

Type I: IgE mediated
Type II: Cytotoxic
Type III: Immune Complex
Type IV: Delayed

78
Q

Primary Cellular Component of Type 1 Hypersensitivity

A

Mast cells, basophils

79
Q

Type 1 Hypersensitivity is amplified by what blood cells?

A

Platelets, Neutrophils, Eosinophils

80
Q

Most severe form of type 1 hypersensitivity

A

Anaphylaxis

81
Q

Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis is an FDA approved HIV prevention regimen which include taking what medications daily?

A

Truvada

82
Q

This type of hypersensitivity is when Ag-Ab reaction activates the complement system

A

TYPE II CYTOTOXIC HYPERSENSITIVITY

83
Q

Primary cellular component of cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction

A

Ig M, Ig G, Complement System

84
Q

This type of Type 1 Hypersensitivity is usually caused by food allergen; eggs, fish, nuts, seafoods, meds

A

Urticaria

85
Q

Mediated by the formation of insoluble Ag-Ab complex that activates complement

A

TYPE III IMMUNE COMPLEX MEDIATED HYPERSENSITIVITY

86
Q

Massive fetal red blood cell destruction

A

Hydrops fetalis

87
Q

This type of hypersensitivity is characterized by pruritic lesions with pale, pink wheal on an erythematous background

A

Urticaria

88
Q

Signs and symptoms of this hypersensitivity includes itching, apprehension, anasarca, circumoral edema, wheezing, dyspnea, signs of vascular collapse of shock

A

Anaphylaxis

89
Q

Medications given to manage anaphylaxis

A

Epinephrine (1:1000), Benadryl, Hydrocortisone

90
Q

Less severe form type 1 that reacts to pollen, feathers, fungal spores, house dust but is not in contact w/ allergen

A

Atopic Allergy

91
Q

Common forms of Atopic Allergy

A

Hay fever, atopic dermatitis, asthma

92
Q

Form of urticaria but involves subcutaneous tissue rather than skin

A

Angioedema

93
Q

Primary cellular component of type III Immune Complex Mediated Hypersensitivity

A
  • IgG
  • IgM
  • IgA
  • Complements
  • Neutrophils
94
Q

Develops 1-3 weeks after administration of large amounts of foreign serum (horse antitetanus toxin)

A

SERUM SICKNESS

95
Q

This occurs when the system mistakenly identifies a normal constituent of the body

A

TYPE II CYTOTOXIC HYPERSENSITIVITY

96
Q

Disorders associated with your type 2 hypersensitivity

A

Myasthenia Gravis, Goodpasture Syndrome, Hemolytic anemia

97
Q

Rheumatic disease classifications

A

Monoarticular, polyarticular or inflammatory/ non inflammatory

98
Q

Most potent drug given to patients with RA

A

Methotrexate

99
Q

Two common diseases related with Delayed Hypersensitivity

A

SJS, Lyell’s syndrome/ Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

100
Q

Types of transplant rejection

A

Hyperacute, acute, chronic

101
Q

Type of hypersensitivity that develops 24 to 72 hours after exposure to antigens

A

TYPE IV DELAYED HYPERSENSITIVITY

102
Q

Primary components of type IV delayed hypersensitivity

A
  • T-lymphocytes

* Macrophages

103
Q

Fusing of the bones together

A

Ankylosis

104
Q

This drug interferes with purine metabolism, leading to the release of adenosine, a potent anti-inflammatory compound. This is why effect can be seen in 1 month right away.

A

Methotrexate

105
Q

Systemic inflammatory disease that affects 0.3% to 1.5% of the population, with women affected two to three times more frequently than men

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

106
Q

Peak age for RA

A

Peak: 40‐ 60 years old

107
Q

Age of onset for RA

A

30‐ 50 years old

108
Q

Aerious, potentially life-threatening viral infection caused by Coronaviridae family. Began in the Guangdong province of southern China. It is characterized by a phase of cytokine storms with various chemokines and cytokines being elevated.

A

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)

109
Q

Emergency prophylaxis that neutralizes virus activity in vitro and in vivo for patients with SARS

A

Monoclonal antibodies

110
Q

Referred to as swine flu, is a highly contagious respiratory disease in pigs that can be transmitted to humans.

A

H1N1

111
Q

Etiologic Agent of H1N1

A

Influenza A virus subtype H1N1

112
Q

Viral respiratory illness and was reported in Saudi Arabia in 2012 and has spread to several Other countries including the United States. Most people infected with this disease developed severe acute respiratory illness.

A

Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS-COV)

113
Q

Etiologic Agent for MERS-COV

A

MERS-Coronavirus

114
Q

Mode of Transmission of MERS-COV

A

Close contact with infected person

115
Q

MERS-COV incubation period

A

5 to 6 days, but can range from 2 to 14 days

116
Q

Rare and deadly disease caused by infection with one of the its viruses strains. It can cause disease in humans and nonhuman primates.

A

Ebola Virus

117
Q

Incubation Period for Ebola

A

2 to 21 days after exposure to Ebola, but the average is 8 to 10 days.

118
Q

Incubation Period for H1N1

A

1 to 4 days with an average of 2 days up to 7 days

119
Q

A1 -adrenergic receptor blocker. Relaxes bladder sphincter.

A

Terazosin (Hytrin)

120
Q

First US FDA approved vaccine last December 2019 for EBOLA

A

ERVEBO

121
Q

Common etiologic pathogens involved in PID

A
  • N. gonorrhoeae

* Chlamydia

122
Q

This management is done to relax smooth muscle of the bladder neck and prostate for patients with BPH

A

Balloon dilation