IMMUNO SERO Flashcards
1
Q
Pasteurization / Father of Microbiology / attenuated chicken cholera / anthrax n rabbies vaccines
A
Louis Pasteur
2
Q
Cross immunity / Smallpox vaccination
A
Edward Jenner
3
Q
Phagocytosis / Cellular Theory of Immunity
A
Elie Metchnikoff
4
Q
Complement / Nobel Prize Complement (1919)
A
Jules Bordet
5
Q
Precipitins. Who.
A
Robert Kaus
6
Q
Humoral Theory of Immunity
A
Emil Adolf Von Behring
7
Q
Side Chain Theory / coined complement
A
Paul Ehrlich
8
Q
Delayed type hypersensitivity / Type IV
A
Robert Koch
9
Q
Antibody Diversity (Genetic principles underlying generation of AB with diff specificities)
A
Susumo Tonegawa
10
Q
First Monoclonal Ab ( Monoclonal Ab = from Mouse : Polyclonal Ab = Rabbit )
A
Georges Kohler / Cesar Milstein
11
Q
Radioimmunoassay (Late 1950s / 1959)
A
Rosalyn Yalow & Berson
12
Q
Clonal Selection Theory (Most accepted Theory of Antibody)
A
Frank Macfarlane Burnet / Niels Jerne
13
Q
Immunologic Tolerance
A
Frank Macfarlane Burnet / Peter Medawar
14
Q
Widely accepted Cell Theory
A
Ab formation Theory
15
Q
Anaphylaxis
A
Paul Portier / Charles Robert Richet
16
Q
Basic Structure of Immunoglobulins
A
Gerald Edelman / Rodney Porter
17
Q
HIV ( 1983 / 1984 )
A
Francoise Barre-Sinoussi / Luc Motagnier
18
Q
MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex)
A
George Snell / Jean Dausset / Baruj Benaceraf
19
Q
Typhoid Mary
A
Mary Mallon
20
Q
Coined back syphilis to Europe
A
Christopher Columbus
21
Q
2 Polio Vaccines
A
Salk Vaccine - Dead poliovirus (injected less powerful)
Sabin Vaccine - Live attenuated poliovirus (oral more powerful)
22
Q
Variolation / Insufflation
A
Inhaling of powder from small pox scabs
23
Q
Innate / Natural / Non - Specific Immunity
1st line of defense
A
- Physical
- Chemical (Lysozymes)
- Normal Flora (Competes with pathogens)
- Physiological Process (Sneezing, Coughing, etc.)
- Miscellaneous (Body temp, Oxygen, etc.)
24
Q
Innate / Natural / Non - Specific Immunity
2nd line of defense
A
- Cellular Components (APCs, WBCs, APRs, Mast Cells, NK Cells)
- Humoral Components (Cytokines, Inflammation)
25
3 APCs
1. Dendritic Cells (Main function to phagocyte Ag and present it to T helper cells, Rich in MHC Class 2)
2. Macrophages (from monocytes)
3. B Cells MHC Class 2
26
Macrophage in Liver
Kupffer cells
27
Macrophage in Brain
Microglial cells
28
Macrophage in Connective Tissue
Histocytes
29
Macrophage in Lungs
Alveolar cells
30
Macrophage in Kidneys
Mesangial cells
31
Macrophage in Bones
Osteoclast
32
Macrophage in Joints
Synovial A cells
33
Macrophage in Spleen
Littoral cells
34
Macrophage in Placenta
Hoffbauer cells
35
Phagocytosis steps
AID / AEK
Adhesion / Attachment
Ingestion / Engulfment
Digestion / Killing
36
Direct Interaction ( Adhesion ) is via
Via pattern recognition Receptors/Primitive Pattern Recognition Receptors
37
Indirect Interaction is via
Via Opsonization
38
2 types of Digestion / Killing
Oxygen Dependent Mechanism - NADPH oxidase forms O2 radical (superoxide)
Oxygen Independent Mechanism -
39
Disease associated with defective Digestion / Killing
CGD (Chronic Granulomatous Disease)
40
To whom does Lactoferrin bind
Iron
41
Best Opsonin
Complement C3B
42
CRP (C-Reactive Protein)
- originally thought to be an antibody to the c-polysaccharide of pneumococci
- Most widely used indicator of acute inflammation (x1000)
43
Serum Amyloid A is associated with
associated with HDL cholesterol
44
APRs
Soluble factors that enhance phagocytosis
45
Natural Killer Cells aka as
And characterized by
AKA Large Granular Lymphocytes / Null Cells / Kiss of Death
- Characterized by CD16 & CD56
46
How many percent NK Cells are there in the Circulation
10 %
47
It orchestrates both innate and adaptive immunity response to infection
Cytokines
48
IFN alpha major producer
NK cells / Null cells
49
IFN beta major producer
Fibroblast / Epithelial cells
50
Type II IFN major producer
T cells
51
It is the principal mediator responding to LPS in Gram Negative bacteria
Tumor Necrosis Factor
52
TNF - alpha aka
Cachectin
53
TNF beta aka
Lymphotoxin
54
Sentinel Cells
Macrophage, Dendritic Cells, Mast Cells
55
Overall reaction of body to injury due to infectious agent
Inflammation
56
Rubor
Redness
57
Calor
Heat
58
Tumor
Swelling
59
Dolor
Pain
60
Functio Laesa
Loss of Function
61
These induce fever because they increase the hypothalamic set point
IL I (Interleukin 1), TNF (tumor necrosis factor), Prostaglandins, IL 6 (interleukin 6)
62
The cells seen in Acute Inflammation
Mainly neutrophils / polymorphonuclears
63
The cells seen in Chronic Inflammation
Predominantly : Monocytes/Macrophages and lymphocytes
If no predominant : w/ Neutrophils
64
Acute inflammation Onset | Clinical Manifestation (symptoms)
Fast | Prominent (mas halata)
65
Chronic inflammation Onset | Clinical Manifestation (symptoms)
Slow | Less Prominent
66
Complement protein Heaviest| Lightest
C1q | C9
67
Complement protein Most abundant | Least abundant
C3 | Factor D
68
Complement Inactivation | Reinactivation
56° C for 30 min | 56° C for 10 min (if specimen was left for ≥ 4 hrs)
69
Stabilizes C3 convertase
Properdin / other name of Alternative pathway
70
Where does complement proteins bind
FC portion / constant domain of Heavy chain molecule in Ab
71
3 Actions of Anaphylatoxins
1. Increased vascular permeability
2. Contraction of smooth muscles
3. Release histamines from basophils
72
Strongest | Weakest Anaphylatoxin
C5a | C4a
73
Both are Anaphylatoxins and Chemotaxins
C5a & C3a (if no both choices then just C5a)
74
It has a anaphylatoxin-like kinin activity
C2b
75
What activates Alternative pathway
Bacteria, Fungi, Virus, Venom, some parasites
76
C3 convertase
C3bBb
77
C5 convertase
C3bBbbP (P for properdin)
78
Deficiency of C1INH results to
HANE (Hereditary Angioedema)
79
Regulates C3 convertase by promoting dissociation of C2a from C4b and Bb from C3b
DAF (CD55)
80
Deficiency of C5 to C8 associated with
Neisseria infections
81
Deficiency of DAF (CD 55) or MIRL or HRF or Protectin
Acquired PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria)
82
2 Types of RID
Mancini Method & Fahey Mckelvin Method
83
Measures concentration according to the amount of LIGHT SCATTERED by a solution containing a reagent antibody and a measured patient sample
Nephelometry
84
Measures the amount of px serum required to lyse 50 percent of a standardized concentration of Ab-sensitized sheep erythrocytes
CH50 (Hemolytic Titration Assay)
85
Solid-phase IGM attached to the walls of microtiter plates - when a substrate is added (chromagen) color change will be evident if C9 is present
ELISA
86
Assay for the three pathways
Reagent Strip
87
In Classical / Alternative / MBL pathway, what is the strip coated with
IgM / lipopolysaccharide /Mannose
88
Detects non complement binding antibodies
Rice Test
89
Active Immunity: Source | Agent | Length | Effectiveness | Undesirable effect
HOST | Ag | Longer/Life long| More effective in adults | Infection
90
Passive Immunity: Source | Agent | Length | Effectiveness | Undesirable effect
Another source | Ab | Transient/Temporary | More effective in newborns/elders |
91
Birds of Fabricius similar to appendix of humans
Bone Marrow
92
Organ found near the heart and still capable of producing T lymphocytes even on adults but diminished rate
Thymus
93
Periarterial sheath / PALS contains
T Cells
94
Follicular area contains
B cells
95
Marginal Zone contains
Dendritic Cells, Macrophage, CD4, T cells, & B cells
96
Red Pulp
Destruction of old RBC
97
White Pulp
contains lymphoid tissue (PALS , Marginal Zone, Follicular area)
98
Cortex contains
B cells (Bortex)
99
Paracortex contains
T cells (Patacortex)
100
Medulla contains
Macrophages (MM)
101
Peyer's patches are MALT in
intestine (Ileum - predominant & jejunum)
102
The secondary lymphoid organ found in the oral cavity
Tonsils
103
Surface antibodies
IgM & IgD Ab
104
TCR surface marker
CD3
1985-1987 genes discovered
1983 Ellis Reinherz structure
105
MHC class II | helper / inducer cells | 2/3 in circulation
CD4+ T Cells
106
MHC class I | cytotoxic / suppressor cells | 1/3 in circulation
CD8+ cells
107
Marked preference on HIV - I
CD4+
108
CD4 : CD8 ratio in normal
2:1
109
CD4 : CD8 ratio in AIDS
< 0.5 : 1
110
Where is Heavy chain coded?
chromosome 14
111
Where is Light chain coded?
chromosome 2 & 22
112
Immature B cell expresses
IgM on surface
MHC class II
113
Mature B cell expresses
IgD and IgM
It is also known as Resting/Naive cell
114
Activation of B cell occurs where
Secondary lymphoid organ e.g. germinal center of the secondary follicle of lymph node
115
Has basophilic cytoplasm characterized with perinuclear hof
Plasma Cells
116
What are the components of Flow Cytometer
Fluidics system, laser, photodetectors, computer
117
Co receptor for MHC class II ; receptor for HIV
CD4
118
Co receptor for MHC class I
CD8
119
marker for pre - B CALLA (Common Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia Antigen)
CD10
120
Basis of ADCC (Antibody Dependence Cell Cytotoxicity) : marker for NK cells
CD16
121
Phytohemagglutinin (PHA) and concanavalin A (Con A)
T cells proliferation/blastogenesis
122
pokeweed mitogen & staphylococcal protein A
B cells proliferation
123
Microscope used when studying viability of cells
Phase Contrast Microscope
124
Antigenic determinant
Epitope
125
Antibody determinant
Paratope
126
Antigenic characteristic of Antibody-variable region
Idiotype
127
What holds the 2 heavy chains in the Fc portion
Hinge region
128
Most abundant Immunoglobulin
IgG
129
Heaviest Immunoglobulin
IgM
130
Lightest Immunoglobulin
IgG
131
Which are the Gammaglobulins
IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE
132
What holds the Pentameric / Dimeric Structure of IgM and IgA respectively?
J chain
133
What type of IgA is seen in mucosa?
Dimeric form
134
In breast milk what Immunoglobulins are found?
IgG and IgA (Majority)
135
Immunoglobulins for Placental Transfer
IgG
136
Immunoglobulin stable at 56C
IgG, IgM, IgA
137
Immunoglobulin for complement fixation
IgG, igM
138
Agglutination strength Immunoglobulin
IgM > IgG > IgA
139
Precipitation Immunoglobulin
IgG > IgM > IgA
140
Opsonization of Immunoglobulin
IgM > IgG
141
Clinically significant Immunoglobulin
IgG
142
Resets the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center leading to increased body temperature (fever)
IL-1 if no then IL-6 TNF PG
143
Formerly known as T cell growth factor
IL-2
144
Formerly known as pan-hematopoietin / multicolony-stimulating factor
IL-3
145
Isotype switching to Ig1 and IgE
IL-4
146
Eosinophil activation differentiation
IL-5 (5th letter E)
147
Activated "Respiratory/Oxidative burst"
IL-8
148
Interleukin that inhibits... supress... downregulate...
IL-10
149
T or F All Immunogens are Antigens
True
150
T or F All Antigens are Immunogens
False (not all antigens can produce an immune response)
151
Molecular Weight needed to be recognized by Immune system
At least 10,000 Daltons
152
What are the best immunogens?
Proteins and polysaccharides
153
The absolute requirement for T cell activation in an immune response
Antigen Presentation in association with MHC
154
Referred as Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) systems in humans
MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex)
155
Class I molecules of MHC
MHC A, B, C
156
Class II molecules of MHC
MHC D
157
Class III molecules of MHC
complement proteins and cytokines such as TNF
158
Class I presents to
CD8+ cells
159
Class II presents to
CD4+ cells
160
Ankylosing Spondylitis associated with what HLA
B27 (100x risk)
161
Behcet's Disease associated with what HLA
B5
162
Type 1 Diabetes associated with what HLA
DR3
163
Rheumatoid Arthritis associated with what HLA
DR4
164
Most immunogenic organ
Bone Marrow > Skin > Islet of Langerhans
165
Least Immunogenic organ
Cornea
166
Tissue from him/herself
Autograft
167
Tissue from genetically identical individual (identical twins)
Syngraft/Isograft
168
Tissue from individuals of same species
Allograft
169
Tissue from different species
Xenograft
170
Most common graft
Allograft
171
Most common organ transplant
Kidney
172
Primary obstacle on Transplant
Rejection
173
Hyperacute graft rejection predominant mechanism
Humoral mediated ( the only humoral mediated compared to accelerated, acute, chronic graft rejection mechanism)
174
Hyperacute graft rejection cause
Antibodies to donor antigens
175
Most common GVHD
Bone marrow transplant
176
CD8 function
co receptor for MHC Class I
177
Marker for pre-B CALLA
CD10
178
Low affinity for FC receptor, mediates phagocytosis and ADCC
CD16
179
Cell type are different forms on all hematopoietic cells
CD45R
180
Refers to the extent to which neoplastic parenchymal cells resemble normal parenchymal cells
Differentiation
181
a mass protruding but has not yet reached the basement membrane
carcinoma in situ
182
Next to the development of metastases, it is the most reliable feature that differentiates cancer to benign tumor
Invasiveness
183
A tumor that does not invade its surroundings
Benign Tumor
184
A tumor that continues to grow and can invade its surroundings and eventually produce death
Malignant Tumor
185
A tumor with normal tissue or organ components that are inappropriate to surrounding tissues
Teratomas
186
Most reliable feature that differentiates Malignant or Benign
Metastases
187
Oma are benign except for
Sarcoma, Melanoma Lymphoma, Immature teratoma, Carcinoma, Hepatoma, Seminoma
188
Central regulator of the growth in normal cells that code for proteins involved in growth and repair in the body
Proto Oncogene
189
causes overexpression of growth promoting proteins resulting in hypercellular proliferation and tumorigenesis
Oncogene
190
Antigens that are expressed in developing fetus and in rapidly dividing tissue but are absent in normal adult tissue
Oncofetal Antigens ex. AFB
191
Cell Surface Tumor marker for Breast Cancer
ER/PR
192
Immunoglobulin tumor marker for Multiple myeloma
Bence Jones Protein in form of IgG
193
What spikes in the Monoclonal gammopathy in Multiple myeloma
IgG
194
What spikes in the Monoclonal gammopathy in Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
IgM
195
NMP-22 / CFHrp / BTA are tumor markers for
Bladder Cancer
196
CEA (Carcinoembryonic Antigen) is a tumor marker for
Colorectal Cancer
197
CA15-3 is a tumor marker for
Breast Cancer
198
CA19-9 is a tumor marker for
Pancreatic Cancer
199
Calcitonin is a tumor marker for Medullary
Thyroid Cancer
200
AMS/LPS is a tumor marker for
Pancreatic Cancer
201
PSA is a tumor marker for
Prostate Cancer
202
Predictive marker for response to Herceptin/Trastuzumab therapy
HER-2/neu
203
A tumor marker for Melanoma
HMB - 45 (Human Melanoma black 45)
204
Cathepsin - D is a tumor marker for
Breast Cancer
205
Cytokeratin Fragment (CYFRA) a tumor marker for
Breast Cancer
206
Autoimmune diseases are more common on
Females
207
The only 2 autoimmune diseases that are more common on Males than Females
Goodpasture's Syndrome & Ankylosing spondylitis
208
ANAs (Antinuclear Antibodies) are immunoglobulins that include
IgG, IgA, and IgM
209
Detection of ANA
Using FANA (Fluorescent Antinuclear Antibody) - most widely used and accepted test
210
Principle of ANA Detection is
Indirect Immunofluorescence Assay
211
Cells used in FANA
Mouse Kidney, HEp-2 cells, and HeLa cells
212
HeLa stands for and from what cells
Henrietta Lacks from cervical cancer cells, oldest and most commonly used cell line.
213
Pattern of DsDNA
Homogenous / Solid / Diffuse and PERIPHERAL pattern
214
This pattern results from antibodies to DNA
Peripheral / Ring / Membranous
215
Pattern of Anti-Sm
Speckled / Mottled / Pepper dot
216
SS-A/Ro and SS-B/La are associated with what disease
Neonatal lupus
217
DiGeorge syndrome symptoms
- Faulty development of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches during embryogenesis
- Aplasia or hypoplasia of thymus and parathyroid gland
-Associated with microsomal deletion on chromosome 22
- Abnormally high CD4+/CD8+ ratio is present because of a decrease in CD8 + cells
218
Causes of DiGeorge syndrome
CATCH n chromosome 22
219
Acts as indicator cells in the demonstration of antigen and antibody reactions in vitro
Red Cell Suspension
220
Between how many % does the cell suspension provide optimum antigen concentration for the tube method for red blood cell typing
2-5%
221
Purpose of washing the red cells
To remove the unwanted plasma proteins including Ab that might interfere in the reactions
222
RCS formula
% RCS = (Amount of packed rbc /Total Volume) 100
- Total volume = Amount of washed PRBC + Amount of NSS to be added
223
Dilution formula
(1/Dilution) = (Amount of solute/Total Volume)
224
This is in which all dilutions, including or following the first one, are the same
Dilution Series
225
Involves combining soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce insoluble complexes that are visible
Precipitation
226
A special type of precipitation but is observed as a fleecy mass when a suspension of Ag and Ab is agitated
Flocculation
227
Factors affecting precipitation
- Temp ( more complete precipitation at 0-4 degC, higher temp more rapid precipitation )
- Ph ( Most reactions neutral pH or 6-7.5 )
- Ionic strength of medium ( reduced Ionic strength = Increased Precipitation)
228
Force of attraction that exists between a **single Fab site on an antibody** molecule and single epitope or determinant site on corresponding **antigen**
Afinity
229
**Sum of all the attractive forces** between an antigen and an antibody
Avidity
230
Antibodies react with antigens that are structurally similar to the original antigen that induced antibody production
Cross-Reactivity
231
Proteins that precipitate or gel when cooled to **0 degC** and dissolve when heated
Cryoglobulin
232
Zone with **excess Antibody** in the precipitation curve
Prozone (AbPro)
233
Zone with **excess Antigen** in the Precipitation curve
Postzone (AgPost)
234
Zone with **optimum precipitation** in the Precipitation curve
Zone of Equivalence
235
Measure of **cloudiness** of a solution
Turbidimetry
236
Measure of **light scatter** at a particular angle
Nephelometry (angles is usually 10-90 degrees)
237
It is the **most commonly used gel** because it has no charge compared to other agars that are negatively charged
Agarose gel
238
The **R**ocket **C**rossed the **C**ounter **C**lassicaly
Single Diffusion Single Dimension 1 | 1 | Rocket IE by Laurell
Single Diffusion Double Dimension 1 | 2 | Crossed IE by Ressler
Double Diffusion Single Dimension 2 | 1 | Counter Current IE
Double Diffusion Double Dimension 2 | 2 | Classic IE by Grabar & Williams
239
Step in agglutination where **Ab attaches to Ag**
Sensitization
240
The procedure where physical conditions are **purposedly manipulated to break the Ag-Ab complex** with subsequent release of Ab into the surrounding medium.
Elution
241
Establishment of cross-links between sensitized particles and antibodies resulting in **aggregation**
Lattice Formation
242
A technique used to enhance agglutination
AHG testing
242
A type of agglutination reaction where antigens are **found naturally on the surface of the particle**
Direct agglutination
243
A type of agglutination where antigens have been affixated/attached to a carrier/inert particle and agglutination occurs if patient **antibody is present**
Indirect/Passive Agglutination
244
A type of agglutination where antigens have been affixated/attached to a carrier/inert particle and agglutination occurs if patient **antigen is present** ex. CRP
Reverse Passive Agglutination
245
It **uses bacteria ( usually S. aureus ) **as the inert particle to which antibody is attached
Coagglutination
246
It is based o competition bet particulate and soluble antigens for limited combiing sites, and a lack of agglutination is positive reaction
Agglutination Inhibition
247
It detects **non-agglutinating antibody** by means of coupling with a second antibody
Coomb's Test
248
Test for *in vivo* coating of patient's rbc with anti IgG and/or complement
Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)
249
Source of the polyspecific anti-human globulin
Rabbits
249
What does the polyspecific anti-human globulin (AHG) contain?
anti-IgG and anti-C3/C3d
250
Source of monoclonal antibodies/Monospecific AHG
Mouse
251
Color of Coomb's reagent
Green
252
Inert particle in SPIA (Solid Particle Immunoassay)
Inorganic Colloidal Gold
253
Inert particle in DIA (Disperese Dye Immunoassay)
Organic Colloidal Dye
254
Inert particle in IMPACT (Immunoassay by Particle Counting)
Latex Particle
255
Correction for Autoagglutination
Use a control with saline and no antibody present. If control is postive then invalidate it.
256
Immunoassays where Ag-Ab complexes do not go beyond the first phase
Labeled Immunoasssays
257
It uses fluorochromes that absorb light at shorter wavelegnth and emit light waves at a visibile spectrum/longer wavelengths
Fluorescence Immunoassays
258
Most common enzyme labels
Horse Radish peroxidase
259
An immunoassay where antigen is already fixed into a slide then fluorescent ab is added
Direct ImmunoFluorescence Assay
260
An immunoassay where antigen is fixed on slide and patient serum ab is added then fluorescent ahg is added
Indirect Immunofluorescence Assay
261
An immunoassay where antigen is fixed to a slide then flooded with patient serum then a labeled ab is added **(aka blocking test)**
Inhibition Immunofluorescence Assay
262
The assay that uses **radioactive labes/isotopes**
Radioimmunoassay
263
In RIA where do we **plot the ratio** of bound to free ab to analyte concentration and is commonly used to evaluate ab performance
Scatchard plot
264
Instrument that measure the radioactivity of **Iodine Isotope** that emits **Gama**
Solid/Crystal Scintillation counter
265
Instrument that measure the radioactivity of **Tritium** that emits **Beta**
Liquid Scintillation counter
266
Immunoassay that uses **enzymes** as labels
Enzyme Immunoassay
267
The Immunoassay where **separation/washing is not necessary** where its enzyme activty is **directly proportional** to concentration of antigen
EMIT (Enzyme multiplied Immunoassay Technique)
268
The Immunoassay where **separation/washing is necessary** where its enzyme activty is **indirectly proportional** to concentration of antigen
ELISA
269
Home based 9hCG pregnancy test principle
Enzyme Immunoassay /Immunochromatography
270
Stage of syphilipis where there is a **Hard chancre which is painless and firm** and what Microscope is used
Primary Stage of Syphilis , Darkfield Microscope
271
It is the **most contagious stage** of Syphilis
Secondary Stage, Darkfield Microscope
272
Condylomata lata
Syphilis
273
Condylomata acuminta
HPV / Genital Wart
274
Stage of Syphilis where there is lack of clinical symptoms
Latent stage
275
Stage of Syphilis where there are Gummas, Neurosyphilis, & Cardiovascular disease
Tertiary stage
276
is a bacterial STD caused by Haemophilus ducreyi and is a **painful necrotizing genital ulcers**
Chancroid
277
Spirochetes do not appeart to survive in units of citrated blood at 4deg C (39deg F) for longer than _____ hrs
72 hrs
278
Hutchinson's Triad
Deafness, Keratitis, and notched teeth
279
Also known as cardiolipin
Wasserman Antigen
280
Antigens used in Syphilis Serology
Wasserman Antigen & Treponemal Antigen
281
Also known as Raegin/Anti-cardiolipin
Non-treponemal Antibody
282
Microscope used for detection of Syphilis
Darkfield Microscope
283
Screening test for Syphilis
Non-treponemal Tests
284
Confirmatory test for Syphilis
Treponemal Tests
285
Examine flocculation ___ in VDRL under what objective
Microscopically | LPO (100x)
286
In RPR flucculation is examined _______
Macroscopically
287
Routine screening test for Syphilis
RPR
288
Neurosyphilis routine screening test
VDRL
289
Nature of Wasserman antibodies
IgG / IgM
290
Most commonly used Treponemal Test in BB
RPR
291
Carrier / Inert particle for TPHA and HATTS
Turkey Erythrocytes
292
# MHA
Carrier / Inert particle for TPHA and HATTS
Sheep Erythrocytes
293
Principle of ASO (Antistreptolysin O) and its positive test is
Neutralization | No hemolysis
294
Unit used in ASO when the WHO international standard is used
international units
294
Unit used in ASO when the streptolysin reagent standard is used
Todd units
295
Titer seen in normal individual
1:10
295
Smallest known free living microorganism
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
296
AKA Walking pneumonia / atypical pneumoniae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
297
Principle of Tiphi Dot
Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA)
298
A wbc engulfed by another wbc or a lymphocyte engulfed by a neutrophil
LE Cell
299
It is for Helicobacter pylori urease detection, and its positive reaction in _____ in color
Clotest | hot pink
299
Most common autoimmune disease
Rheumatoid Arthritis
299
Lead marker for detection of RA because it is more specific than RF
Anti-CCP (Cyclic Citrullinated Particles)
300
Felty's Syndrome is associated with
SANTA (Splenomegaly, Anemia, Neutropenia, Thrombocytopenia, Arthritis)
300
Principle for detecting RA (Rheumatoid Arthritis) factor
Passive Agglutination
301
Hepatitis that is the only DNA
Hepa B (HBV)
302
Type of Hepatits which transmission is through Fecal Oral and the rest are Parenteral
Hepa A and E (HAV & HEV)
302
Aka Australian antigen
HBV
303
Most commonly transfused Heptatis virus prior to screening in 1990s
Hepa C (HCV)
304
Traditional confirmatory test for HCV
RIBA (Recombinant Immunoblot Assay)
304
HCV RNA aka
viral load
304
Surrogate test for HCV
ALT/SGPT (Increased) | Anti-HBc (Positive)
304
RA 11166
if person is pregnant or engaged with sexual behavior even 11 years old, consent to HIV testing shall be obtained from child w/o needing consent from parent or guardian as long as they are mentally competent
304
Formerly Calciviridae, Now known as Hepevirus
HEV
304
HIV are called as retrovirus because
They defy the central dogma of molecular biology
305
Where does transcription happen
nucleus
305
Also known as HTLV-III, LAV, & ARV
HIV - 1
305
Where does translation happen
Cytoplasm specifically at ribosomes
305
HIV-1 discovered when
French Lab (1983) US Lab (1984)
305
It codes for gp160, gp120, and gp41
Envelope Gene (Env)
305
It is the gold standard for CD4 - T cell enumeration
Flow Cytometry
305
CD4 cell count when infection first occurs is at <200cells/ul
PCP (Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia)
305
it codes for enzymes necessary for HIV replication (reverse transcriptase, integrase, etc)
POL gene
306
Drug of choice for PCP (Pneumocystis carinii)
SXT - TMP (Sulfamethoxazole Trimethoprim)
307
1st Gen ELISA detects what HIV
HIV - 1
308
2nd and 3rd Gen ELISA detects what HIV
Both HIV - 1 and HIV - 2
3rd gen uses sandwich technique
309
4th Gen ELISA detects what HIV
HIV-1 antibodies, HIV-2 antibodies, and p24 antigen (which is high in early infections)
310
Standard Confirmatory Test for HIV
Westernblot/Immunoblot
311
HIV infected patients' first antibodies to be detected are against ____
gp41
312
Best indicator of immune function in HIV infected individuals
CD4 Tcell count
313
First retrovirus discovered
HIV
314
What holds the monomers in IgM and IgA
J chain
315
Color of AHG reagent
Green
316
Form of Immunoglobulin present in saliva
Dimer form of IgA2
317
Widal test result 2+
positive reaction
318
RF titers generally considered positive when| weakly positive reaction when
≥1:80 | 20-40
319
CRP is produced by
Liver
320
