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Board REVIEW > IMMUNO SERO > Flashcards

IMMUNO SERO Flashcards

1
Q

Pasteurization / Father of Microbiology / attenuated chicken cholera / anthrax n rabbies vaccines

A

Louis Pasteur

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2
Q

Cross immunity / Smallpox vaccination

A

Edward Jenner

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3
Q

Phagocytosis / Cellular Theory of Immunity

A

Elie Metchnikoff

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4
Q

Complement / Nobel Prize Complement (1919)

A

Jules Bordet

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5
Q

Precipitins. Who.

A

Robert Kaus

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6
Q

Humoral Theory of Immunity

A

Emil Adolf Von Behring

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7
Q

Side Chain Theory / coined complement

A

Paul Ehrlich

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8
Q

Delayed type hypersensitivity / Type IV

A

Robert Koch

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9
Q

Antibody Diversity (Genetic principles underlying generation of AB with diff specificities)

A

Susumo Tonegawa

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10
Q

First Monoclonal Ab ( Monoclonal Ab = from Mouse : Polyclonal Ab = Rabbit )

A

Georges Kohler / Cesar Milstein

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11
Q

Radioimmunoassay (Late 1950s / 1959)

A

Rosalyn Yalow & Berson

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12
Q

Clonal Selection Theory (Most accepted Theory of Antibody)

A

Frank Macfarlane Burnet / Niels Jerne

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13
Q

Immunologic Tolerance

A

Frank Macfarlane Burnet / Peter Medawar

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14
Q

Widely accepted Cell Theory

A

Ab formation Theory

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15
Q

Anaphylaxis

A

Paul Portier / Charles Robert Richet

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16
Q

Basic Structure of Immunoglobulins

A

Gerald Edelman / Rodney Porter

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17
Q

HIV ( 1983 / 1984 )

A

Francoise Barre-Sinoussi / Luc Motagnier

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18
Q

MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex)

A

George Snell / Jean Dausset / Baruj Benaceraf

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19
Q

Typhoid Mary

A

Mary Mallon

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20
Q

Coined back syphilis to Europe

A

Christopher Columbus

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21
Q

2 Polio Vaccines

A

Salk Vaccine - Dead poliovirus (injected less powerful)
Sabin Vaccine - Live attenuated poliovirus (oral more powerful)

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22
Q

Variolation / Insufflation

A

Inhaling of powder from small pox scabs

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23
Q

Innate / Natural / Non - Specific Immunity
1st line of defense

A
  1. Physical
  2. Chemical (Lysozymes)
  3. Normal Flora (Competes with pathogens)
  4. Physiological Process (Sneezing, Coughing, etc.)
  5. Miscellaneous (Body temp, Oxygen, etc.)
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24
Q

Innate / Natural / Non - Specific Immunity
2nd line of defense

A
  1. Cellular Components (APCs, WBCs, APRs, Mast Cells, NK Cells)
  2. Humoral Components (Cytokines, Inflammation)
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25
Q

3 APCs

A
  1. Dendritic Cells (Main function to phagocyte Ag and present it to T helper cells, Rich in MHC Class 2)
  2. Macrophages (from monocytes)
  3. B Cells MHC Class 2
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26
Q

Macrophage in Liver

A

Kupffer cells

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27
Q

Macrophage in Brain

A

Microglial cells

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28
Q

Macrophage in Connective Tissue

A

Histocytes

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29
Q

Macrophage in Lungs

A

Alveolar cells

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30
Q

Macrophage in Kidneys

A

Mesangial cells

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31
Q

Macrophage in Bones

A

Osteoclast

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32
Q

Macrophage in Joints

A

Synovial A cells

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33
Q

Macrophage in Spleen

A

Littoral cells

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34
Q

Macrophage in Placenta

A

Hoffbauer cells

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35
Q

Phagocytosis steps

A

AID / AEK
Adhesion / Attachment
Ingestion / Engulfment
Digestion / Killing

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36
Q

Direct Interaction ( Adhesion ) is via

A

Via pattern recognition Receptors/Primitive Pattern Recognition Receptors

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37
Q

Indirect Interaction is via

A

Via Opsonization

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38
Q

2 types of Digestion / Killing

A

Oxygen Dependent Mechanism - NADPH oxidase forms O2 radical (superoxide)
Oxygen Independent Mechanism -

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39
Q

Disease associated with defective Digestion / Killing

A

CGD (Chronic Granulomatous Disease)

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40
Q

To whom does Lactoferrin bind

A

Iron

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41
Q

Best Opsonin

A

Complement C3B

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42
Q

CRP (C-Reactive Protein)

A
  • originally thought to be an antibody to the c-polysaccharide of pneumococci
  • Most widely used indicator of acute inflammation (x1000)
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43
Q

Serum Amyloid A is associated with

A

associated with HDL cholesterol

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44
Q

APRs

A

Soluble factors that enhance phagocytosis

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45
Q

Natural Killer Cells aka as
And characterized by

A

AKA Large Granular Lymphocytes / Null Cells / Kiss of Death
- Characterized by CD16 & CD56

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46
Q

How many percent NK Cells are there in the Circulation

A

10 %

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47
Q

It orchestrates both innate and adaptive immunity response to infection

A

Cytokines

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48
Q

IFN alpha major producer

A

NK cells / Null cells

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49
Q

IFN beta major producer

A

Fibroblast / Epithelial cells

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50
Q

Type II IFN major producer

A

T cells

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51
Q

It is the principal mediator responding to LPS in Gram Negative bacteria

A

Tumor Necrosis Factor

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52
Q

TNF - alpha aka

A

Cachectin

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53
Q

TNF beta aka

A

Lymphotoxin

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54
Q

Sentinel Cells

A

Macrophage, Dendritic Cells, Mast Cells

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55
Q

Overall reaction of body to injury due to infectious agent

A

Inflammation

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56
Q

Rubor

A

Redness

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57
Q

Calor

A

Heat

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58
Q

Tumor

A

Swelling

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59
Q

Dolor

A

Pain

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60
Q

Functio Laesa

A

Loss of Function

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61
Q

These induce fever because they increase the hypothalamic set point

A

IL I (Interleukin 1), TNF (tumor necrosis factor), Prostaglandins, IL 6 (interleukin 6)

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62
Q

The cells seen in Acute Inflammation

A

Mainly neutrophils / polymorphonuclears

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63
Q

The cells seen in Chronic Inflammation

A

Predominantly : Monocytes/Macrophages and lymphocytes
If no predominant : w/ Neutrophils

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64
Q

Acute inflammation Onset | Clinical Manifestation (symptoms)

A

Fast | Prominent (mas halata)

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65
Q

Chronic inflammation Onset | Clinical Manifestation (symptoms)

A

Slow | Less Prominent

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66
Q

Complement protein Heaviest| Lightest

A

C1q | C9

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67
Q

Complement protein Most abundant | Least abundant

A

C3 | Factor D

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68
Q

Complement Inactivation | Reinactivation

A

56° C for 30 min | 56° C for 10 min (if specimen was left for ≥ 4 hrs)

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69
Q

Stabilizes C3 convertase

A

Properdin / other name of Alternative pathway

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70
Q

Where does complement proteins bind

A

FC portion / constant domain of Heavy chain molecule in Ab

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71
Q

3 Actions of Anaphylatoxins

A
  1. Increased vascular permeability
  2. Contraction of smooth muscles
  3. Release histamines from basophils
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72
Q

Strongest | Weakest Anaphylatoxin

A

C5a | C4a

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73
Q

Both are Anaphylatoxins and Chemotaxins

A

C5a & C3a (if no both choices then just C5a)

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74
Q

It has a anaphylatoxin-like kinin activity

A

C2b

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75
Q

What activates Alternative pathway

A

Bacteria, Fungi, Virus, Venom, some parasites

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76
Q

C3 convertase

A

C3bBb

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77
Q

C5 convertase

A

C3bBbbP (P for properdin)

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78
Q

Deficiency of C1INH results to

A

HANE (Hereditary Angioedema)

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79
Q

Regulates C3 convertase by promoting dissociation of C2a from C4b and Bb from C3b

A

DAF (CD55)

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80
Q

Deficiency of C5 to C8 associated with

A

Neisseria infections

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81
Q

Deficiency of DAF (CD 55) or MIRL or HRF or Protectin

A

Acquired PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria)

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82
Q

2 Types of RID

A

Mancini Method & Fahey Mckelvin Method

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83
Q

Measures concentration according to the amount of LIGHT SCATTERED by a solution containing a reagent antibody and a measured patient sample

A

Nephelometry

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84
Q

Measures the amount of px serum required to lyse 50 percent of a standardized concentration of Ab-sensitized sheep erythrocytes

A

CH50 (Hemolytic Titration Assay)

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85
Q

Solid-phase IGM attached to the walls of microtiter plates - when a substrate is added (chromagen) color change will be evident if C9 is present

A

ELISA

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86
Q

Assay for the three pathways

A

Reagent Strip

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87
Q

In Classical / Alternative / MBL pathway, what is the strip coated with

A

IgM / lipopolysaccharide /Mannose

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88
Q

Detects non complement binding antibodies

A

Rice Test

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89
Q

Active Immunity: Source | Agent | Length | Effectiveness | Undesirable effect

A

HOST | Ag | Longer/Life long| More effective in adults | Infection

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90
Q

Passive Immunity: Source | Agent | Length | Effectiveness | Undesirable effect

A

Another source | Ab | Transient/Temporary | More effective in newborns/elders |

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91
Q

Birds of Fabricius similar to appendix of humans

A

Bone Marrow

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92
Q

Organ found near the heart and still capable of producing T lymphocytes even on adults but diminished rate

A

Thymus

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93
Q

Periarterial sheath / PALS contains

A

T Cells

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94
Q

Follicular area contains

A

B cells

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95
Q

Marginal Zone contains

A

Dendritic Cells, Macrophage, CD4, T cells, & B cells

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96
Q

Red Pulp

A

Destruction of old RBC

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97
Q

White Pulp

A

contains lymphoid tissue (PALS , Marginal Zone, Follicular area)

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98
Q

Cortex contains

A

B cells (Bortex)

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99
Q

Paracortex contains

A

T cells (Patacortex)

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100
Q

Medulla contains

A

Macrophages (MM)

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101
Q

Peyer’s patches are MALT in

A

intestine (Ileum - predominant & jejunum)

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102
Q

The secondary lymphoid organ found in the oral cavity

A

Tonsils

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103
Q

Surface antibodies

A

IgM & IgD Ab

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104
Q

TCR surface marker

A

CD3
1985-1987 genes discovered
1983 Ellis Reinherz structure

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105
Q

MHC class II | helper / inducer cells | 2/3 in circulation

A

CD4+ T Cells

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106
Q

MHC class I | cytotoxic / suppressor cells | 1/3 in circulation

A

CD8+ cells

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107
Q

Marked preference on HIV - I

A

CD4+

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108
Q

CD4 : CD8 ratio in normal

A

2:1

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109
Q

CD4 : CD8 ratio in AIDS

A

< 0.5 : 1

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110
Q

Where is Heavy chain coded?

A

chromosome 14

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111
Q

Where is Light chain coded?

A

chromosome 2 & 22

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112
Q

Immature B cell expresses

A

IgM on surface
MHC class II

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113
Q

Mature B cell expresses

A

IgD and IgM
It is also known as Resting/Naive cell

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114
Q

Activation of B cell occurs where

A

Secondary lymphoid organ e.g. germinal center of the secondary follicle of lymph node

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115
Q

Has basophilic cytoplasm characterized with perinuclear hof

A

Plasma Cells

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116
Q

What are the components of Flow Cytometer

A

Fluidics system, laser, photodetectors, computer

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117
Q

Co receptor for MHC class II ; receptor for HIV

A

CD4

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118
Q

Co receptor for MHC class I

A

CD8

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119
Q

marker for pre - B CALLA (Common Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia Antigen)

A

CD10

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120
Q

Basis of ADCC (Antibody Dependence Cell Cytotoxicity) : marker for NK cells

A

CD16

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121
Q

Phytohemagglutinin (PHA) and concanavalin A (Con A)

A

T cells proliferation/blastogenesis

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122
Q

pokeweed mitogen & staphylococcal protein A

A

B cells proliferation

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123
Q

Microscope used when studying viability of cells

A

Phase Contrast Microscope

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124
Q

Antigenic determinant

A

Epitope

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125
Q

Antibody determinant

A

Paratope

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126
Q

Antigenic characteristic of Antibody-variable region

A

Idiotype

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127
Q

What holds the 2 heavy chains in the Fc portion

A

Hinge region

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128
Q

Most abundant Immunoglobulin

A

IgG

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129
Q

Heaviest Immunoglobulin

A

IgM

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130
Q

Lightest Immunoglobulin

A

IgG

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131
Q

Which are the Gammaglobulins

A

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE

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132
Q

What holds the Pentameric / Dimeric Structure of IgM and IgA respectively?

A

J chain

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133
Q

What type of IgA is seen in mucosa?

A

Dimeric form

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134
Q

In breast milk what Immunoglobulins are found?

A

IgG and IgA (Majority)

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135
Q

Immunoglobulins for Placental Transfer

A

IgG

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136
Q

Immunoglobulin stable at 56C

A

IgG, IgM, IgA

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137
Q

Immunoglobulin for complement fixation

A

IgG, igM

138
Q

Agglutination strength Immunoglobulin

A

IgM > IgG > IgA

139
Q

Precipitation Immunoglobulin

A

IgG > IgM > IgA

140
Q

Opsonization of Immunoglobulin

A

IgM > IgG

141
Q

Clinically significant Immunoglobulin

A

IgG

142
Q

Resets the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center leading to increased body temperature (fever)

A

IL-1 if no then IL-6 TNF PG

143
Q

Formerly known as T cell growth factor

A

IL-2

144
Q

Formerly known as pan-hematopoietin / multicolony-stimulating factor

A

IL-3

145
Q

Isotype switching to Ig1 and IgE

A

IL-4

146
Q

Eosinophil activation differentiation

A

IL-5 (5th letter E)

147
Q

Activated “Respiratory/Oxidative burst”

A

IL-8

148
Q

Interleukin that inhibits… supress… downregulate…

A

IL-10

149
Q

T or F All Immunogens are Antigens

A

True

150
Q

T or F All Antigens are Immunogens

A

False (not all antigens can produce an immune response)

151
Q

Molecular Weight needed to be recognized by Immune system

A

At least 10,000 Daltons

152
Q

What are the best immunogens?

A

Proteins and polysaccharides

153
Q

The absolute requirement for T cell activation in an immune response

A

Antigen Presentation in association with MHC

154
Q

Referred as Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) systems in humans

A

MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex)

155
Q

Class I molecules of MHC

A

MHC A, B, C

156
Q

Class II molecules of MHC

A

MHC D

157
Q

Class III molecules of MHC

A

complement proteins and cytokines such as TNF

158
Q

Class I presents to

A

CD8+ cells

159
Q

Class II presents to

A

CD4+ cells

160
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis associated with what HLA

A

B27 (100x risk)

161
Q

Behcet’s Disease associated with what HLA

A

B5

162
Q

Type 1 Diabetes associated with what HLA

A

DR3

163
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis associated with what HLA

A

DR4

164
Q

Most immunogenic organ

A

Bone Marrow > Skin > Islet of Langerhans

165
Q

Least Immunogenic organ

A

Cornea

166
Q

Tissue from him/herself

A

Autograft

167
Q

Tissue from genetically identical individual (identical twins)

A

Syngraft/Isograft

168
Q

Tissue from individuals of same species

A

Allograft

169
Q

Tissue from different species

A

Xenograft

170
Q

Most common graft

A

Allograft

171
Q

Most common organ transplant

A

Kidney

172
Q

Primary obstacle on Transplant

A

Rejection

173
Q

Hyperacute graft rejection predominant mechanism

A

Humoral mediated ( the only humoral mediated compared to accelerated, acute, chronic graft rejection mechanism)

174
Q

Hyperacute graft rejection cause

A

Antibodies to donor antigens

175
Q

Most common GVHD

A

Bone marrow transplant

176
Q

CD8 function

A

co receptor for MHC Class I

177
Q

Marker for pre-B CALLA

A

CD10

178
Q

Low affinity for FC receptor, mediates phagocytosis and ADCC

A

CD16

179
Q

Cell type are different forms on all hematopoietic cells

A

CD45R

180
Q

Refers to the extent to which neoplastic parenchymal cells resemble normal parenchymal cells

A

Differentiation

181
Q

a mass protruding but has not yet reached the basement membrane

A

carcinoma in situ

182
Q

Next to the development of metastases, it is the most reliable feature that differentiates cancer to benign tumor

A

Invasiveness

183
Q

A tumor that does not invade its surroundings

A

Benign Tumor

184
Q

A tumor that continues to grow and can invade its surroundings and eventually produce death

A

Malignant Tumor

185
Q

A tumor with normal tissue or organ components that are inappropriate to surrounding tissues

A

Teratomas

186
Q

Most reliable feature that differentiates Malignant or Benign

A

Metastases

187
Q

Oma are benign except for

A

Sarcoma, Melanoma Lymphoma, Immature teratoma, Carcinoma, Hepatoma, Seminoma

188
Q

Central regulator of the growth in normal cells that code for proteins involved in growth and repair in the body

A

Proto Oncogene

189
Q

causes overexpression of growth promoting proteins resulting in hypercellular proliferation and tumorigenesis

A

Oncogene

190
Q

Antigens that are expressed in developing fetus and in rapidly dividing tissue but are absent in normal adult tissue

A

Oncofetal Antigens ex. AFB

191
Q

Cell Surface Tumor marker for Breast Cancer

A

ER/PR

192
Q

Immunoglobulin tumor marker for Multiple myeloma

A

Bence Jones Protein in form of IgG

193
Q

What spikes in the Monoclonal gammopathy in Multiple myeloma

A

IgG

194
Q

What spikes in the Monoclonal gammopathy in Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

A

IgM

195
Q

NMP-22 / CFHrp / BTA are tumor markers for

A

Bladder Cancer

196
Q

CEA (Carcinoembryonic Antigen) is a tumor marker for

A

Colorectal Cancer

197
Q

CA15-3 is a tumor marker for

A

Breast Cancer

198
Q

CA19-9 is a tumor marker for

A

Pancreatic Cancer

199
Q

Calcitonin is a tumor marker for Medullary

A

Thyroid Cancer

200
Q

AMS/LPS is a tumor marker for

A

Pancreatic Cancer

201
Q

PSA is a tumor marker for

A

Prostate Cancer

202
Q

Predictive marker for response to Herceptin/Trastuzumab therapy

A

HER-2/neu

203
Q

A tumor marker for Melanoma

A

HMB - 45 (Human Melanoma black 45)

204
Q

Cathepsin - D is a tumor marker for

A

Breast Cancer

205
Q

Cytokeratin Fragment (CYFRA) a tumor marker for

A

Breast Cancer

206
Q

Autoimmune diseases are more common on

A

Females

207
Q

The only 2 autoimmune diseases that are more common on Males than Females

A

Goodpasture’s Syndrome & Ankylosing spondylitis

208
Q

ANAs (Antinuclear Antibodies) are immunoglobulins that include

A

IgG, IgA, and IgM

209
Q

Detection of ANA

A

Using FANA (Fluorescent Antinuclear Antibody) - most widely used and accepted test

210
Q

Principle of ANA Detection is

A

Indirect Immunofluorescence Assay

211
Q

Cells used in FANA

A

Mouse Kidney, HEp-2 cells, and HeLa cells

212
Q

HeLa stands for and from what cells

A

Henrietta Lacks from cervical cancer cells, oldest and most commonly used cell line.

213
Q

Pattern of DsDNA

A

Homogenous / Solid / Diffuse and PERIPHERAL pattern

214
Q

This pattern results from antibodies to DNA

A

Peripheral / Ring / Membranous

215
Q

Pattern of Anti-Sm

A

Speckled / Mottled / Pepper dot

216
Q

SS-A/Ro and SS-B/La are associated with what disease

A

Neonatal lupus

217
Q

DiGeorge syndrome symptoms

A
  • Faulty development of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches during embryogenesis
  • Aplasia or hypoplasia of thymus and parathyroid gland
    -Associated with microsomal deletion on chromosome 22
  • Abnormally high CD4+/CD8+ ratio is present because of a decrease in CD8 + cells
218
Q

Causes of DiGeorge syndrome

A

CATCH n chromosome 22

219
Q

Acts as indicator cells in the demonstration of antigen and antibody reactions in vitro

A

Red Cell Suspension

220
Q

Between how many % does the cell suspension provide optimum antigen concentration for the tube method for red blood cell typing

A

2-5%

221
Q

Purpose of washing the red cells

A

To remove the unwanted plasma proteins including Ab that might interfere in the reactions

222
Q

RCS formula

A

% RCS = (Amount of packed rbc /Total Volume) 100
- Total volume = Amount of washed PRBC + Amount of NSS to be added

223
Q

Dilution formula

A

(1/Dilution) = (Amount of solute/Total Volume)

224
Q

This is in which all dilutions, including or following the first one, are the same

A

Dilution Series

225
Q

Involves combining soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce insoluble complexes that are visible

A

Precipitation

226
Q

A special type of precipitation but is observed as a fleecy mass when a suspension of Ag and Ab is agitated

A

Flocculation

227
Q

Factors affecting precipitation

A
  • Temp ( more complete precipitation at 0-4 degC, higher temp more rapid precipitation )
  • Ph ( Most reactions neutral pH or 6-7.5 )
  • Ionic strength of medium ( reduced Ionic strength = Increased Precipitation)
228
Q

Force of attraction that exists between a single Fab site on an antibody molecule and single epitope or determinant site on corresponding antigen

A

Afinity

229
Q

Sum of all the attractive forces between an antigen and an antibody

A

Avidity

230
Q

Antibodies react with antigens that are structurally similar to the original antigen that induced antibody production

A

Cross-Reactivity

231
Q

Proteins that precipitate or gel when cooled to 0 degC and dissolve when heated

A

Cryoglobulin

232
Q

Zone with excess Antibody in the precipitation curve

A

Prozone (AbPro)

233
Q

Zone with excess Antigen in the Precipitation curve

A

Postzone (AgPost)

234
Q

Zone with optimum precipitation in the Precipitation curve

A

Zone of Equivalence

235
Q

Measure of cloudiness of a solution

A

Turbidimetry

236
Q

Measure of light scatter at a particular angle

A

Nephelometry (angles is usually 10-90 degrees)

237
Q

It is the most commonly used gel because it has no charge compared to other agars that are negatively charged

A

Agarose gel

238
Q

The Rocket Crossed the Counter Classicaly

A

Single Diffusion Single Dimension 1 | 1 | Rocket IE by Laurell
Single Diffusion Double Dimension 1 | 2 | Crossed IE by Ressler
Double Diffusion Single Dimension 2 | 1 | Counter Current IE
Double Diffusion Double Dimension 2 | 2 | Classic IE by Grabar & Williams

239
Q

Step in agglutination where Ab attaches to Ag

A

Sensitization

240
Q

The procedure where physical conditions are purposedly manipulated to break the Ag-Ab complex with subsequent release of Ab into the surrounding medium.

A

Elution

241
Q

Establishment of cross-links between sensitized particles and antibodies resulting in aggregation

A

Lattice Formation

242
Q

A technique used to enhance agglutination

A

AHG testing

242
Q

A type of agglutination reaction where antigens are found naturally on the surface of the particle

A

Direct agglutination

243
Q

A type of agglutination where antigens have been affixated/attached to a carrier/inert particle and agglutination occurs if patient antibody is present

A

Indirect/Passive Agglutination

244
Q

A type of agglutination where antigens have been affixated/attached to a carrier/inert particle and agglutination occurs if patient antigen is present ex. CRP

A

Reverse Passive Agglutination

245
Q

It **uses bacteria ( usually S. aureus ) **as the inert particle to which antibody is attached

A

Coagglutination

246
Q

It is based o competition bet particulate and soluble antigens for limited combiing sites, and a lack of agglutination is positive reaction

A

Agglutination Inhibition

247
Q

It detects non-agglutinating antibody by means of coupling with a second antibody

A

Coomb’s Test

248
Q

Test for in vivo coating of patient’s rbc with anti IgG and/or complement

A

Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)

249
Q

Source of the polyspecific anti-human globulin

A

Rabbits

249
Q

What does the polyspecific anti-human globulin (AHG) contain?

A

anti-IgG and anti-C3/C3d

250
Q

Source of monoclonal antibodies/Monospecific AHG

A

Mouse

251
Q

Color of Coomb’s reagent

A

Green

252
Q

Inert particle in SPIA (Solid Particle Immunoassay)

A

Inorganic Colloidal Gold

253
Q

Inert particle in DIA (Disperese Dye Immunoassay)

A

Organic Colloidal Dye

254
Q

Inert particle in IMPACT (Immunoassay by Particle Counting)

A

Latex Particle

255
Q

Correction for Autoagglutination

A

Use a control with saline and no antibody present. If control is postive then invalidate it.

256
Q

Immunoassays where Ag-Ab complexes do not go beyond the first phase

A

Labeled Immunoasssays

257
Q

It uses fluorochromes that absorb light at shorter wavelegnth and emit light waves at a visibile spectrum/longer wavelengths

A

Fluorescence Immunoassays

258
Q

Most common enzyme labels

A

Horse Radish peroxidase

259
Q

An immunoassay where antigen is already fixed into a slide then fluorescent ab is added

A

Direct ImmunoFluorescence Assay

260
Q

An immunoassay where antigen is fixed on slide and patient serum ab is added then fluorescent ahg is added

A

Indirect Immunofluorescence Assay

261
Q

An immunoassay where antigen is fixed to a slide then flooded with patient serum then a labeled ab is added (aka blocking test)

A

Inhibition Immunofluorescence Assay

262
Q

The assay that uses radioactive labes/isotopes

A

Radioimmunoassay

263
Q

In RIA where do we plot the ratio of bound to free ab to analyte concentration and is commonly used to evaluate ab performance

A

Scatchard plot

264
Q

Instrument that measure the radioactivity of Iodine Isotope that emits Gama

A

Solid/Crystal Scintillation counter

265
Q

Instrument that measure the radioactivity of Tritium that emits Beta

A

Liquid Scintillation counter

266
Q

Immunoassay that uses enzymes as labels

A

Enzyme Immunoassay

267
Q

The Immunoassay where separation/washing is not necessary where its enzyme activty is directly proportional to concentration of antigen

A

EMIT (Enzyme multiplied Immunoassay Technique)

268
Q

The Immunoassay where separation/washing is necessary where its enzyme activty is indirectly proportional to concentration of antigen

A

ELISA

269
Q

Home based 9hCG pregnancy test principle

A

Enzyme Immunoassay /Immunochromatography

270
Q

Stage of syphilipis where there is a Hard chancre which is painless and firm and what Microscope is used

A

Primary Stage of Syphilis , Darkfield Microscope

271
Q

It is the most contagious stage of Syphilis

A

Secondary Stage, Darkfield Microscope

272
Q

Condylomata lata

A

Syphilis

273
Q

Condylomata acuminta

A

HPV / Genital Wart

274
Q

Stage of Syphilis where there is lack of clinical symptoms

A

Latent stage

275
Q

Stage of Syphilis where there are Gummas, Neurosyphilis, & Cardiovascular disease

A

Tertiary stage

276
Q

is a bacterial STD caused by Haemophilus ducreyi and is a painful necrotizing genital ulcers

A

Chancroid

277
Q

Spirochetes do not appeart to survive in units of citrated blood at 4deg C (39deg F) for longer than _____ hrs

A

72 hrs

278
Q

Hutchinson’s Triad

A

Deafness, Keratitis, and notched teeth

279
Q

Also known as cardiolipin

A

Wasserman Antigen

280
Q

Antigens used in Syphilis Serology

A

Wasserman Antigen & Treponemal Antigen

281
Q

Also known as Raegin/Anti-cardiolipin

A

Non-treponemal Antibody

282
Q

Microscope used for detection of Syphilis

A

Darkfield Microscope

283
Q

Screening test for Syphilis

A

Non-treponemal Tests

284
Q

Confirmatory test for Syphilis

A

Treponemal Tests

285
Q

Examine flocculation ___ in VDRL under what objective

A

Microscopically | LPO (100x)

286
Q

In RPR flucculation is examined _______

A

Macroscopically

287
Q

Routine screening test for Syphilis

A

RPR

288
Q

Neurosyphilis routine screening test

A

VDRL

289
Q

Nature of Wasserman antibodies

A

IgG / IgM

290
Q

Most commonly used Treponemal Test in BB

A

RPR

291
Q

Carrier / Inert particle for TPHA and HATTS

A

Turkey Erythrocytes

292
Q

MHA

Carrier / Inert particle for TPHA and HATTS

A

Sheep Erythrocytes

293
Q

Principle of ASO (Antistreptolysin O) and its positive test is

A

Neutralization | No hemolysis

294
Q

Unit used in ASO when the WHO international standard is used

A

international units

294
Q

Unit used in ASO when the streptolysin reagent standard is used

A

Todd units

295
Q

Titer seen in normal individual

A

1:10

295
Q

Smallest known free living microorganism

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

296
Q

AKA Walking pneumonia / atypical pneumoniae

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

297
Q

Principle of Tiphi Dot

A

Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA)

298
Q

A wbc engulfed by another wbc or a lymphocyte engulfed by a neutrophil

A

LE Cell

299
Q

It is for Helicobacter pylori urease detection, and its positive reaction in _____ in color

A

Clotest | hot pink

299
Q

Most common autoimmune disease

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

299
Q

Lead marker for detection of RA because it is more specific than RF

A

Anti-CCP (Cyclic Citrullinated Particles)

300
Q

Felty’s Syndrome is associated with

A

SANTA (Splenomegaly, Anemia, Neutropenia, Thrombocytopenia, Arthritis)

300
Q

Principle for detecting RA (Rheumatoid Arthritis) factor

A

Passive Agglutination

301
Q

Hepatitis that is the only DNA

A

Hepa B (HBV)

302
Q

Type of Hepatits which transmission is through Fecal Oral and the rest are Parenteral

A

Hepa A and E (HAV & HEV)

302
Q

Aka Australian antigen

A

HBV

303
Q

Most commonly transfused Heptatis virus prior to screening in 1990s

A

Hepa C (HCV)

304
Q

Traditional confirmatory test for HCV

A

RIBA (Recombinant Immunoblot Assay)

304
Q

HCV RNA aka

A

viral load

304
Q

Surrogate test for HCV

A

ALT/SGPT (Increased) | Anti-HBc (Positive)

304
Q

RA 11166

A

if person is pregnant or engaged with sexual behavior even 11 years old, consent to HIV testing shall be obtained from child w/o needing consent from parent or guardian as long as they are mentally competent

304
Q

Formerly Calciviridae, Now known as Hepevirus

A

HEV

304
Q

HIV are called as retrovirus because

A

They defy the central dogma of molecular biology

305
Q

Where does transcription happen

A

nucleus

305
Q

Also known as HTLV-III, LAV, & ARV

A

HIV - 1

305
Q

Where does translation happen

A

Cytoplasm specifically at ribosomes

305
Q

HIV-1 discovered when

A

French Lab (1983) US Lab (1984)

305
Q

It codes for gp160, gp120, and gp41

A

Envelope Gene (Env)

305
Q

It is the gold standard for CD4 - T cell enumeration

A

Flow Cytometry

305
Q

CD4 cell count when infection first occurs is at <200cells/ul

A

PCP (Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia)

305
Q

it codes for enzymes necessary for HIV replication (reverse transcriptase, integrase, etc)

A

POL gene

306
Q

Drug of choice for PCP (Pneumocystis carinii)

A

SXT - TMP (Sulfamethoxazole Trimethoprim)

307
Q

1st Gen ELISA detects what HIV

A

HIV - 1

308
Q

2nd and 3rd Gen ELISA detects what HIV

A

Both HIV - 1 and HIV - 2
3rd gen uses sandwich technique

309
Q

4th Gen ELISA detects what HIV

A

HIV-1 antibodies, HIV-2 antibodies, and p24 antigen (which is high in early infections)

310
Q

Standard Confirmatory Test for HIV

A

Westernblot/Immunoblot

311
Q

HIV infected patients’ first antibodies to be detected are against ____

A

gp41

312
Q

Best indicator of immune function in HIV infected individuals

A

CD4 Tcell count

313
Q

First retrovirus discovered

A

HIV

314
Q

What holds the monomers in IgM and IgA

A

J chain

315
Q

Color of AHG reagent

A

Green

316
Q

Form of Immunoglobulin present in saliva

A

Dimer form of IgA2

317
Q

Widal test result 2+

A

positive reaction

318
Q

RF titers generally considered positive when| weakly positive reaction when

A

≥1:80 | 20-40

319
Q

CRP is produced by

A

Liver

320
Q
A

Board REVIEW (4 decks)

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