Blood Banking Flashcards by Frank Jayson Agana | Brainscape

Q

Who did the First Blood Transfusion

A

Pope Innocent VII (1942)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Discovered Sodium Phosphate for blood preservation

A

Braxton Hicks (1869)

“**18 **yrs old ka na mag Bra ka Na Pho”

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Discovered the ABO Blood Group and first man to do forward typing

A

Karl Landsteiner (1901)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Discovery of fourth blood group AB blood group

A

Alfred von Decastillo and Adriano Sturli (1902)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Vein to vein transfusion using multiple syringes and a special cannula

A

Edward Lindemann (1913)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Direct transfusion using sodium citrate as an anticoagulant

A

Albert Hustin (1914)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Determined the minimum amount of sodium citrate for anticoagulatio

A

Richard Lewisohn (1915)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Use of glucose as preservative

A

Rous and Turner (1916)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Acid Citrate Dextrose

A

Loutit and Mollison (1943)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Citrate-Phosphate Dextrose

A

Gibson (1957)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Refers not only to genetically encoded Ag in erythrocytes but also in other blood constituents including leukocytes, platelets, and plasma

A

Blood Group Ag

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Characteristics of Ag

A

1.Chemical composition - proteins are best immunogens
2. Complexity - number of available epitopes
3. Molecular size - MW > 10,000D

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Ranking of the Immunogenecity of Blood group antigens

A

A and B antigens
RhD
K
Fya and common Rh antigens

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Antibody directed against antigens not present on yourself

A

Alloantibodies

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Antibodies directed against own antigens

A

Autoantibodies

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Antibodies that are present in the serum of individuals that have never been previously exposed to RB antigens by transfusion, injection, or pregnancy

A

Naturally Occuring Antibodies

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Naturally Occurring Antibodies are usually _ antibodies

A

IgM (mostly insignificant)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

The Naturally Occuring Antibodies (IgM)

A

LIPMAN (Lewis, Lua, li, P, MN, AB)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Antibodies found in the serumf of individuals who have been transfused or who are pregnant

A

Rich Daring Kidd can Kill (Rh, Duffy, Kidd, Kell, Ss, Lub)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Anti-I can be neutralized by what

A

Mother’s milk

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Anti-H can be neutralized by what

A

Saliva

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Anti-Sdᵃ can be neutralized by what

A

Guinea Pig Urine

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Anti-Chido, Anti-Rodgers can be neutralized by what

A

Plasma/Serum

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Anti-Lewis can be neutralized by what

A

Secretor saliva, plasma/serum

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Anti-P1 can be neutralized by what

A

Hydatid cyst fluid

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Most common reaction in Blood Bank

A

Hemagglutination

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Clumping of rbcs due to formation of Ag-Ab bridges bet RBC Ag and Ab.

A

Hemagglutination

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Development of an insoluble Ag-Ab complex from reactio of soluble Ag and Ab

A

Precipitation

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Opposite of Hemagglutination and is used in secretory studies where positive is no agglutination

A

Agglutination Inhibition

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Complement-mediated RBC lysis due to Ag-Ab reaction

A

Hemolysis

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

One solid aggregate

grading and scoring of Hemagglutination Tube method

A

4+ | 10

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Hemolysis

grading and scoring of Hemagglutination Tube method

A

H | 10

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Several medium to large aggregates

grading and scoring of Hemagglutination Tube method

A

3+ | 8

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Medium aggregates with clear background

grading and scoring of Hemagglutination Tube method

A

2+ | 5

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Small aggregates with turbid background

grading and scoring of Hemagglutination Tube method

A

1+ | 3

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Few small aggregates with many unagglutinated cells

grading and scoring of Hemagglutination Tube method

A

w+ | 1

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

No agglutination or hemolysis

grading and scoring of Hemagglutination Tube method

A

0 | 0

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Mixed field

grading and scoring of Hemagglutination Tube method

A

mf | NA

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Rouleaux

grading and scoring of Hemagglutination Tube method

A

R | NA

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Non specific aggregation appearing like stack of coin

A

Rouleaux

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

How to correct Rouleaux formation

A

Saline wash

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Who developed Gel Technology method

Hemagglutination Reaction

A

Dr Yves Lapierre

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Advantages of Gel Technology

A

No washing needed
Control cells are not needed
More stable endpoint
More reproducible result
Standardization
Smaller Sample Volume
Enhanced Sensitivity and Specificity

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Disadvantage of Gel Technology

A

Need for special Equipment

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Incubation time of Gel Technology

A

15 mins

“In”cubation - Fif”teen”

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Centrifugation time of Gel Technology

A

10 mins

“Cen”trifugation - “Ten”

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Agglutinated cells from a cell layer at the top of the gel media

Grading in Gel Technology

A

4+

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Agglutinated cells begin to disperse into gel media and are concetrated near the top of the tube

Grading in Gel Technology

A

3+

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Agglutinated cells disperse into the gel media and are observed throughout the length of the tube

Grading in Gel Technology

A

2+

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Agglutinated cells disperse throughout the gel media and may concentrate toward the bottom of the tube

Grading in Gel Technology

A

1+

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

All cells pass through the gel media and form a cell button at the bottom of the tube

Grading in Gel Technology

A

Negative

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Agglutinated cells form a layer at the top of the gel media and unagglutinated cells pass to the bottom of the tube

Grading in Gel Technology

A

Mixed Field

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Brings reactants closer together by increasing the gravitational forces on the reactants

A

Centrifugation

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Undercentrifugation of specimen

Factors that influence Ag-Ab reaction

A

False Negative

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Overcentrifugation of specimen

Factors that influence Ag-Ab reaction

A

False Positive

> 10minss

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What zone when there is Excess Ab

A

Prozone

False Negative

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What zone when there is Excess Ag

A

Postzone

False Negative

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

How to correct Prozone

A

Dilution

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

How to correct Postzone

A

Repeat the other day, wait to create more antibody.

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Weak expression of antigen on RBCs due to heterozygous inheritance of genotypes

A

Dosage Effect

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Anitgens that exhibits dosage effect

A

Rh except D, MNSs, Kidd, Duffy, Lutheran

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Most Ab react best at what pH

(optimum pH)

A

6.5-7.5

(except anti M which reacts stronger below pH 6.5)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

IgM reacts best at what temperature

A

Room temperature

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

IgG reacts best at what temperature

A

37 deg C

except auto anti-P for it also reacts at Room temp also even though it is also an IgG.

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Auto anti-P is also known as _ and is present in _

A

Donath Landsteiner Ab | PCH (Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Zeta potential depends on _ _ and _

A

Electronegativity of the RBC
Dielectric constant
Ionic strength

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Purpose of the enhancement media

A

Decreases the zeta potential

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

It increases the dielectric constant which reduces zeta potential

A

Protein Media

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Incubation time of PEG (Polyethylene glycol)

A

10-30 mins

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Benefits of using PEG

A

Increased sensitivity
More specific - reduces false-positive results
More effective in detection of weak antibodies

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

It decreases the ionic strength of a reaction medium which reduces the zeta potential

A

LISS (Low Ionic Strength Solution)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Most commonly used Enhancement media

A

LISS

(but prone to false-positive results)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Incubation time of LISS

A

5-15 mins

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Enhancement media that is used in detection and identification of blood group antibodies

A

Proteolytic Enzymes

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Proteolytic enzymes enhances what blood groups

A

PRIKLe (P, Rh, I antigens, Kidd, Lewis)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Proteolytic enzymes enhances what blood groups

A

Duffy, MN antigens

Kell is unaffected

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Ficin is from

A

fig plants

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Papain is from

A

Papaya

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Trypsin is from

A

pig stomach

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Bromelin is from

A

pineapple

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

The anti IgG reagent

A

AHG reagent

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Who introduced the AHG reagent

A

Coombs, Mourant, and Race

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Purpose of AHG reagent

A

Used to detect weak or incomplete Ab ( IgG )

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

First Blood Group System reported after Coomb’s test was introduced

A

Kell Blood Group

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

It detects in vivo sensitization of RBC with Ab or complement

Specimen: Whole Blood

A

Direct AHG Test (DAT)

Uses of DAT
1. HDN - Maternal Ab coating fetal RBCs
2. HTR - recipient Ab coating donor RBCs

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

It detects in vitro sensitization of RBCs

Specimen : Serum

A

Indirect AHG Test (IAT)

Uses of IAT
1. Crossmatching
2. Ab detection and identification

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

2 Types of AHG reagents

A

Polyspecific
Monospecific

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

AHG reagent that contains anti-IgG **and **anti-C3d

Sensitive and useful in detection of anti-Jka

A

Polyspecifc AHG reagent

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

AHG reagent that contains anti-IgG or anti-C3d

Specific

A

Monospecific AHG reagent

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Mixture of Ab of different specificites produced from different B cell clones and are from rabbits

A

Polyclonal

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Antibodies of the same specificity produced from a single B cell clone and are from mice

A

Monoclonal

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

A Group O Rh-positive RBC sensitized with Anti-D (IgG) that is used to confirm negative AHG results

A

Coomb’s Check Cell

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Designed to group antigens which are biochemically, genetically, or serologically similar but genetic basis has not yet been discovered

A

Collections (200)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Most important of all blood group system and most immunogenic

A

ABO Blood Group system

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Most common cause of HDN

(Blood group system)

A

ABO Blood Group system

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Landsteiner rule

A

Antigen on RBC determines the blood group
If an individual lacks ABO antigen in their red cells, they posses the corresponding antibody in their serum

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Blood Group A

What Ag on RBC and what Ab o serum

A

A antigen | Anti-B

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Blood Group B

What Ag on RBC and what Ab o serum

A

B antigen | Anti-A

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Blood Group O

What Ag on RBC and what Ab o serum

A

None | Anti- A, Anti-B, Anti- A,B

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Blod group that is high risk of ulcer

A

O

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Blood Group AB

What Ag on RBC and what Ab o serum

A

AB antigen| None

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

In ABO blood group which is the most common to least common

A

O > A > B > AB

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Blood group that is high risk of gastric carcinoma

A

A & AB

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

It detects the antigen on the surface of RBC

Sample: Patient Red Cell
Reagent: Known anti-sera/ab

A

Forward Typing

Color of antisera:
1. Anti-A - Blue
2. Anti-B - Yellow
3. Anti-D - Color

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

It detects the ABO antibodies in the serum

Sample: Serum
Reagent: 4-5% Red Cell Suspension

A

Reverse/Serum Typing

* confirms forward typing
* not required in infants <4months old

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What relationship is there bet forward and reverse typing

A

Inverse reciprocal relationship

If not then there is discrepancy in result

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

ABO gene is found where

A

In the long arms of chromomsome 9

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

It controls the presence or absence of ABH antigens on the RBC

A

H gene

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Pattern of Inheritance in ABO Blood Groups

A

Codominant

O gene is considered amorph

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

It controls the presence or absence of ABH antigens in secretions

A

Se gene

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

N acetylglucosamine in beta 1 → 3 linkage and precursor substace in secretions

A

Type 1 Precursor substance

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Enzyme in the H gene

A

L-fucosyl transferase

Immunodominant sugar: L-fucose

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

N acetylglucosamine in **beta 1 → 4 linkage **and precursor substace in red blood cells

A

Type 2 Precursor substance

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Enzyme in A gene

A

N-acetylgalactosaminyl transferase

Immunodominant sugar: N-acetyl-D-galactosamine

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Enzyme in B gene

A

D-galactosyltransferase

Immunodominant sugar: D-galactose

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Enzyme in O gene

A

None

Immunodominant sugar: None

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Enzyme in Se gene

A

L-fucosyl transferase

Immunodominant sugar: L-fucose

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Amount of H antigen from Greatest to Least in ABO

A

O>A2>A2B>A1>A1B

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

AA/Hh/SeSe

ABH Substance in RBC | ABH in Secretion

A

A, H | A, H

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

BB/Hh/Sese

ABH Substance in RBC | ABH in Secretion

A

B, H| B, H

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

AB/HH/Sese

ABH Substance in RBC | ABH in Secretion

A

A, B, H | A, B, H

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

OO/Hh/Sese

ABH Substance in RBC | ABH in Secretion

A

H | H

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

AB/Hh/sese

A

A, B, H | None

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

AA/ hh/ Sese

ABH Substance in RBC | ABH in Secretion

A

None | A, H

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Bombay phenotype first reported by

A

Bhende in Bombay India

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Patient is “A” secretor
Saliva + Anti-A + A cell = Agglu or no agglu
Saliva + Anti -B + B cell = Agglu or no agglu

Agglutination Inhibition

A

No agglutination

Agglutination

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Patient’s genotype is AB/Hh/sese

Saliva + Anti-A + A cell =
Saliva + Anti-B + B cell =

A

Both with agglutination

Patient is a nonsecretor “sese”

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Ag and Ab seen in Bombay phenotype

A

No antigen | anti-A, anti-B, anti-AB, anti-H

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

An accused rapist is group B. During the investigatio a semen sample from the victim was taken and agglutination showed the following reactions:

Semen + Anti-A + A cell = Agglutination
Semen + Anti-B + B cell = Agglutination
Semen is Anti-H + O cell = No agglutination

Do the results suggest that the accused man is really the rapist? Why?

A

No because the specimen was from a group O secretor and the accused rapist was a group B.

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Phenotype of Bombay phenotype

A

Blood group O

But Type O has no anti-H antibody which Bombay have

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Bombay phenotype can receive what blood type

A

Bombay phenotype only

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

It is used to differentiate ABO subgroups and alternative to antisera

A

ABH Lectins

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Lectins used for the A1 antigen

A

Dolichus biflorus

Diff. A1 and A2 (agglutination on A1)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Lectins used for B antigen

A

Griffonia simplicifolia

Diff. True B vs Acquired B (agglutination on True B)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Lectins used for H antigen

A

Ulex europaeus

Diff. Type O vs Bombay (agglutination on Type O)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Most common type of discrepancy in ABO discrepancies

A

Group 1 discrepancy

(Newborn, Elderly patients, immunosuppressive drugs|check px history)

Discrepancy in reverse grouping due to reacting or missing antibodies

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Least frequently encountered ABO discrepancy

A

Group 2 discrepancy

(Subgroups of A or B, Leukemia,Acquired B phenomenon)

Missing reactions in forward typing due to weakly reacting or missing antigen

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Discrepancies bet forward and reverse groupings due to plasma abnormalities and result rouleaux formation

A

Group 3 Discrepancy

(Multiple myeloma, Elevated Fibrinogen | Saline wash to correct)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

RHD and RHCE is found where

A

Chromosome 1

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

RHAG gene is found where

A

Chromosome 6

A co-expressor of RH blood group

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Discrepancies bet forward and reverse grouping due to miscellaneous problems

A

Group 4 Discrepancy

(Cold reactive autoantibodies, Unexpected alloantibodies)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

States that antigens of the system were produced by 3 closely linked sets of alleles (D, C, and E genese)

Theory

A

Fisher-Race Theory

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

“d” denotes _

Fisher Race

A

Absence of D antigen

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

It states that two genes control the expression of Rh antigens (RHD and RHCE)

Theory

A

Tippet Theory

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

States that a single gene produces a single product that contains separately recognizable factors

Theory

A

Wiener Theory

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Discovered Rh Blood Group

A

Levine and Stetson

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Most important blood group system associated with HDN

A

RH Blood Group

RH gene: RHD and RHCE

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Most widely accepted Genetic Inheritance Theory

A

Tippet Theory

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Rh⁰

Blood Factor | Fisher Race Antigens

Wiener RH-HR Terminology

A

Rh₀hr’hr’’ | Dce

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Rh²

Blood Factor | Fisher Race Antigens

Wiener RH-HR Terminology

A

Rh₀hr’rh’’ | DcE

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

rh’

Blood Factor | Fisher Race Antigens

Wiener RH-HR Terminology

A

rh’hr’’ | Ce

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Rh^ᶻ or Rh^ʸ

Blood Factor | Fisher Race Antigens

Wiener RH-HR Terminology

A

Rh₀rh’rh’’ | DCE

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

R = _
r = _
1 or ‘ = _
2 or “ = _
Z or y = _
absence of 1 or ‘ = _
absence of 2 or “ = _

Wiener Terminology

A

D
d
C
E
CE
c
e

Q

Rh¹

Blood Factor | Fisher Race Antigens

Wiener RH-HR Terminology

A

Rh₀rh’hr’’ | DCe

Q

rh

Blood Factor | Fisher Race Antigens

Wiener RH-HR Terminology

A

hr’hr’’ | ce

Q

rhʸ or rh^ᶻ

Blood Factor | Fisher Race Antigens

Wiener RH-HR Terminology

A

rh’rh’’ | CE

Q

Wiener : r⁰R²
Fisher-Race: | Rosenfield:

A

dce/DCE | 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Q

rh’’

Blood Factor | Fisher Race Antigens

Wiener RH-HR Terminology

A

hr’rh’’ |cE

Q

Wiener : R¹r¹
Fisher-Race: | Rosenfield:

A

DCe/dCe | 1, 2, -3, -4, 5

Q

Wiener : rr^ᶻ
Fisher-Race: | Rosenfield:

A

ce/CE | -1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Q

Wiener : R’r”
Fisher-Race: | Rosenfield:

A

DCe/dcE | 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Q

Rh positive or negative depends on the presence of the _

A

D antigen

Rh + = Have D antigen
Rh - = No D antigen

Q

Most Immunogenic to least for DCEce

A

D>c>E>C>e

Q

What type of typing is used in Rh typing

A

Forward typing

They are not naturally occurring Ab

Q

It is required for the weak D detection

A

IAT (Indirect AHG test)

Q

RHD genes code for a weakened expression of D antigen. D antigens are complete but fewer in number

A

Genetic weak D

Q

Positional effect or gene interaction effect. Arrangement of the C antigen in relationship to the D antigen appears to interfere w/ expression of D antigen.

A

C in Trans to RHD

Q

One or more D epitopes is either missing or altered where the Rh positive with anti-D to the missing part.

A

Partial D/D Mosaic

Rh- blood should be transfused

Q

Weak D
as Patient is typed as _
as Donor is typed as _

A

Rh -
Rh +

Q

The individuals lack all Rh antigens on their RBC

A

RHnull

Associated with Stomatocytosis

Meaning they produce all Rh antibodies since they lack all antigens

Q

Reduced expression of all Rh antigens

A

RHmod

Q

Type of RHnull where is a mutation in the RHAG gene

A

Regulator-type RH null

Q

Type of RHnull where is a mutation in the RHCE and RHD genes

A

Amorphic type RHnull

Q

RH antibodies most are _ and reacts best at _

A

IgG | 37c

Q

RH antibodies causes _ hemolysis

A

extravascular

also causes HDFN and do not bind coplement

Q

Most severe HDFN

A

RH HDFN

mother is Rh negative and fetus ir Rh positive

Q

Most common HDFN

A

ABO HDFN

where mother is type O and fetus is type A or B

Q

It is done to check fetal distress and fetal lung maturity

A

Amniocentesis

Q

The use of whole blood or equivalent to replace the neonate’s circuating blood to prevent kernicterus

A

Exchange Transfusion

Q

Purpose of Intrauterine Transfusion

A

Transfusion of pRBC to fetus to correct anemia; maintain Hb>10g/dL

Sample crossmatching using Mother’s serum because fetus still has no antibodies

Q

Criteria for Exchange and Intrauterine Transfusion

A

Group O Rh- neg blood
<7 days old (reduces risk of hyperkalemia)
CMV negative
Leukoreduced
Irradiated
HbS negative

Q

Safest blood for baby

A

Group O Rh- negative blood

Q

It competes with the mother’s antibodies for the Fc receptors on the macrophage in the infant’s spleen

A

Intravenous Immune globulins

Q

It is administered to prevent immunization to D antigen

A

Rhogam

Q

Criteria for RhIg administration

A

Mother is Rh- negative
Baby is Rh-positive or Rh-unknown
Mother is not previously immunized and has nto formed anti-D

It is given 72 hours after birth

Q

Regular dose of vial is sufficient to protect against _ mL _ or _ mL _

A

15mL pRBC or 30mL WB

Q

Screening Test before Rhogam administration

A

Rosette Test

it checks the fetomaternal hemorrhage

Q

Quantitative test done to know how many vial is to be administered

determines the approximate vol. of Fetomaternal bleed

A

Kleihauer Betke Acid Elution Test

Ghost Cell: Mother’s Cell
Intact Cell: Fetal Cell
2000 cells are counted

Q

FMH 2 formulas

A

%fetal cell = (# of fetal cells / 2000 ) * 100
FMH = %fetal cell x 50
FMH = (Number of fetal cells * Maternal blood volume) / Number of maternal cells

estimated maternal blood is 5000mL

Q

Number of vials of rhogam to be administered formula

A

Number of vials = FMH / 30

(Then add one vial to the rounded calculated answer)

Since the kleihauer betke is an estimate

Q

A Kleihauer-Betke acid elution test identifies 50 fetal cells in 2,500 maternal redcells. How many full doses of RhIg are indicated?

A

5

Q

Difference of the M and N antigen

A

M antigen : 1st amino acid in Serine and 5th is Glycine
N antigen : 1st Leucine and 5th is Glutamic acid

MN antigen both easily degraded by enzymes

Q

Anti M reacts best at pH _

A

6.5 pH

And it is a naturally occurring antibody (IgM)

Q

Antibody that is seen in renal patients who were dialyzed on equipment sterilized with formaldehyde

Other blood group systems

A

Anti-N

an IgM

Q

Disease Associated with the GPAᴹ

A

Receptor for pyelonepgrogenic strains of E. coli

Q

Disease associated with GPA and GPB

A

Receptor for Plasmodium falciparum

P. falciparum -deadliest causative agent of malaria

Q

Associated disease with Anti-P1

A

Echinococcus granulosis and Fascioliasis

Q

Antibody that was first describe in the serum of Mrs. Jay a p individual

A

Anti-Tja/Anti-PP1Pk

Q

Associated abortion with Anti-Tja/Anti-PP1Pk

A

Spontaneous abortion

Q

Associated abortion with Alloanti-P

A

Habitual early abortion

Q

Pᵏ antigen disease associated

A

Shiga toxin and E.coli associated with HUS

Q

Disease associated with P antigen

A

Parvovirus B19

Q

Prevalenc of Lutheran phenotype

A

Lu(a-b+) > Lu(a+b+) > Lu(a+b-) > Lu(a-b-)

Homozygous B > Heterozygous AB > Homozygous A > Null

Q

The First Blood Group System discovered ater introduction of AHG

A

Kell Blood Group

Antigens are found only on RBCs

Expression of the Kell antigen is dependent on Xk protein

Q

Absence of Xk protein

A

McLeod Phenotype

associated with CGD and acanthocytosis

Q

Most common antibody after ABO and Rh antibodies

A

Anti-K

IgG | Implicated in HTR and HDFN

Q

2 antigen of the Lewis blood group

A

Leᵃnd Leᵇ

Q

Where is Le gene located

A

chromosome 19

must be preset for a precursor substance to Leᵃ

Q

Phenotype of Non secretor Lewis BGS | secretor | cord blood, pregnant mother

A

Le(a+b-) | Le(a-b+) |Le(a-b-)

Q

Leᵇ disease associated with

A

receptor of H.pylori and Norwalk virus

Q

Leᵃᵇ disease associated with

A

marker for Reedsternberg cell

Seen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Q

Le (a-b-) disease associated with

A

increased susceptibility to Candida and Uropathogenic E. coli

Q

Duffy antigens

A

Fya, Fyb

destroyed by enzyme

Q

Fy(a-b-) disease association

A

Resitance to P.vivax and P.knowlesi

Q

Which blood group system is associated with resistance to Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium knowlesi

A

Duffy blood group

Q

Blood group antigens that are Microbial Receptors

A

MNS
Duffy
P
Lewis
Cromer
Ok

Mom, Dad, Palo CROMER, Ok?

Q

Kidd blood group 3 antigens

A

Jka, Jkb, Jk3

Antibodies : Anti-Jka and Anti-Jkb

Q

Most common cause of the Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (DHTR)

A

Kidd Blood Group System

Delayed ang pag iisip ng bata kaya DHTR

Q

At birth RBCs are rich in _ antigen and in adult RBCs are rich in _ antigen

I or i

A

i | I

only trace amount of i antigen in adult

Q

Adult i antigens is associated with

A

Congenital cataracts in Asians

Conditions assocaited with increased i antigen:
Dyserythropoiesis and HEMPAS (Hereditary Erythroblastic Multinuclearity w/ a Positive Acidified Serum Test)

Q

It consists of strong IgM agglutinins reacting up to 30-32deg C and associated with M.pneumoniae

A

Pathologic autoanti-I

Q

Anti-i is associated with what disease

A

Infectious mononucleosis

Q

Donates blood for own use and safest blood to be transfused

A

Autologous Donor |autologous blood

For patients with rare blood type

Q

Collection of whole blood with the concurrent infusion of crystalloid or colloid solutions

A

Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution

Q

Ratio for crystalloids and colloids

Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution

A

3:1 | 1:1

Q

Collecting shed blood from the surgical site, processing the blood, and reinfusing the blood immediately

A

Intraoperative Collection

Q

Collecting of blood from a drainage tube placed at the surgical site where the blood is dilute, partially hemolyzed, and defibrianted

A

Post Operative Salvage

Blood must be reinfused within 6 hrs

Q

3 Types of allogenic donors

A

Voluntary Non-Remunerated Donors
Directed Donors - yellow tag (if blood relative unit is irradiated to prevent GvHD)
Paid Donors

Q

Allogenic Donation age and weight requiremet

A

16 year old | 50kg/110lbs

Q

Autologous Donation age and weight requiremet

A

No age/weight requirement

Q

Temp for Blood donation

A

upper limit is 37.5 deg C / 99.5deg F

Q

Pulse rate for Autologous and Allogenic Donation

A

50-100bpm (athletes can be <50bpm)

Q

Blood Pulse for Autologous and Allogenic Donation

A

Systolic 90-180 mmHg Diastolic 50-100mmHg

Q

Autologous Donation Heomglobin requirement and Hematocrit on both Male n Female

A

11 g/dL | 33%

Q

Allogenic Donation Hemoglobin and Hematocrit Female

A

12.5 g/dL & 38%

Q

Allogenic Donation Hemoglobin and Hematocrit for Male requirement

A

13.0 g/dL & 39%

Q

In autologous donation what is the formula for volume to collect when donor’s weight is <50kg

A

Volume tocollect = (donors weight in kg/50)x450mL
Or if pounds then
Volume to collect = (donors weight in lbs/110)x450mL

Q

What label when volume to collect in Autologous is 300-405 mL

A

Low volume

Q

If volume to collect is less than 300mL then what formual to get amount of sol. to use

A

Reduced volume of anticoagulant = (volume to collect/450) x 63

Then amount of sol’n to be removed = 63mL - reduced volume of anticoagulant

Q

Donor is unable to donate blood for a limited period of time

A

Temporary Deferral

Q

Donor is unable to donate blood for someone else for an unspecified period of time due to current regulatory requirement

A

Indefinite Deferral

Q

Donor will never be eligible to donate blood for someone else

A

Permanent Deferral

May donate autologous blood

Q

Causes of Permanent Deferrals

A

HIV (+)
HBsAg(+)
HCV
Bovine Insulin
Dura mater graft
Tegison
Heophiliacs
Babesiosis
Chaga’s Disease
Leukemia
Growth Hormone administration

Q

Causes of Temporary Deferrals for 1 year

A

Travelers to malaria endemic areas (Pampanga)
Surgery
Received blood units
Tatto, body piercing
Needle Prick
Sexual contact with a prostitute with AIDS, Hepatitis, with hemophiliacs, or with IV drug users
Treated with gonorrhea or syphilis
Rabies vaccination
Rape victim
In prison for more than 3 days
HBIg

Q

Causes of Temporary Deferrals for 3 years

A

Immigrant from malaria endemic area
Soriatane
Diagnosed with malaria

Q

Causes of Temporary Deferrals for 1 month

A

Accutane
Proscar
Vaccines
-German measles (Rubella)
-Chickenpox

Q

Causes of Temporary Deferrals for 2 weeks

A

Vaccines
* Measles (Rubeola)
* Mumps
* Polie(sabin)
* Typhoid
* Yellow fever

Q

Causes of Temporary Deferrals for 48 hrs

A

Apheresis donation
Aspirin and aspirin containing drugs

Q

Causes of Temporary Deferrals for 8weeks / 2months

A

Blood Donation

If double blood donation 16 weeks or 4 months

Q

Childbirth length of deferral

A

9 months

Q

1st ad 2nd trimester abortion or miscarriage length of deferral

A

no deferral

Q

Men who had sex with men length of deferral

A

12 months

Q

Small vaccination length of deferral

A

14 - 21 days or until the scab has fallen off

Q

Clopidogrel and Ticlopidine length of deferral

A

14 days

Q

Double Red Cell Apheresis length of deferral

A

16 weeks

Q

Intake of Alcohol length of deferral

A

12 hours

Q

Feldene length of deferral

A

2 days for platelet donation

Q

In aseptic technique if allergic to iodine what is the alternative

A

Chlorhexidine gluconate and Isopropyl alcohol

Q

Collection of specific blood component and returning remaining whole blood components back to the patient

A

Apheresis

The only effective method in collecting leukocytes and stem cells

Anticoagulant is citrate

Q

To separte cells this is done in Apheresis Technique by their densities

A

Centrifugation

Q

It is where there is a single puncture and blood is processed in batches or cycles

Methods of Centrifugation

A

Intermittent Flow Centrifugation

Q

It has two puncture sites where the blood withdrawal, processing, and reinfusion are performed simultaneously

Methods of Centrifugation

A

Continuous Flow Centrifugation

Q

Donor deferral for frequent Plasmapheresis

A

2days/48 hours

Q

Donor deferral for Infrequent Plasmapherisis

A

4 weeks / 1 month

Q

Deferral for Plateletpheresis

A

7 days or 1 week

Q

A sedimenting agent used in Leukapheresis to engance separation fo RBC from WBC

A

HES (Hydroxyethyl Starch) and GCSF (Granulocyte Colony Stimulating Factor)

Q

Weight guideline for Double RBC Pheresis

A

Male : Minimum of 130lbs
Female: minimum of 150 lbs

Q

Height guideline for Double RBC Pheresis

A

Male : 5’1
Female : 5’5

Q

Hematocrit guideline for Double RBC Pheresis

A

Male and Female : >40%

Q

FDA requirement for Blood preservation

A

75% RBC survival in 24 hrs

Q

Shelf life of blood with Acid-Citrate Dextrose (ACD)

A

21 days

Q

Shelf life of blood with Citrate Phosphate Dextrose (CPD)

A

21 days

Q

Shelf life of blood with Citrate Phosphate Double Dextrose (CP2D)

A

21 days

Q

Shelf life of blood with Citrate Phosphate Adenine (CPDA-1)

A

35 days

Q

Shelf life of blood with CPDA-2

A

42 days

Q

Anticoagulant, chelates calcium

Component of Blood Preservative

A

Citrate

Q

Substrate for ATP production

Component of Blood Preservative

A

Dextrose

Q

Prevents caramelization

Component of Blood Preservative

A

Citric Acid

Q

Maintains pH during storage

Component of Blood Preservative

A

Monobasic Sodium Phosphate

Q

Production of ATP (Extends shelf life)

Component of Blood Preservative

A

Adenine

Q

Additives that prolongs the pRBC for 42 days

A

Adsol
Nutricel
Optisol
SOLX

Q

Decreased in RBC

RBC storage lesions

A

% viable cell
Glucose
ATP
pH
2,3 DPG

Q

Increased in RBC

RBC storage lesions

A

Plasma Potassium
Plasma Hemoglobin
Lactic Acid

Q

Oxygen Dissociation Curve

RBC storage lesions

A

Shift to the left

Q

Reviving expired RBC up to 3 days only

A

Rejuvenation

It regenerates ATP and 2,3 -DPG

Q

The only FDA approved rejuvenation solution

A

Rejuvesol

Contais PIPA : Phosphate, Inosine, Pyruvate, Adenine

Q

Blood group systems associated with the Complement Component pathway

A

KCCC (Knops, Cromer, Chido Rogers, CD59)

Q

Complement component associated with Chido antigen

A

C4b

Q

Complement component associated with Rogers antigen

A

C4a

Q

Speed and time for Hardspin

A

5000g / 3600 rpm for 5mins

Q

Speed and time for Lightspin

A

3200 rpm for 2-3mins

Q

It provides the oxygen carrying capacity (RBC) and blood volume expansion

A

Whole Blood Transfusion

For acute blood loss

Q

Whole bood temperature for storage

A

1-6deg C

Q

Whole bood temperature for transport

A

1-10 deg C

Q

1 unit increases _ Hgb ; _ Hct

A

1g/dL Hgb ; 3 Hct

in whole blood and pRBC

Q

Unit given especially if patient is at risk for circulatory overload. It restores oxgen carrying capacity (RBC mass) of the patient

For normovolemic patients

A

pRBC (packed Red Blood Cell)

Q

If pRBC or Whole blood is on an open system then its shelf life is _

A

24 hours

Q

It is done for a prolonged storage of rare blood types and autologous units

A

Frozen and Deglycerolized RBC

Q

the Most commonly used cryoprotective agent

A

Glycerol

penetrating

Q

Storage Temperature for High Glycerol Frozen RBC

A

-65deg C

Allows slow freezing

Q

Storage temperature of Low Glyerol Frozen RBC

A

-120deg C

Q

Frozen RBC Shelf-life

A

10 years

Q

Deglycerolization Process

A

Thaw at 37deg C
Wash in decreasing concentration of saline
12%, 1.6% then 0.09 w/ 0.2% Dextrose
If with sickle cell trait, omit 1.6% because it will cause lysis of blood

Q

Frozen RBC shelf life after deglycerolization in Open system

A

24 hours

Q

Frozen RBC shelf life after deglycerolization in Closed system

A

14 days

Q

Washed RBC storage temperature and shelf-life

A

1-6degC : 24 hrs

Q

Washed Platelet storage temperature and Shelf-life

A

20-24C; 4 hours

Q

Leukoreduced RBC/Platelet must be prepared within _ hrs of collection

Storage of RBC | Platelet

A

6 hrs

1-6 degC | 20-24deg C

Q

Leukoreduced RBC Open system shelf life | Close system shelf life

A

24 hours | Original exp date

Q

Leukoreduced RBC shelf life in Open system | Close System

A

4 hours | 5 days

Q

Quality Control of Leukoreduced RBC

A

[5.0x106 residual WBC; ]
85% RBC mass

Q

Leukoreduced Platelet Quality Control random donor

A

8.3 x 105 residual WBC

Q

Leukoreduced Single Donor Platelet Quality Control

A

5.6 x 106 residual WBC

Q

Blood components for patients at risk at TA-GVHD or Immunocomporised patients

A

Irradiated RBC

Q

Storage temperature for Irradiated RBC

A

1-6deg C

Q

Shelf-Life of Irradiated RBC

A

Till original expiration or 28 days from the date of irradiation

whichever expiration is sooner

Irradiation of platelets does not affect the shelf life of platelet product

Q

Radiactive source of Irradiated RBC

A

Cesium-137 or Cobalt-60

Q

Minimum dose of radiation in Irradiated RBC

A

Central portion: 25Gy
Any part of the blood unit: 15Gy

Q

Blood given to correct thrombocytopenia, dysfunctional, PLT, DIC

A

Platelet conccetrate (Random Donor)

Must be prepared within 4 hours of whole blood collection

Q

Blood components given to patients unresponsive to Random Donor Platelet due to HLA alloimmunization

A

Single Donor Platelet Concentrate

Must be prepared within 4 hours of whole blood collection

Q

Platelet concentrate storage temp and pH

A

20-24C with continuous agitation

pH >6.2

Q

Platelet concentrate Shelf-life

A

5 days

FDA standards define the expiration is at midnight of day 5

when opened: 6 hours at RT

Q

Pooled platelet shelf life

A

4 hours

Q

Prepooled platelet concentrate shelf life

A

5 days

Q

Quality Control of Random Donor Platelet

A

. >5.5x10¹⁰ platelets

Q

Quality Control of Single Donor Platelet

A

. >3.0 x 10¹¹

Q

Used for multiple coagulation factor deficiency (liver damage, vit K deficiency)

A

FFP (Fresh Frozen Plasma)

Must be prepared within 8 hours collection

Q

Shelf life when temperature is
-18C | -65C

A

1 year | 7 years

Q

Shelf life after thawing of fresh frozen plasma on 1-6 C

A

24 hours

Q

Same composition with FFP but with slightly reduced level of Factor VIII

A

PF24

Q

This is the plasma that is held at 4C prior to freezing withing 8 to 24 hours

A

PF24

Q

Plasma held at Room temp within first 8 hours then is frozen

A

PF24RT24

Q

Thawed plasma can be maintened at 1-6C for up to _ days

A

4 days

Q

It is used for treatment of fibrinogen deficiency, hemophilia A, von Willebrand disease and Factor XIII deficiency

A

Cryoprecipitate

Q

Storage and Shelf-life of Cryoprecipitate

A

-18C | 1 year

Thawed 20-24C (6 hours)
Pooled 4 hrs

Q

Given to patients with Neutropenia, Granulocyte dysfunction, unresponsive to antibiotics and myeloid hypoplasia

A

Granulocyte concentrate

Q

Storage and Shelf life of Granulocyte Concentrate

A

20-24C | 24 hours

Q

Granulocyte Concentrate Quality control

A

. >1.0 x 10¹⁰

Q

Blood label Yellow

A

Blood type A

Q

Blood label Pink

A

Blood tpye B

Q

Blood label White

A

AB

Q

Blood label Blue

A

Blood type O

Q

Blood label Tan

A

Hold for further testing

Q

Blood label Gray

A

Not for transfusion

Q

Blood label Orange
Green

A

For emergency use only
For autologous use only

Q

Blood label
Purple | Red

A

Irradiated | Biohazard

Q

Blood label Chartreuse

A

From therapeutic phlebotomy

Q

Specimen must have at least _ unique patient identifiers

Pretransfusion

A

2

px identifiers: Full name and Date of birth or medical record.

Q

Blood label Yellow, salmon

A

For directed donation

Q

Hemolyzed specimen is acceptable

True | False

A

False

Q

Specimen must be kept for _ days post transfusion

A

7

Q

Lipemia is not a cause for rejection

True | False

A

True

Q

Age of specimen < 4 days old

T | F

A

False

. < 3 days old

Q

Pretransfusion test performed

A

ABO typing
Rh Typing
Ab screening and Id

Q

Additional technique in Ab identification which dissociates the Ab from the RBC surface to allow for identification

A

Elution

Q

Universal recipient of pRBC

A

AB

1st choice: AB
2nd: A
3rd: B
4th: O

Q

Universal donor of pRBC

A

O

Q

Final check of ABO compatibility between donor and px, to a lesser extent, detection of unidentified Ab

A

Crossmatching

Q

Compatibility testing of donor red cell and recipient plasma/serum

A

Major Crossmatching

MARS (Major Recipient plasma/serum)

Q

Compatibility testing of donor plasma/serum and recipient red cell

A

Minor Crossmatching

MIDS (Minor Donor serum)

Q

Used only for patients who have no currently detected clinically significant Ab or history of alloantibodies

A

Computer Crossmatch

Q

For emergency transfusion, ABO specific blood shoud be given if not known then give _

A

O Rh-negative blood

Rh positive blood can be used for male patients or female above childbearing age

Q

Transfusion of 10 units of blood within 24 hours

A

Massive Transfusion

Diluting fluid: 0.9% saline, 5% albumin

Q

Adverse effects of Transfusion where signs and symptoms are seen within 24 hours of transfusion

A

Acute/Immediate

Q

Adverse effects of Transfusion where signs and symptoms are seen after 24 hours of transfusion

A

Delayed

Q

Most common Acute Immune adverse reaction in Transfusion

A

Febrile Non-Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction

1C increase in body temperature

Q

It is the 2nd most common Transfusion reaction

A

Mild allergic Reaction

Due to Ab to allerges (IgE)

Q

Anti-IgA ab from IgA deficient patient causes Anaphylactic reaction

A

Sever Allergic Reaction

Give washed RBC without IgA

Q

Is defined as IgA level less than 0.05 mg/dL

A

Absolute IgA deficiency

Q

It shows Post-transfution to Pre-transfusion BNP ratio of 1.5

A

Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO)

Physician Induced

Q

Most common bacterial isolate found in RBCs

A

Y. enterocolitica

Q

Second most common Bacterial contaminant in RBCs

A

Pseudomonas

Q

It shows unexpected drop in hemoglobin or hematocrit

A

Delayed HTR

Q

Most common cause of Delayed HTR

A

anti-Kidd antibody

Q

Chelating agent used to prevent Iron overload

A

Deferoxamine

Q

Most common parasitic complication of transfusion

A

Plasmodium species

Q

Most common cause of Disease Transmission in Transfusion Reaction

A

HBV

Q

A

Q

A

Q

A

Q

A

Q

A