Immuno Quiz from teams Flashcards

1
Q
1. Which of the following is an important mediator produced by mast cells and basophils causing vascular dilatation and smooth muscle contraction in the immediate IgE-dependent allergic reaction?
Histamine
PGD2
Platelet activating factor (PAF)
IL-13
A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
2. Which of the following cytokines is critical for the growth and survival of CD3+CD4+CD25 high regulatory T cells?
IL-10
IL-2
IL-1
IL-4
A

IL-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is consistent with the process of clonal selection?
    The specificity of a lymphocyte antigen receptor changes to accommodate the structure of an antigen that binds to it.
    Many different antigen receptors with different specificities are expressed on each lymphocyte.
    Lymphocytes do not express antigen receptors on their cell surfaces until after exposure to antigen.
    The diversity of the lymphocyte repertoire for antigens is very small before exposure to antigen but increases significantly after antigen exposure.
    The diversity of the lymphocyte repertoire for antigens is very large before exposure to antigen, with millions of different clones of lymphocytes, each having a different specificity.
A

The diversity of the lymphocyte repertoire for antigens is very large before exposure to antigen, with millions of different clones of lymphocytes, each having a different specificity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
4. In naive T cell recirculation, entry of the cells into peripheral lymph nodes occurs through which specialized vessel?
Efferent lymphatic
Thoracic duct
Central artery
High endothelial venule
Sinusoid
A

High endothelial venule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
5. Which one of the following are neutrophils attracted/recruited to by an infected area?
IgM
Complement C1
Complement C5a
Complement C8
Complement C3b
A

Complement C5a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which of the following do patients with severely reduced Complement C3 levels tend to have?
    Increased numbers of viral infections
    Increased numbers of bacterial infections
    Low gamma globulin levels
    Frequent episodes of hemolytic anemia
    Increased occurrence of lupus erythematosus
A

Increased numbers of bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
7. Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their surfaces?
IgE
Gamma interferon
Class I MHC antigens
Class II MHC antigens
Complement CR2
A

Class II MHC antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
8. Which one of the following produces superoxide anion (O2-) in respiratory burst?
NADPH oxidase
FAD reductase
lysozyme
superoxide dismutase
myeloperoxidase
A

NADPH oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
9. The most common co-stimulatory interaction for T cell activation involves CD28 on the naive T cell binding to the\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ on the antigen-presenting cell (APC):
CD4 mofule
B7 molecule
IgD splicing mechanism
CD40
CD40 ligand
A

B7 molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. The most common defect in chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) is attributed to:
    chemotactic machinery in neutrophils is disabled
    defective cell adhesion molecules in endothelium
    NADPH oxidase deficiency in phagocytic cells
    neutrophil are arrested in development at myelocyte stage
    T-helper lymphocytes are incompetent
A

NADPH oxidase deficiency in phagocytic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which of the following is least likely to be considered a part of innate immunity?
    antibody production by plasma cells
    chemical agents from various body secretions
    neutrophils and natural killer cells
    Toll-like receptor on phagocytic cells
    respiratory tract being coated with mucus
A

antibody production by plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
12. Which of the following substances is NOT a cell-derived component of vascular edema?
histamine
perforin
platelet activator factor (PAF)
prostacyclin
prostaglandin
A

perforin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
13. Neurtrophils and eosinophils develop in which primary lymphoid organ?
Bone marrow
Lymph nodes
Spleen
Thymus
A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
14. The\_\_\_\_\_\_\_cell is the mature B lymphocyte able to respond to antigen in secondary lymphoid tissues?
IgD+
IgG+
IgM+
IgM+IgD+
IgM+IgG+
A

IgM+IgD+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. A cytokine with paracrine activity acts upon:
    An adjacent cell from the cell of origin
    The same cell which secreted the molecule
    An interferon-gamma secreting cell
    Cells in a different vascular-tissue location
    Progenitor stem cells
A

An adjacent cell from the cell of origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
16. Which of the following cells is part of the adaptive immune system?
Basophils
Eosinophils
Fibroblasts
Neutrophils
Plasma cells
A

Plasma cells

17
Q
17. Macrophages were once what type of peripheral blood cell?
Basophil
Eosinophil
Monocyte
Neutrophil
Platelet
A

Monocyte

18
Q
18. The mechanism of the adaptive immune system in humans to directly eliminate virally infected cells involves which cell type
CD4+ Th1 cells
CD4+ Th17 cells
CD8+ T cells
Macrophages
Plasma cells
A

CD8+ T cells

19
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT considered a primary purpose of inflammation?
    generate inflammatory mediators to sustain response
    localization to eliminate cause of pathogenic insult
    promote and sustain tissue injury/destruction
    reaction of living tissue in response to injury
    restore normal physiology
A

promote and sustain tissue injury/destruction

20
Q
  1. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
    T-cell activation: cell division and differentiation
    effector B cell: plasma cell
    plasma cell: antibody secretion
    natural T cell: kills parasite
    helper T cell: facilitates B cell differentiation
A

natural T cell: kills parasite

21
Q
  1. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
    plasma cell: phagocytic and killing of microorganisms
    dendritic cell: activation of adaptive immune responses
    natural killer cell: develops from lymphoid stem cell
    neutrophil: formation of pus
    regulatory T cell: inhibition of T cell effector activity
A

plasma cell: phagocytic and killing of microorganisms

22
Q
  1. What are the consequences of CD40L expressed on an antigen-stimulated T cell binding to CD40 on an APC?
    Increased CD4-T cell binding to MHC II-peptide
    Increased expression of B7 co-stimulators
    Increased T cell CD3 signaling of T cell receptor
    Increased expression of constitutive TLR’s on APC
A

Increased expression of B7 co-stimulators

23
Q
  1. Affinity maturation occurs in the _____________of lymph nodes and is the result of _______________ of Ig genes in dividing B cells, respectively:
    Paracortex and switch recombination
    Medulla and RAG-1/-2 recombination
    White pulp and homologous recombination
    Germinal center and somatic hypermutation
A

Germinal center and somatic hypermutation

24
Q
24. Lymphocyte markers often test for CD3, CD4, CD8, CD19, and CD16/56 cells. CD16/56 cells
are which one of the following?
B cells
T helper cells
Total T cells
Cytotoxic T cells
NK cells
A

NK cells