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Term 2 > Immuno Pre-Midterm > Flashcards

Immuno Pre-Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

RAG 1,2

A

Somatic recombination (V,D,J recombination)

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2
Q

Tdt

A

Joins V,D,J at junctions

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3
Q

A pan B cell marker

A

CD19

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4
Q

CD79a CD79b also called

A

Igalpha, Igbeta

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5
Q

CD79a CD79b

A

Associate with membrane Ig to initiate intracellular signaling with B cells

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6
Q

Which CD’s are associated with the BCR complex?

A

CD19, 21, 81
B7-CD28
CD40-CD40L

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7
Q

When is CD20 first expressed?

A

Pre-B cells

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8
Q

Disruption of IL-4

A

Prevents isotype switching to IgE

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9
Q

BLyS

A

Cell surface protein on monocyte, macro, dendritic; an overexperssion of BLyS –> survival of autoreactive B cells

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10
Q

BtK kinase

A

Pro B cell stage –> Pre B cell stage

XL-Agammaglobinemia

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11
Q

X linked-Agammaglobinemia

A

Mutation in BtK kinase

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12
Q

S protein, also called

A

Vitronectin

Prevent MAC (C5b, 6, 7

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13
Q

Function of S protein

A

Prevent MAC (C5b, 6, 7)

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14
Q

Function of vitronectin

A

Prevent MAC (C5b, 6, 7)

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15
Q

CD59

A

Prevents C8 in MAC

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16
Q

Regulators of alternative complement pathway

A

Factor H (C3b)
DAF (C3 convertase)
Factor I (C3b inactivate)
AI

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17
Q

Regulators of classic complement pathway

A 
C1 INH (C1 / kallekrein)
DAF (C3 convertase)
Factor I (C4b inactivate)
AI
C4Bp
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18
Q

Common regulators of classic and alternative complement pathways

A

DAF (CD 55)

Factor I

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19
Q

Another name for CD55

A

DAF

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20
Q

What is properdein? What is another name for it?

A

Also called Factor P; stabalizes C3 convertase (alternate)

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21
Q

A deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor leads to…

A

Hereditary angioedema

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22
Q

Which complement factor is a chemotactic factor and an anaphylatoxin?

A

C5a

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23
Q

Activates alternative complement pathway

A

IgA

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24
Q

Ab in breast milk

A

IgA

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25
Q

Ab of mast cells/basophils

A

IgE

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26
Q

Ab called reaginic Ab

A

IgE

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27
Q

Ab on immature B cells

A

IgM

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28
Q

Ab’s that activate classical complement pathway

A

IgM*, IgG

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29
Q

Difference between papain & pepsin

A

Papain: 2Fab
Pepsin: Fab2

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30
Q

Who has a FC-gamma-receptor?

A

Monocyte, macrophage, neutrophil, B cell

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31
Q

Which Ab’s have a J chain?

A

IgA, IgM

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32
Q

IgA is generally: mono/di/trimer

A

Dimer

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33
Q

IgM in plasma is…

A

Pentamet (Membrane = monomer)

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34
Q

Ab with longest 1/2 life

A

IgG

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35
Q

Ab associated with isohemagluttins

A

IgM

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36
Q

Dendritic cells express… (CD’s, etc.)

A

B7-1; B7-2 (CD80, 86, 28)

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37
Q

Differentiate between unique features of Class 2 and Class 2 MHC

A

Class 2: invariant chain

Class 1: beta-2-microglobulin

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38
Q

CR1

A

phagocytes, RBC’s

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39
Q

CR2

A

B cells; EBV!!!

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40
Q

C3a-C4aR

A

Mast cells, basophils

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41
Q

C5aR

A

Mast, basophils, endothelial cells

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42
Q

MHC is on what chromosome?

A

6

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43
Q

The 3 opsonins for phagocytosis

A
  1. CRP
  2. IgG
  3. C3b
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44
Q

Differentiate between somatic recombination, somatic mutation, switch recombination

A

Somatic recombination: V,D,J
Somatic mutation: affinity maturation (non-genomic)
Switch recombination: genomic isotype switching

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45
Q

ICAMI/LFA1; LF3/CD2

A

Stabalize B-cell - T-cell receptor complex

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46
Q

What keeps memory B-cells in recirculation?

A

Down regulation of L-selectin; no HEV entry

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47
Q

Downregulation of iNOS

A

TGFB, IL-4, IL-10

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48
Q

Increased secretion of IFN-gamma by NK cells

A

IL-12

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49
Q

CRP

A

IL-6

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50
Q

NK –> LAC

A

IL-2

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51
Q

Murine/mouse

A

Class I

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52
Q

CD3

A

5 invariant polypeptides on T cell surface; link the Ag binding site with signaling pathways

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53
Q

CD79a/b is to B cells, as _____ is to T cells

A

CD3

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54
Q

Differentiate the variable regions of B & T cells.

A

B: heavy + light (h = VDJ, l = VJ)
T: alpha/beta (a=VJ; b=VDJ) or gamma/delta

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55
Q

CD19 is to B-cells as CD__ is to T cells

A

CD2

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56
Q

What is a double positive T cell?

A

CD4 and CD8 expressed

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57
Q

What is allelic exclusion?

A

If a VJ or VDJ recombination is successful on one of the alleles (e.g, father‟s allele), then recombination will not occur on the other allele (mother‟s allele). If, however, the attempted recombination is unsuccessful on the first attempted allele, then recombination will be attempted on the second allele. If the recombination is unsuccessful on both alleles, the cell dies

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58
Q

When does tolerance induction take place for T cells?

A

After TCR-CD3-DP stage

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59
Q

Differentiate between positive and negative T cell selection.

A

Positive: low affinity interaction / allowed to survive
Negative: high affinity interaction T cell-MHC / killed

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60
Q

Negative selection is more finely tuned in the thymic cortex or medulla.

A

Medulla (APC’s are bone marrow derived; not just thymic epithelial cells)

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61
Q

APECED

A

Mutation in the AIRE gene, which primarily affects endocrine organs

62
Q

Describe how naive lymphocytes make their way to lymph nodes.

A

Through HEV’s

  1. L-selectin
  2. Integrins / LFA-1
  3. Metalloproteinases / degrade collagen
63
Q

Why don’t memory B cells reside in lymph nodes?

A

No L-selectin!

64
Q

What are the two nTregs & transcription factor?

A

CD4, 25

FOX P-3

65
Q

Depletion of nTregs can lead to…

A

Enhanced immune responses to pathogens, tumor rejection

66
Q

Differentiate between central and peripheral tolerance

A

Central: BM/T
Peripheral: Tregs

67
Q

IPEX Syndrome

A

Multiorgan autoimmune inflamm disease; Mutation of FOX-P3 (tReg)

immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, X-linked syndrome. This disorder presents as watery diarrhea, eczema, and Type I diabetes (or other endocrine pathology). Bone marrow transplantation or large doses of immunosuppression are required; otherwise infected males typically die within first two years of life.

68
Q

The AIRE gene

A

Enables synthesis of all different types of cells in the thymic medulla to test for autoreactivity (i.e. insulin secreting cells)

69
Q

What are the 3 chatacteristic features of an innate response?

A

Complement, phagocytosis, cell-mediated toxicity

70
Q

Who are the anaphylatoxins?

A

C3a, 4a, 5a

71
Q

Lysosomes have these enzymes

A

Lactoferrin (iron)
Lysozyme (muramic acid)
Defensins
MPO (myeloperoxidase) – generate hypochlorite

72
Q

The battlefield inside of a phagosome includes:

A
  1. Lysosomal enzymes
  2. ROS
  3. RNS
73
Q

Myeloperoxidase, though a lysosomal enzyme…

A

requires hydroxyl from NADPH oxidase

74
Q

The most prominent down regulator of RNS/ROS

A

TGFbeta (IL-4, 10)

75
Q

A genetic defect in NADPH oxidase

A

CGD

76
Q

How do natural killer cells know who to kill?

A

FC-gamma-receptor

77
Q

Differentiate between direct and indirect recognition of pathogens.

A

Direct - PPRR’s, TLR, NOD

Indirect - IgG, C3b, CRP

78
Q

Natural killer cells are enhanced by…

A

IL-12, 2

79
Q

Who has FC-epsilon-receptor, Major Basic protein?

A

Eosinophils

80
Q

Dendritic cells in the skin are called…

A

Langerhan’s cells

81
Q

The 2 modes of entry of HIV into a cell..

A

CCR5, CXCR4

82
Q

T/F Dendritic cells are in the brain

A

False

83
Q

Differentiate between MHC 1 & 2

A

1: A, B, C (CD8) – beta-2-microglobulin
2: DP, DQ, DR (CD4) – invariant chain

84
Q

HSV

A

Sabotaging expression of Class I MHC; sequestered inside neurons for life

Neurons already have little MHC1

85
Q

How are HLA expressed in humans?

A

Co-dominant

86
Q

EBV

A

Latent infection in B cells; inhibits activity of proteasome

87
Q

CMV

A

redirects MHC1 to be degraded by proteasome

* Symptoms in immunocompromised patients (encephalitis, pneumonia, hepatitis, retinitis, blindness)

88
Q

Who is the most effective APC?

A

Dendritic cell; everywhere but brain; B7-1,2, Cd80,86

89
Q

From which CD are dendritic cells derived?

A

34

90
Q

Define avidity

A

Overall binding energy

91
Q

What co-stimulatory signals influence B cells?

A

B7/CD28; CD40/40L (isotype switching)

92
Q

Describe T-cell maturation stages

A

CD2 –> pre-TCR-CD3 (transient) –> pre-TCR-CD3-DP –> TCR-CD3-DP (tolerance induction) –> TCR-CD3-SP (lineage selection)

93
Q

Another name for IL-8

A

CXCL8 (Macrophages + endothelial cells) * Neutrophils

94
Q

Another name for MCP-1

A

CCL2 (Macrophages + endothelial cells) * monocytes

95
Q

Another name for CCL11

A

Eotaxin (Epithelial cells + fibroblasts)

96
Q

Major chemokines

A

IL8/CXCL8, CCL2/MCP-1, CCL11/Eotaxin

97
Q

CD28

A

On T cells; binds to B7-1 (CD-80) & B7-2 (CD-86)

98
Q

CD19, 20, 21

A

On B cells

99
Q

CD54

A

Another name for ICAM-1 (which binds LFA-1-integrin)

100
Q

ICAM-1

A

Also called CD-54; binds LFA-1 (integrin)

* On endothelial cells

101
Q

LFA-3

A

Also called CD58; binds CD2

102
Q

CD55

A

DAF (complement)

103
Q

CD59

A

Inhibits; C8/Membrane Attack Complex

104
Q

IgA is a monmer/dimer/pentamer

A

Dimer

105
Q

Factor P

A

Properdein (stabalizes C3 convertase/alternative)

106
Q

In order for a pCTL to develop into a CTL over the course of 1 week, there is a requirement for these cytokines from ____ cells.

A

IL2, IFN-gamma

Th1 cells

107
Q

Delivery of the “lethal hit” by CTL’s can be one of two methods. What is the molecule required?

A

Osmotic lysis – perforin
Apoptosis

  • Ca dependent or independent
108
Q

T/F The CTL lives after delivering the lethal hit

A

True

109
Q

Who requires LESS co-stimulation for activation: CD4 or CD8 T cells?

A

CD8

110
Q

Among the T cells, who Secretes cytokines that enhance macrophage cytotoxicity

A

Th1 cells

111
Q

Superantigens present to …

A

CD4 at a site outside the normal TCR site

112
Q

B or T: LPS

A

B

113
Q

B or T: Pokeweed

A

B & T!

114
Q

B or T: Concav A

A

T

115
Q

B or T: Phytohemagglutin

A

T

116
Q

Which two cytokines promote the differentiation of a Thp cell into a Th17

A

IL-6, TGFB

117
Q

Th17 cells are most effective at fighting these types of infections…

A

Fungal

118
Q

What is the role of IL-23?

A

It is a stabilization factor for the dendritic cell-Thp cell interaction

119
Q

This cytokine promotes the division of Th0 cells into a/i Tregs

A

TGFBeta

120
Q

Where do CD8+ responses occur?

A

Anywhere in the body

121
Q

Which cytokine is responsible for amplifying the response of IL-17?

A

IL-21

122
Q

T/F Th17 cells are chemotactic for neutrophils

A

True

123
Q

Describe CTLA-4

A

Also called CD152; binds to B-7-1 and B-7-2 with greater affinity than CD 28
* Negative T cell activator

124
Q

Describe the CD200/CD200R interaction

A

Down-regulates the T cell response

125
Q

This cytokine promotes the Th0 –>Th1 pathway

A

IFN-gamma

126
Q

This cytokine promotes the Th0 –>Th2 pathway

A

IL-4

127
Q

Another name for CD40L

A

CD154

128
Q

Who are the two co-stimulatory molecules in the APC-T cell interaction?

A

CD80 (B-7-1) & CD86 (B7-2) —bind to—-CD28 (CD-28 has a higher affinity for CTLA 4, which downregulates the T cell response)

129
Q

What is special about superantigens?

A

They bind to allosteric sites

130
Q

What are the characteristics of inflammation?

A

Redness, heat, pain, edema

131
Q

Classically, an inflammatory response is caused by 4 major events:

A
  1. Complement
  2. Mast cell degranulation
  3. Coagulation cascade
  4. Macrophages/neutrophils
132
Q

The intrinsic coagulation plays an important role in tissue damage. What factor is attracted to damaged collagen & what are the downstream effects?

A

Factor 12 –> Factor 11
(Pre-kallekrien –> kallekrin)
Kallekrein cleaves HMW kininogen to bradykinin - a vasodilator
Kallekrein also cleaves C5 to C5a (histamine release)

133
Q

Three molecules promote vasodilation in infection.

A
  1. Bradykinin
  2. Histamine
  3. Leukotriene b4
134
Q

Differentiate between the source of P & E selectin

A

P: from cytoplasmic stores
E: de novo synthesis (stim by IL-1, TNF)

135
Q

Where is L-selectin expressed?

A

Circulating/non-inflammatory lymphocytes

136
Q

Different families of integrins are based on what chain?

A

Beta (1,2,7)

137
Q

What is one of the most important metalloproteinases?

A

Gelatinase B (Cleaved by elastase); secreted by many leukocytes

138
Q

Transmigration of leukocytes through endothelial junctions is done by this interaction

A

PECAM-PECAM

139
Q

What is responsible for hypotensive shock?

A

IL-1, TNF, IL-6 — systemic vasodilation

140
Q

Who acts on the hypothalamus to induce fever?

A

IL-1, TNF

141
Q

Adaptive immune responses to primary infections occur in…

A

Secondary lymphoid tissue

142
Q

Adaptive immune responses to secondary infections occur in…

A

Primary site of infection

143
Q

Differentiate between MMP2 MMP9

A

MMP2 = progelatinase A (inflammation)
MMP9 = progelatinase B (VIP, VLA-4 interaction)
* Secreted by T-cells as matrix metalloproteins

144
Q

How do T cells know how to get to the site of infection?

A

Integrins LPAM, VLA4 — interaction with VCAM1

145
Q

What is the role of type 1 cytokines at the site of primary infection?

A

IL-2, TNF, IFN-gamma – activate macrophages

CD40-CD40L interaction

146
Q

What is the role of type 2 cytokines at the site of primary infections?

A

Down-regulation of Type 1 cytokines; elimination of microbes, tissue healing, shedding of adhesion molecules

147
Q

What is the role of Th17 cells at the site of primary infection?

A

Autoimmune role

148
Q

From whom is bradykinin derived?

A

High molecular weight kininogen

149
Q

Which one of the following molecules is chemotactic for neutrophils and induces enhanced adhesiveness of Mac-1 and LFA-1? IL-2, 4, 6, 8, 10

A

IL-8

150
Q

Which T cell/endothelium interactions may have a dual role in the steps leading to T cell diapedesis?

A

LPAM/VCAM-1

VLA-4/VCAM-1

151
Q

What is another name for VLA-4?

A

CD49a

Term 2 (8 decks)

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