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MSRA > Immuno/ID > Flashcards

Immuno/ID Flashcards

1
Q

What type of virus is HIV and what is the most common mode of transmission

A

Double stranded RNA

Sex

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2
Q

Which organisms are associated with the following sputum types?

  1. Rust coloured
  2. Green coloured
  3. Red-currant jelly
  4. Foul smelling/bad tasting
A
  1. Strep pneumoniae
  2. Haemophilus, Pseudomonas, pneumococcal
  3. Klebsiella
  4. Anaerobes
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3
Q

Chagas disease organism and presentation

A

Trypanasoma Cruz

Bite by Reduviid bug, forms nodule/scar
10-20 years later:
GI Sx: dysphagia, bloating, constipation
Cardiac manifestations: arrhythmia, HF, arrest

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4
Q

Yellow fever Px and Dx test

A

Acute phase: fever, myalgia, appetite loss, N+V for 3-4 days
SLOW PULSE in context of fever (60bpm)

Dx: ELISA

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5
Q

Weil’s disease route, organism, Px and Rx

A

Spread by infected rat urine
Leptospira interrogates
Abrupt fever, myalgia, cough, CP
+/- haematuria, jaundice, meningitis, renal failure, uveitis

Rx: IV Pen or Amox

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6
Q

River blindness organism and Px

A

Onchocerciasis

skin changes
itching
nodules
vision change
SSA
NB. can take years for Sx to occur
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7
Q

Name some live vaccines

A 
MMR
Oral typhoid
BCG
Yellow fever
Rotavirus
Polio
INTRANASAL influenza (Paeds)
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8
Q

Teenage vaccinations

A

12-13yo: HPV

12-18yo: tetanus, diphtheria, polio “3in1 booster” + Men ACWY

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9
Q

Which antimicrobial can cause drug-induced lupus (DLE) and which antibody tends to be +ve?

A

Isoniazid
Anti-histone

(Procainamide and hydrazine can also cause DLE)

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10
Q

Antibodies in dermatomyositis

A

Anti-Jo

Anti-Mi2

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11
Q

Antibody in scleroderma (aka limited systemic sclerosis)
And what parts of body are affected?
~CREST

A

Anti-centromere

Face, hands, feet

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12
Q

Which virus is associated with nasopharyngeal cancer?

A

EBV

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13
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity definition and an example

A

IgE mast cell mediated allergic reaction releasing histamine

eg. asthma, anaphylaxis, allergic rhinitis

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14
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity definition and an example

A

Antibody-dependent reaction binding blood elements

eg. Goodpasture’s, ABO, AIHA

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15
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity definition and an example

A

Immune-complex mediated ie. antibody binds antigen, deposit in tissues
eg. SLE, RA, EAA

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16
Q

Antibodies in antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Anti-cardiolipin
Lupus anticoagulant
Anti-b2-glycoprotein

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17
Q

Antibody in diffuse systemic sclerosis?
And what parts of body are affected?
~CREST

A

Anti-topoisomerase

Diffuse skin involvement + organ fibrosis

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18
Q

HIV PEP indications

A
  • Sexual intercourse with high risk person with unknown infection status
  • Occupational exposure to potential HIV infected bodily fluids

NB. Not indicated if HIV positive person on ART with undetectable viral load for 6months

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19
Q

Returned from Ecuador, develops fever, hepatosplenomegaly, LNopathy, neuro symptoms.

What is the organism?
What is the vector?
Treatment?

A

Bartanella bacilliformis
Sandfly
Penicillin (occasionally Chloramphenicol)

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20
Q

Sleeping sickness organism and vector?

A

Trypanosoma brucei

Tsetse fly

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21
Q

Incubation period for cholera

A

0-5 days

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22
Q

Which antimicrobial causes red urine?

A

Rifampicin

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23
Q

Type 4 hypersensitivity definition and an example

A

Delayed-type. T-cell mediated ie. does not involve antibodies
eg. contact dermatitis, Mantoux test, coeliac

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24
Q

Contraindications for rabies vaccine

A

Previous reaction to rabies vaccine

NOTHING ELSE!

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25
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever organism and vector and management?

A

Rickettsia rickets (most commonly)
Ticks
Rx: Doxy

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26
Q

What is DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Selective t-cell deficiency due to failure of development of third and fourth pharyngeal pouches

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27
Q

Example of a primary B-cell deficiency and what does it make you predisposed to?

A

Selective IgA deficiency (most common)

Prone to encapsulated Gram +ves

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28
Q

Leishmaniasis vector?

Types of leishmaniasis?

A 
Sand fly
Types:
- cutaneous: ulcers, life long scar
- mucocutaneous: nasal and buccal damage
- visceral: hepatosplenomeg, anaemia
29
Q

River blindness organism (itchy and vision loss)

A

Onchocerciasis volvulus

30
Q

Sources of tapeworm (diarrhoea with thin, flat, pale segments)

A

Infected raw meat
Ingesting faecal matter
Contaminated water

31
Q

Treatment of treponema pallidum

A

penicillin

32
Q

Tests for EBV

A

Paul Bunnel test

Monospot

33
Q

Antibodies in GuillanBarre

A

Anti-ganglioside

34
Q

Emergency IM BenPen doses

A

<1yo: 300mg
1-10yo: 600mg
>10yo: 1200mg

35
Q

Chlamydia partner notification

A

Aymptomatic men/all women: all partners from 6 months back
Symptomatic men: all partners from 4 weeks back

Treat all contacts

36
Q

Chlamydia treatment? (and if pregnant?)

A

7 days Doxy
OR
1g STAT Azithro

If pregnant: azith, erythro, or amox

37
Q

Candidal breast infection presentation + treatment

A

CONTINUE feeding

Treat mother and baby

38
Q

Who is offered the HPV vaccine and when?

What is the HPV vaccine?

A

ALL boys AND girls 12-13yo

2 doses of Gardasil

39
Q

What is treatment for TB

A

4months RIPE -> 4 months RI

40
Q

Side effects of RIPE

A

Rifampicin: hepatitis, red urine, liver inducer
Isoniazid: peripheral neuropathy
Pyrazinamide: hepatitis, gout
Ethambutol: visual defects

41
Q

PID Rx

A

PO Ofloxacin + PO Met
OR
IM Cef + PO Doxy + PO Met

42
Q

Contraindications to BCG

A 
Previous BCG
HIV
Positive Mantoux/Heaf
Previous TB
Pregnancy
Not recommended in >35yo
43
Q

Conjunctivitis ABx (+ if pregnant?)

A

Chloramphenicol

If pregnant: fusidic acid

44
Q

Pertussis Rx

A

Oral Azith or Clari (if onset of cough within last 21 days)

If pregnant: Erythro

45
Q

Meningitis Rx in children

A

<3mo: IV Cefotaxime + Amox
>3mo: IV Cefotaxime

If suspect Haemophilus and >1mo, add IV Dex

46
Q

Campylobacter Rx

A

Conservative unless severe

ABx: Clari (alternative Cipro)

47
Q

Erysipelas ABx

48
Q

Human bite ABx

49
Q

Dental abscess ABx

50
Q

Mastitis during feeding ABx

51
Q

SE of Cipro

A

tendinopathy eg. Achilles tendon rupture

lowers seizure threshold

52
Q

Genital warts are associated with which HPV?

How to treat?

A

HPV 6, 11

Multiple, nonkeratinised: TOP podophyllum
Solitary, keratinised: cryotherapy

53
Q

HIV PEP regime?

A

4 weeks of HAART

54
Q

Causes of STI Ulcers

A 
o	PAINFUL:
	Herpes (HSV)
•	Multiple
•	~UTI, oral/face ulcers, painful LNs can be b/l
	Chancroid (H. ducreyi)
•	Multiple
•	Unilateral, painful LNs
	NB. Behcet’s eg. if VTE etc
o	Painless:
	Syphilis
•	Chancre in stage 1
	LGV (Chlamydia)
•	1. Small painless pustule -> ulcer
•	2. Painful LNs
•	3. Proctocolitis
55
Q

Which virus causes the common cold?

A

Rhinovirus

56
Q

Threadworm treatment

A

Single dose of Mebendazole for patient and rest of household

Hygiene advice

57
Q

Which bacteria tends to affect those with SCD or malaria?

A

Salmonella typhi

58
Q

When do you offer HF patients the influenza vaccine?

59
Q

Indications for annual influenza vaccine?

Types of vaccine?

A

Children
= live vaccine, intranasal

All >65yo
all adults with single organ failure
all DM
pregnant
BMI >40
= inactivated vaccine, IM
60
Q

Leptospirosis presentation and Rx

A

Who: farmer, sewage worker, vets, hepatorenal patients

Sx: fever, flu, renal failure, jaundice, subconjunctival haemorrhage, headache

Rx: Benpen or doxy high dose

61
Q

Indications to prolong UTI treatment to 5-10 days

A

Immunosupression
Renal failure
Abnormal urinary tract

62
Q

EBV associated malignancies

A

Nasopharyngeal carninoma
Burkitts lymphoma
Hodgkins lymphoma

63
Q

Lyme disease Rx? First and second line

A

Doxy
Amox if Doxy c/i
Ceftriaxone if disseminated

64
Q

Which ABx cause cholestasis as a SE?

A

Coamox, Fluclox

65
Q

Treatment for ringworm

A

Antifungals

66
Q

Keratomalacia, what is it + features?

A

Visual disease secondary to vitamin A deficiency
Following progression of xeropthalmia

Features:
nightblindness
tunnel vision
dry conjunctiva
decreased visual acuity
67
Q

Haemorrhagic colitis bacteria

A

Enterobacteria eg. e coli

68
Q

Tumour marker for breast ca

A

Ca 15-3

Ca 27.29

MSRA (18 decks)

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