Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

People with a genetic deficiency in late components are at a higher risk for Neisseria meningitidis. What process is most crucial against the defense of N. meningitidis?

A

Formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC) for microbe lysis.

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2
Q

Gram negative infection from E. coli can activate what complement to start the classical pathway?

A

C1 complement can bind the E. coli endotoxin to activate the classical pathway.

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3
Q

Define Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome.

A

A condition where there are no MHC II proteins and therefore a direct inhibition of antigen presentations to Th cells (CD4). This mitigates cell-mediated immunity.

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4
Q

What cytokines do Th2 cells secrete?

A

Anti-inflammatory cytokines involved in Humoral immunity and allergies (acute hypersensitivity). These include:
IL-4: stimulates degranulation of mast-cells
IL-5: activates eosinophils
IL-13: activates macrophages

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5
Q

What cytokines do TH1 cell secrete?

A

Pro-inflammatory cytokines involved in cellular immunity and chronic infections (delayed-type hypersensitivity). These include:
IFN-gamma: activates macrophage killing capacity of ICF microbes
IL-2: T-cell growth and proliferation

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6
Q

What cytokines do Th17 cells produce?

A

Cytokines involved in neutrophilic and monocytic inflammation to fight ECF bacteria and fungi.
IL-17A: activate monocytes in the inflammatory process
IL-22: activates innate immune responses in epithelial cells (gut and respiratory tract)

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7
Q

What 3 major roles do complements play in inflammation?

A

Recruit phagocytes, microbial lysis (via MAC complex) and make it easier for macrophages to phagocytose coated microbes.

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8
Q

What is the function of Natural Killer (NK) cells?

A

NK cells target pathogens or unhealthy cells. They are extracellular killers that use performing, defensive and proteases to cause apoptosis of infected cells or lysis of microbes. Release IFN-gamma to activate macrophages.

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9
Q

What occurs in germinal center reactions?

A

B-cell activation for BCRs with higher affinity and class-switching recombination to IgG isotype. This mediates protection at the second exposure some time after immunization.

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10
Q

Loss of what transcription factor in T-regs results in an autoimmune disease? Explain the significance of this.

A

Loss of FOXP3 transcription factor can result in IPEX autoimmune disease because T-cells are not regulated or inactivated. This can manifest as DM I, diarrhea, dermatitis and can kill children within the first 2 years of life.

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11
Q

Compare and contrast central tolerance from peripheral tolerance.

A

Central tolerance involves + and - selection to which self-reactive T-cells can be turned into T-regs or killed at the thymus. Peripheral tolerance results in apoptosis, anergy or regulation of escaped, self-reactive T-cells.

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12
Q

Cells that lack what type of presenting peptide cannot go through positive selection?

A

Lack of MHC 1 and MHC 2 prevents a T-cell from going through positive selection in central tolerance. This is because only cells that bind to some MHC molecules survive.

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13
Q

What is the significance of the AIRE gene pertaining to autoimmunity?

A

Autoimmune regulator gene drives the expression of tissue specific antigen encoding genes. It’s due to this gene that epithelial-reticular cells of the thymus enable this organ to express all types of protein antigens. Lack of AIRE results in autoimmunity (DM I, Addison’s disease and yeast infections).

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14
Q

Describe the 2 ways in which a prolonged infection can cause autoimmunity.

A
  1. Molecular mimicry in which an antigenic protein that looks like a naturally-occuring protein in our body can cross-react leading to AI (i.e. Strept B and endocarditis).
  2. By-stander activation: killing of infection can cause collateral damage due to infiltration and a damaged self-protein can be mistaken as an antigen.
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15
Q

Explain how nature vs. nurture argument can be applied to the dev’t of autoimmunity.

A

Certain HLA subtypes (related to genetics) and an environmental trigger can increase the likelihood of developing an autoimmunity. (i.e. DR1 and DR4 at higher risk of developing DM I).

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16
Q

Define CTLA-4 as well as it’s clinical importance.

A

CTLA-4 is a receptor on T-cells that down-regulates an overactive response by binding to CD80 (aka B7) on APCs. CTLA-4 blockade therapies (i.e. Abatacept) can be used to prevent this binding and treat moderate to severe rheumatoid arthritis (RA).

17
Q

Describe the significance of ICAM-1/ LFA-1 proteins.

A

These are integrin-like peptides that are essential for leukocyte adhesion. Lack of this interaction leads to Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency Type 1 in which phagocytes cannot migrate to area of infections. This can present as a high neutrophil count in the blood despite a persistent infection since they cannot migrate.

18
Q

Describe the importance of the CD80/ CD28 interaction.

A

CD80 on APCs binds with CD28 on T-cells in a process known as “co-stimulation” of the T-lymphocyte.

19
Q

Define CD40 and CD40L.

A

CD40L, a ligand on activated T-cells, is involved in class-switching from IgM to IgE for an allergic presentation.

20
Q

Describe how a bacterial endotoxin can bypass complement activation.

A

The endotoxin can bind Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on monocytes to activate an inflammatory response.

21
Q

What type of immune cell induces tolerance to luminal antigens in the GI tract?

A

Immature Dendritic Cells (DCs) with the help of M-cells at the follicular-associated epithelium help induce tolerance to luminal antigens.

22
Q

Describe 4 mechanisms in which regulatory T-cells (Tregs) help out with immunity.

A
  1. Cytolysis
  2. Targeting DCs
  3. Metabolic disruption
  4. Inhibitory Cytokines
23
Q

What events depicts a pattern of immunological response in tuberculoid leprosy? (CMI level, TH1/TH2, humoral response) Why?

A

High CMI levels indicate activation of macrophages to contain M. Leprae. TH1 response would predominate as indicated by the activation of macrophages. Granulomas and local inflammation indicates a normal immune response.