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Immunity Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the correct sequence for donning PPE?

A

Gown
Mask or respirator
Googles or face shield
Gloves

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2
Q

What is the correct sequence for doffing PPE?

A

Gloves
Face shield
Gown
Mask

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3
Q

What are 3 illnesses that would require airborne precautions?

A

Tuberculosis
Measles (rubeola)
Chicken pox (varicella)

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4
Q

How many air changes per hour in airborne precautions?

A

6-12

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5
Q

Which 6 illnesses would require contact precautions?

A 
MRSA
VRE
C-Diff
E.Coli
Hep A
Rotavirus
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6
Q

What are 8 illnesses that would require droplet precautions?

A 
Diphtheria
Strep
Pneumonia
Influenza
Pertussis
Meningitis
Mumps
Rubella
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7
Q

What would the neutrophil count have to be for reverse isolation?

A

Less than 500

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8
Q

What is a left shift?

A

When bands of immature neutrophils increase it indicates that there is an infection that has used up all the segmented neutrophils.

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9
Q

What is the normal ESR?

A

Less than or equal to 20

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10
Q

What does an increased ESR mean?

A

Inflammation or infection

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11
Q

What is the normal count of neutrophils segs? Bands?

A

55-70%

5%

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12
Q

What is the function of neutrophils and macrophages?

A

Phagocytosis

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13
Q

What is the normal count for basophils?

A

1%

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14
Q

What is the function of basophils?

A

Release histamine and heparin in areas of tissue damage

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15
Q

What is the normal count for eosinophils?

A

1-2%

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16
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A

Release vasoactive amines histamine during allergic reactions to limit these reactions.

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17
Q

What is the function of tissue mast cells?

A

Maintain and prolong the inflammatory and hypersensitivity reactions.

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18
Q

What is the normal count of monocytes?

A

3%

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19
Q

What is the function of monocytes?

A

Destruction of bacteria and cellular debris. Mature into macrophages

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20
Q

What is the function of B-lymphocytes?

A

Become sensitized to foreign cells and proteins

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21
Q

Why is the function of plasma cells?

A

Secrete immunoglobulin in response to the presence of specific antigens

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22
Q

What is the function of memory cells?

A

Remains sensitized to a specific antigen and can secrete increased amounts if immunoglobulins specific to the antigen in re-exposure

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23
Q

What is the function of helper T cells?

A

Enhances immune activity through secretions of various factors, cytokines, and lymphokines.

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24
Q

What is the function of cytotoxic/cytolytic T-cells?

A

Selectively attacks and destroys non-self cells including vitally infected cells, grafts, and transplanted organs.

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25
What is the function of natural killer cells?
Nonselectively attacks nonself cells that have undergone mutation and become malignant; also attacks grafts and transplant organs
26
IgA
Secretory antibody that is present in high concentrations in the secretions of mucous membranes and in intestinal mucosa. Most responsible for preventing infection in the upper and lower respiratory tracts, GI tract, and GU tract. 15%
27
IgD
<1% activates immature B cells
28
IgE
<1% degranulates basophils and mast cells during inflammatory responses.
29
IgG
75% activates compliment, neutralizes toxins, enhances phagocytosis, and provides sustained immunity
30
IgM
10% Activates complement , clears antigens through precipitation, mediated autoimmune reactions and ABO incompatibility reactions
31
CD4+
Helper/inducer T-cells that are the army callers
32
CD8+
Suppressor T-cells that prevent hypersensitivity
33
CD16+
NK cells
34
Hyperacute rejection
Immediate antibody-mediated response that is non-reversible
35
Acute rejection
Within 1 week to 3 months after transplant and can be stopped with drug therapy
36
Chronic rejection
Similar to chronic inflammation and scarring and the patient will need another transplant
37
Calcineurin inhibitor
For tissue transplant rejections Cyclosporine Tacrolimus
38
Corticosteroids for tissue transplant rejections
Prednisone | Can cause moon face, weight gain, slower wound healing, increased blood glucose, psychosis
39
Antiproliferative agent
Azathioprine Mycophenolate Sirolimus Everolimus
40
What are the two short term therapies for rescue therapy in tissue transplant rejection?
Monoclonal rejection | Polyclonal rejection
41
What should you assess with systemic lupus erythematosus?
Urine
42
What is the main drug to treat Lupus?
Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)
43
For scleroderma, what does CREST syndrome mean?
``` Calcinosis Raynaud's phenomenon Esophageal dysmotility Sclerodactyly Telamgiectasia ```
44
What are some drugs to treat Gout?
Colchicine Allopurinol Decrease purine in the diet
45
What are some treatments for psoriatic arthritis?
``` Methotrexaste Sulfasalazine 1% hydrocortisone cream Etanercept Golimumab ```
46
Treatment for fibromyalgia
Lyrica Antidepressants Regular exercise
47
What is the normal value for CD4+
600-1200
48
How high does the viral load have to be to receive meds for HIV?
55,000
49
How long once a person becomes infected with HIV does it take to show up in the blood?
2-6 months
50
Stage one HIV
CD4 count 500 or greater with no AIDS
51
Stage 2 HIV
CD4 count 200-499 with no AIDS
52
Stage 3 HIV
CD4 count less than 200 and documented AIDS
53
Stage 4 or unknown HIV
No information
54
What is the main OI for HIV?
Pneumocystitis jiroveci pneumonia or PCP
55
AIDS wasting
Loss of more than 10% of body weight and more than 30 days of diarrhea
56
What is a normal CD 8 count?
300-600
57
When do you start drug therapy to prevent pneumocystis?
CD4 count less than 200
58
When do you start drug therapy to prevent toxoplasmosis and crypticoccosis?
CD 4 less than 100
59
When do you start drug therapy to prevent mycobacterium about complex
CD 4 less than 75
60
Nucleoside Analog RT
Reverse teanscriptsse and inhibit viral DNA synthesis and replication; Retrovir and AZT
61
Non-nucleoside Analog RT inhibitors
Suppress viral replication but does not kill the virus
62
Protease inhibitors
Block the HIV protease enzyme, inhibiting viral replication and release of viral particles
63
Fusion inhibitors
Block the fusion of HIV with a host cell by blocking the ability of gp41 to fuse with the host cell therefore it cannot infect other cells
64
Entry inhibitors
Prevent infection by blocking CCR5 receptor on CD4 cells
65
Integrase inhibitors
Inhibits the enzyme integrase which is needed to transfer viral DNA into the host
66
What is the daily dose for AZT?
500-600mg daily
67
What are 5 main side effects of AZT?
``` Headaches High blood pressure General ill feeling NV Fatigue ```
68
How does AZT work?
Slows down the destruction of T4 cells
69
What are the three most serious side effects of AZT?
Anemia Granulocytopenia Myopathy
70
Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
Congenital or primary immunodeficiency that begins in infancy; unable to produce antibodies
71
What is the treatment for Bruton's agammaglomulinemia
Immune serum IV every 3-4 weeks
72
Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
Increased production of IgE. Atopic allergy Hay fever Allergic asthma Anaphylaxis
73
Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
Reaction of IgG with host cell membrane or antigen. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Goodpastures syndrome Myasthenia gravis
74
Hypersensitivity type 3 reaction
Immune complex mediated Form immune complexes that deposit in walls of blood vessels and result in complement release of inflammation. SLE RA
75
Hypersensitivity reaction 4
``` Delayed Release lymphokines which activate macrophages and induce inflammation. Poison ivy Graft rejection TB skin tests ```
76
Sjogren's Syndrome
Dry mucous membranes with no cure however immune suppression can slow
77
Goodpasture's syndrome
Autoantibodies are made against the glomerular basement membrane and neutrophils, primarily effecting the kidneys and lungs. SOB, hemoptysis, decreased output, weight gain, edema, HTN, tachycardia High dose corticosteroids

Med Surg (6 decks)

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