Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RNSG 1533 > Immunity > Flashcards

Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

MMR Vaccine

A

2 doses: 12-15mo and 4-6yr

Giving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

DTaP Vaccine

A

5 doses: 2mo, 4mo, 6mo, 15-18mo, and 4-6yr
Persistent, inconsolable crying 3+ hrs, fever, seizures, shock, acute encephalopathy within 3 days
Contraindicated if any of the above Sx w/last dose
IM deltoid or thigh
Td booster q10years, and should always have a Tdap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Polio (IPV) Vaccine

A

4 doses: 2mo, 4mo, 6-24mo, 4-yr
SubQ in anterolateral thigh
Allergy to bacitracin, neomycin or streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hib Vaccine

A

4 doses: 2mo, 4mo, 6mo, 12-15mo
IM mid-thigh or outer upper arm
Fever, crying, diarrhea, vomiting
Prevention of bacterial meningitis, epiglotitis, bacterial PNA, septic arthritis, sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Varicella Vaccine

A

2 doses: 12-15mo, 4-6yr
SubQ outer upper arm or anterolateral thigh
Varicella-like rash (>incidence in leukemia pts, and higher when using MMRV v. MMR + V)
After vaccination, avoid high risk people so you don’t give them chicken pox (pregnant, neonates, immune comp)
Keep frozen until use; use within 30min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

HepB Vaccine

A

3 doses:
If mom is HepB-, give within 12hrs of birth, 2nd @ 1-2mo, 3rd @ 6mo
If mom is HepB+, same, but give HBIG within 12hrs of birth, too
IM: neonates/infants=thigh, teens/adults=deltoid
Avoid asipirin after for pain
Contraindicated: anaphylactic reaction to previous dose or to baker’s yeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HepA Vaccine

A

2 doses: (6mo apart) 12mo old, then 6-12mo after that
Recommended for travel to places with high rates of occurence, communities with frequent outbreaks, gay men, illegal drug users, those with chronic liver disease, pts who get clotting factors, people who work with non-human primates or HAV
Loss of appetite or malaise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pneumococcal Vaccine (PCV13, PREVNAR)

A

4 doses: 2mo, 4mo, 6mo, 12-18mo
IM: thigh in infants, deltoid toddlers/young children
Drowsiness, loss of appetite, irritable, fussy
Shake before use (suspension)
Prevents otitis media, septicemia, meningitis, sinusitis, PNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Meningococcal Vaccine

A

1 dose, + booster: 11-12yr, booster @ 16yr [if 1st does before 16yr, no booster needed)
(those w/immunodefiency, bad spleen, or increased risk for exposure get booster q5yrs)
IM: deltoid
headache, induration, not risk for GBS
College freshmen, military, microbiologists, travelers, injured or no spleen (or spleen function), terminal complement component deficiency, exposure to meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Rotavirus Vaccine

A 
3 doses: 2mo, 4mo, +4-10wks after that
Oral doses (powder for suspension)
Risk for intussusception (bowel obstruction: folds in on itself)
Contraindicated: infants with congenital GI malformation, hx of inussusception, SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency) pts, severe diarrhea, vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HPV Vaccine

A

3 doses: 11-12yo, 2nd @ 2mo after, 3rd @ 6mo after
IM: deltoid or thigh
Fainting, GBS, death
NOT for pregnant, only protects from getting HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

AOM (Acute Otitis Media) Diagnosis

A
  1. Acute onset of S/Sx (ear pain, pulling ear, fever, vomiting, anorexia, irritability, sleeplessness, and diarrhea)
  2. Middle-ear effusion (bulging tympanic membrane (TM), limited mobility of TM, purulent otorrhea)
  3. Middle-ear inflammation (distinct erythema of TM, or distinct otalgia (ear pain))
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

AOM Pain Management

A

ibuprofen, acetaminophen, codeine, topical anesthetic (antipyrine, benzocaine)
DO NOT use topical anesthetics if TM is perforated
how to use: fill ear with med, plug with solution soaked cotton, repeat q1-2hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Antibiotic Resistant AOM

A

Treat with PO high dose amoxicillin/clavulanate

Clavunlunate can cause diarrhea, keep dosage low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Prevent AOM

A

Breastfeed >6mo, avoid child care centers when respiratory infections high, X tobacco smoke, reduce pacifier use between 6-12mo, avoid supine bottle feeding (propping the bottle), prevent/treat flu and pneumococcal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tympanostomy Tubes

A

Placed into an incision in the eardrum under general anesthesia
Complications: obstruction of tube, secondary infection with otorrhea, premature tube extrusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

OM with Effusion

A

Occurs with upper respiratory infections
Characterized by fluid in the middle ear without evidence of local/systemic illness.
Hearing loss, but no pain
Antibiotics don’t work, DON’T use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Surgical Treatment for OM

A

Myringoplasty—an operation to close the peforation of the tympanic membrane
Myringotomy—an incision of eardrum to relieve pressure or drain fluid
Adenoidectomy—a procedure to remove adenoids (mass of lymphoid tissue behind the nasal passages), this is recommended for chronic OM
Mastoidectomy—procedure to remove diseased mastoid air cells to prevent spreading into skull
Tympanoplasty—operation involving tympanic membrane and evaluation of middle ear
Tympanoplasty may be accompanied with or without mastoidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Nursing Priorities for OM

A

Hand hygiene
Medications
Warm compress
Facilitate drainage
Prevent complications or recurrence by patient education on S/Sx
Educate patient & family
Effects of smoking (related to respiratory and ear infections)
Hold up the baby during feedings, DO NOT prop up the bottle
Encourage breastfeeding for at least 6 months
Decrease pacifier use past 6 months
Prevnar vaccine
Swimmer’s ears—high risk for children—use appropriate preventive measures
Provide emotional support
Keep ears dry
Use sterile swabs or ear wicks in case of rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

OM***

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Meds for UTI

A 
sulfonamides
trimethaprim
aminoglycosides
cephalosporins
fluoroquinolones
UT antiseptics: nitrofurantoin and methenamine
22
Q

Acute Cystitis S/Sx

Drugs of Choice

A

dysuria, urinary urgency, urinary frequency, suprapubic discomfort, pyuria, and bacteriuria
(30% also have asymptomatic upper UTI)
Drug of choice: trimethaprim/sulfamethoxazole or nitro furantoin [uncomplicated cystitis]
[uncomplicated pyelonephritis] drug of choice trimethaprim/sulfamethaxazole or trimethaprim alone
[severe pyelonephritis] use IV cipro, ceftriaxone, ceftazinidine, ampicilin/gentamicin, or ampicillin/sulbactam

23
Q

Complicated UTI Causes

A

Caused by funtional abnormality

prostatic hypertrophy, renal calculi, nephrocalcinosis, renal/bladder tumors, ureteric strictures, indwelling catheter

24
Q

Reinfection (UTI)

A

Another infection by a different organism
More than 3/yr = prophylactic tx:
trimethoprim 100mg, nitrofurantoin 50-100mg, trimethaprim/sulamethoxazole 40/200mg
Continue for at least 6mo with periodic urine cultures
If from intercourse, pee after or one time dose of trim/sulfa after intercourse

25
Q

Relapse (UTI)

A

Recolonization of same organism
Could be from structural abnormalities, involvement of kidneys, or bacterial prostatitis
Relapse after short course therapy=2wk course therapy
if fails, 4-6wk therapy up to long term therapy

26
Q

nitrofurantoin (UT antiseptic)

A

PO (crystalline suspension (less GI) or capsules)

X pregnant women, infants

27
Q

Methenamine (UIT antiseptic)

A

Don’t use with sulfonamides or urinary alkalinizers (sodium bicarb, diuretic acetazolamide)

28
Q

UTI Nursing Interventions

A

Assess Abdomen
Assess labs
Encourage patient to drink 8 to 10 glasses of fluid per day
Encourage patient to void every 2 hours
Teach proper perineal bathroom hygiene (Front to Back)
Educate avoidance of caffeine/alcohol/citrus juices
Encourage consumption of cranberry juice
Drink pineapple juice
Vitamin C

29
Q

Pneumonia Nursing Interventions

A

Assess respiratory rate, depth, work of breathing.
Observe color of skin, mucous membranes, and nail beds, noting presence of peripheral cyanosis or central cyanosis.
Assess mental status.
Monitor heart rate and rhythm.
Monitor temp as indicated, assist with comfort measures to reduce fever and chills; addition or removal of bedcovers, comfortable room temp, tepid of cool water sponge bath.
Elevate head of bed and encourage frequent position changes, deep breathing, and effective coughing.
Assess anxiety level and encourage verbalization of feelings and concerns.
Monitor ABGs and pulse oximetry.

30
Q

An elderly client diagnosed with pneumonia may exhibit which of the following symptoms first?

A

Altered Mental state and dehydration

31
Q

A patient admitted to the ED complains of chest pain, dyspnea, rust colored sputum and decreased O2 saturation is noted. Which of the following would be appropriate nursing interventions? (select all that apply)
A) Collect sputum culture, CBC, ABG’s, & serum electrolytes
B) Auscultate lung sounds
C) Obtain an order for MRI
D) Place the client on fluid restrictions
E) Raise the head of bed to 30 degrees

A

A) Collect sputum culture, CBC, ABG’s, & serum electrolytes
B) Auscultate lung sounds
E) Raise the head of bed to 30 degrees

32
Q

A 79 year old client is admitted with pneumonia, which nursing diagnosis should take priority?
A) Acute pain r/t lung expansion secondary to lung infection
B) Risk for imbalanced fluid volume
r/t insensible fluid losses secondary to fever
C) Ineffective airway clearance r/t retained secretions
D) Anxiety r/t dyspnea and chest pain

A

C) Ineffective airway clearance r/t retained secretions

33
Q

The nurse is preparing to perform an otoscopic examination on an adult client. The nurse does which of the following to perform this examination?
pulls the pinna up and back before inserting the speculum
pulls the earlobe down and back before inserting the speculum
uses the smallest speculum available to decrease the discomfort of the exam
tilts the clients head forward and down before inserting the speculum

A

A- The nurse tilts the client’s head slightly away and holds the otoscope upside down as if it were a large pen. The pinna is pulled up and back and the nurse visualizes the external canal while slowly inserting the speculum. Options B, C, and D are incorrect.

34
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with acute otitis media. In order to reduce pressure and allow fluid to drain, the nurse anticipates that which of the following would most likely be recommended to the client?
the administration of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) capsules
a myringotomy
strict bedrest
a mastoidectomy

A

B- A myringotomy is a surgical procedure that will allow fluid to drain from the middle ear. Benadryl is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties. Strict bedrest is not necessary, although activity may be restricted. Additionally, bedrest would not assist in reducing pressure or allowing fluid to drain. In some cases, the mastoid bone is removed or partially removed for chronic otitis media.

35
Q

Tetracyclines (PNA)

A

Side Effects: N/V/D, cramps, epigastric burning, yellow/brown teeth, C. diff, yeast overgrowth, lethary and jaundice=hepatotoxicity, renal toxicity, photosensitivity
GI: give with meals, don’t give at bedtime
Don’t give with milk, Ca supps, iron supps, Mg laxatives, or antacids
Caution!!: digoxin and warfarin

36
Q

Cellulitis S/Sx

A 
Warm to touch
Tender
Erythematous
Edematous area with line of demarcation 
“Chilling”
Malaise (body aches)
Fever
Skin “shiny” in appearance
37
Q

Osteomyelitis S/Sx

A 
Fatigue
Irritability
Fever
Nausea
Tenderness
Warmth in area of infection
Swelling around effected area
Loss of ROM
38
Q

Cellulitis/Osteomyelitis Nursing Interventions

A 
Fatigue
Irritability
Fever
Nausea
Tenderness
Warmth in area of infection
Swelling around effected area
Loss of ROM
39
Q 
The nurse would assess a client admitted with cellulitis for which of the following localized signs?
A. pain 
B. fever 
C. chills 
D. malaise
A

A. Pain, redness, heat, and swelling are all localized signs of cellulitis. Fever, chills, and malaise are generalized, systemic manifestations of inflammation and infection.

40
Q 
The nurse assess which of the following clinical manifestations in a client with osteomyelitis? (Select all that apply)
A. Night sweats 
B. Cool extremities 
C. Petechiae 
D. Fever 
E. Nausea 
F. Restlessness
A

A, D, E, and F: Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone characterized by both local and systemic manifestations. Systemic manifestations include fever, chills, night sweats, nausea, malaise, and restlessness

41
Q

A child is admitted to the hospital several days after stepping on a sharp object that punctured her foot. The physician is concerned about osteomyelitis and has ordered parenteral antibiotics. Which of the following actions is done immediately before the antibiotic is started?
A- The admission orders are written.
B- A blood culture is drawn.
C- A complete blood count with differential is drawn.
D- The parents arrive.

A

A child is admitted to the hospital several days after stepping on a sharp object that punctured her foot. The physician is concerned about osteomyelitis and has ordered parenteral antibiotics. Which of the following actions is done immediately before the antibiotic is started?

42
Q

In a client admitted with cellulitis of the left foot, which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find on assessment of the left foot?A. cyanosis and coolness
B. pallor and poor turgor
C. redness and swelling
D. edema and brown skin discoloration

A

C. redness and swelling. Cellulitis is a diffuse, acute inflammation of the skin. It is characterized by redness, swelling, and heat in the affected area

43
Q 
What are some severe side effects for rotavirus vaccine? 
   Select all that apply.	
A. Seizure
B. Pneumonia
C. Fever
D. UTI
E. Headache
A

A,B,C,D

44
Q

What food allergy causes denial of the flu shot?

Bananas
Yogurt
Eggs
Kiwi

A

C: Eggs

45
Q

The nurse understands that unless contraindicated, in the U.S., all newborns receive which following immunization?

Meningitis
Tetanus
Hep A
Hep B

A

D: HepB

46
Q

When administering an IM injection to an infant, the nurse in charge should use which site?

Vastus lateralis
Deltoid
Stomach
Gluteal

A

A: Vastus Lateralis

47
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Sprain

A

Inflammatory response
Local swelling, warmth and redness
Increased sensitivity and pain to area
Decreased mobility of joint

Neurovascular compromise
Coolness and pallor
Decreased pulse and cap refill
Decreased sensation

48
Q

Types of Sprains

A 
First degree (mild)
Tears in a few ligament fibers, joint functions is not impaired
Second degree (moderate)
Partial disruption of involved tissue, joint is stable
Third degree (severe)
Complete tear in ligament, join is unstable
49
Q

The doctor reports that patient suffers from partial disruption of involved tissue around the ankle but the joint is stable. What type classification of sprain is the doctor referring to for this patient?

a) Third Degree
b) First Degree
c) Partial Degree
d) Second Degree

A

D: Second Degree

50
Q

The inflammatory response to a sprain results in: (select all that apply)

a) edema
b) decreased mobility
c) warmth and redness
d) full range of motion
e) jaundice
f) increased nerve sensitivity and pain

A

A, B, C, F

51
Q

Daptomycin (PNA)

A

myopthy (muscle pain, weakness, elevated CKP)

RNSG 1533 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions