Immune therapies Flashcards

1
Q

Contains preformed IgG against full range of organisms

Used for immune deficiencies and passive vaccination

A

A. Human Normal Immunoglobulin

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2
Q

Containes Ig specific to Rabies, VZV, HBV etc.

A

A. Specific immunoglobulin post-exposure prophylaxis

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3
Q

Used to boost immune response to HBV, HCV, Kaposi’s, Hairy cell leukaemia, CML and MM

A

A. INF-a

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4
Q

Used to boost immune response in relapsing-remitting MS

A

A. INF-B

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5
Q

Used to boost immune response in Chronic Granulomatous Disease

A

A. INF-y

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6
Q

Anti-CTLA4 antibody
Blocks immune checkpoint allowing T cell activation
Used in advanced melanoma

A

A. Ipilimumab

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7
Q

Anti-PD1
Blocks immune checkpoint allowing T cell activation
Used in advanced melanoma

A

A. Pembrolizumab/Nivolumab

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8
Q

This type of drug inhibits phospholipase A2, reducing prostaglandin synthesis
- Used in autoimmune and inflammatory disease as well as prevention and treatment of transplant rejection

A

A. Corticosteroids e.g. prednisolone

SE - Cushing’s syndrome, osteoporosis, peptic ulceration

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9
Q

This group of drugs are cytotoxic agents. Acting by inhibiting DNA synthesis, they target cells with rapid turnover. Can you name 4 examples and give their specific function?

A

A. Antiproliferative agents

  1. Cyclophosphamide - alkylating agent
  2. Mycophenolate mofetil - prevents guanine synthesis
  3. Azathioprine - metabolised to 6-MP which blocks de novo purine synthesis
  4. Methotrexate - inhibits DHFR
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10
Q

Give three side effects of anti-proliferative agents

A

A. Bone marrow suppression, teratogeny, infection

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11
Q

What must you be aware of when prescribing azathioprine?

A

A. TMPT polymorphism prevents metabolism in some people

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12
Q

When is plasmapheresis indicated?

A

A. Severe antibody mediated disease e.g. Goodpasture’s, myasthenia gravis, vascular rejection and antibody mediated rejection

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13
Q

What is the mechanism of tacrolimus and cyclosporin?

A

A. Calcineurin inhibitor –> prevents transcription of IL-2 –> reduces T cell proliferation
(Group: inhibitors of cell signalling)

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14
Q

Which inhibitor of cell signalling is less nephrotoxic?

A

A. Sirolimus

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15
Q

Can you name 5 inhibitors of cell signalling and give their specific mechanisms?

Hint: CASTT

A
A. 
Cyclosporin - calcineurin inhibitor 
Apremilast - PED4 inhibitor 
Sirolimus - blocks clonal proliferation of T cells
Tofacitinib - JAK inhibitor 
Tacrolimus - calcineurin inhibitor
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16
Q

What are the side effects of tacrolimus and cyclosporin?

A

A. Both nephro- and neurotoxic, HTN
Tacro: diabetogenic
Cyclo: gum hypertrophy, dysmorphism

17
Q

Anti-CD25 (IL2 receptor alpha chain) used in allograft rejection?

A

A. Basiliximab

18
Q

Anti-CTLA4 Ig used in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

A. Abatacept

19
Q

Anti-CD20 used in lymphoma, RA and SLE?

A

A. Rituximab

20
Q

Anti-alpha4 integrin used in MS and Crohn’s?

A

A. Natalizumab

21
Q

Anti-IL6R used in Castleman’s disease and RA?

A

A. Tocilizumab

22
Q

What is the mechanism of Muromonab-CD3 (OKT3) and when is it used?

A

A. Blocks CD3 on T cells (mouse monoclonal antibody)

Used in active allograft transplant rejection

23
Q

Can you name 6 agents directed at cell surface antigens?

Hint: barnTM

A
A. 
Basiliximab - anti-CD25
Abatacept - anti-CTLA4 Ig
Rituximab - anti-CD20 
Natalizumab - anti-alpha4 integrin 
Tocilizumab - anti-IL6R
Muromonab-CD3 - blocks CD3
24
Q

Which biologics are indicated in rheumatoid arthritis? Name 4.

A
A. infliximab 
adalimumab
certolizumab 
golimumab (all anti-TNFa) 
tofacitinib (JAKi), 
abatacept (CTLA4), 
tocilizumab (IL-6R), 
rituximab (CD20), 
etanercept (TNFa/BR p75-IgG fusion protein)
25
Which agent directed at cell surface antigens can result in CMV infection?
A. Alemtuzumab (used in CLL)
26
Which two agents target CD25 and are used in transplant rejection?
A. Basiliximab and Daclizumab
27
What is the mechanism and class of efalizumab?
A. Anti-CDIIa (cell surface antigen)
28
Which agent causes lymphocyte depletion and modulation of T cell activation and migration?
A. Anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG)
29
Give four examples of anti-TNFa antibodies used in rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ankylosing spondilitis and IBD.
A. Infliximab Adalimumab Certolizumab Golimumab
30
What is the mechanims of infliximab and adalimumab?
A. anti-TNFa
31
Which cytokine-directed agent is used in osteoporosis when bisphosphonates are contraindicated?
A. Denosumab - anti-RANKL Also used in MM and bony mets
32
Anti-IL-12 and IL-23, used in psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis?
A. Ustekinumab
33
Mechanism of secukinumab?
A. Anti-IL-17 Used in psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis and ankylosing spondilitis
34
Which agents make patients more susceptible to infection with TB?
A. Agents directed against cytokines e.g. infliximab, etanercept, ustikinumab etc.
35
Mechanism of golimumab?
A. Anti-TNFa
36
Which agent alkylates guanine base of DNA?
A. Cyclophosphamide
37
Give two examples of pre-transplant induction agents?
A. Alemtuzumab (anti-CD52) Basiliximab (anti-CD25) or OKT3/Murmonab-CD3
38
Which agents could you use post-transplant to reduce rejection?
``` A. Calcineurin inhibitor e.g. tacrolimus/cyclosporin MMF/AZA (cytotoxic) Steroids OKT3/Muromonab-CD3 ATG ```
39
A 45 year old man with myasthenia gravis presents to A&E with difficulty in breathing. Assisted ventilation is administered. Which of the following is the best initial management of his condition? 1. Ciclosporin 2. Tacrolimus 3. Rapamycin 4. Corticosteroids 5. Plasmapheresis
A. 5 Plasmapheresis Severe myasthenia gravis (myasthenic crisis) is typified by paralysis of the respiratory muscles requiring ventilator assistance. The best management is plasmapheresis because it rapidly removes anti-AchR abs from circulation. Long term treatment involves Ach-esterase inhibitors and immunosuppressive agents e.g. corticosteroids.