Immune Flashcards

1
Q

Hypersensitivity

A

antigen sensitive responses that result in inappropriate or excessive immune response, leading to harm to host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

exogenous antigens

A

non-infective substances

e.g. peanuts, infectious microbes or drugs e.g. penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

intrinsic antigens

A

infectious microbes (mimicry) or self antigens (auto immunity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

properties of all hypersensitivity reactions

A
sensitisation phase (1st encounter, triggers APC activation + memory cells, no clinical effects)
effector phase (pathological reaction upon re-exposure to antigen, memory cells and AB production, notable clinical manifestation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity

A

allergy
IgE
immediate response (<30 mins), local or systemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity mechanism

A

activation of TH2
activation of IgE
1st exposure - memory cell production
2nd exposure - IgE cross linking -> mast cell degranulation -> mediators released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Type 1 HS

Mediators

A

Tryptase
histamine
leukotrienes
platelet activating factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Type 1 HS

tryptase

A

remodels CT matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

type 1 HS

histamine

A

toxic to parasites

increases vascular permeability + smooth muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

type 1 HS

leukotrienes

A

(C4/D4/E5)

increases smooth muscle contraction, vascular permeability + mucus production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

type 1 HS

platelet activating factor

A

attracts leucocytes

increases lipid mediator production (leukotrienes) + activates neutrophils, eosinophils + platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

type 1 HS

characterised by

A

increased vascular permeability
vasodilation
bronchial constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

type 1 HS

presentation

A

urticaria - rash (activation of mast cells in epidermis)

angioedema - mast cell activation in deep dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

anaphylaxis

A
type 1 HS
systemic mast cell activation
hypotension
CVS collapse
generalised urticaria
angioedema
breathing problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

anaphylaxis treatment

A
IM adrenaline (epipen)
multiple doses may be required

(reverses peripheral vasodilation, airway obstruction and mast cell activation, alleviates hypotension, reduces oedema, +ve inotropic effect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

allergen desensitisation / immunotherapy

A

increasing doses of allergen extracts over years by injection / sublingual drops
very effective in bee + wasp anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Xoliar

A

anti-IgE monoclonal antibody

to control severe asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

type 2 HS

A

antibody mediated (IgG/IgM
develops in 5-12 hours
IgG/IgM antibodies target cell bound antigens
exogenous - blood group / Rhesus D antigens
endogenous - self antigens (autoimmunity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

type 2 HS

mechanism

A

IgG/IgM -> tissue damage by complement activation ->
cell lysis ->
opsonisation + neutrophil activation + natural killer cell activation
also cause physiological change by receptor stimulation/blockade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

type 2 HS

treatment

A

anti-inflammatory drugs
splenectomy (prevents opsonisation/phagocytosis)
plasmapheresis (filters blood to remove ABs, myasthenia gravis/Graves)
IV immunoglobulin (causes IgG degradation)
replacement therapy (e.g. pyridostigmine inhibits ACh esterase in MG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

autoimmune destruction of nicotinic ACh receptors at NMJ
weakness of skeletal muscle + fatigue
treatment -> pyridostigmine (acetylcholinesterase inhibiotr) with immunosupressants e.g. prednisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)

A

occurs in newborn
Rhesus -ve mother has a 2nd Rhesus +ve baby
IgG antibodies cross placenta to fetus -> haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HDN

1st vs 2nd baby

A

1st Rh+ baby - sensitisation
maternal and foetal blood don’t mix until birth -> triggers IgG
2nd Rh+ baby - effector phase
ABs present in mother’s blood against Rh+, cross placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

HDN

treatment

A

RhoGAM (anti-Rhesus D antibody)
given to all Rh- mothers to prevent HDN (after birth of Rh+ child)
binds to + removes Rh+ blood cells in blood stream -> mother doesn’t make ABs to Rh+ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

blood types

A
\+/- = Rhesus D antigen
O = no antigen / A + B antibodies
A = A antigen / B antibody
B = B antigen / A antibody
AB = A + B antigens / no antibodies
- must have -
cannot give the antigen if they have the antibody
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

universal blood donor

A

O-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

type 3 HS

A

immune complex (IgG/IgM)
develops 3-8 hrs
IgG/IgM forms immune complexes with soluble antigens
damages tissues by deposition in joints, kidney, small vessels, skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

type 3 HS

factors affecting level of damage

A

complex size - large cleared by opsonisation, small complexes cleared by reticuloendothelial system, intermediate complexes not cleared
host response - low affinity antibody / complement deficiency
tissue factors - filtration / BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Systemic lupus erythematous

A

autoimmune inflammation of connective tissue
affecting CNS, renal, joints, resp system, CNS
high risk of repeated miscarriage

30
Q

opsonisation

A

makes a foreign cell more susceptible to phagocytosis

molecules chemically modified to have stronger interactions with cell surface receptors on phagocytes + antibodies

31
Q

type 4 HS

A
cell mediated
develops in 24-72 hrs (delayed)
activation of TH1 sensitises body
2nd exposure - TH1 activates lymphocytes + macrophages to cause:
contact hypersensitivity
granulomatous hypersensitivity
tuberculin hypersensitivity
32
Q

contact hypersensitivity

A

type 4 HS

epidermal reaction to nickel/ivy/chemicals in 24-48 hrs

33
Q

granulomatous hypersensitivity

A

type 4 HS
occurs in 21-48 days
post exposure e.g. TB, leprosy, schistosomiasis, sarcoidosis

34
Q

tuberculin hypersensitivity

A

type 4 HS
Mantoux test
48-72 hrs
dermal reaction

35
Q

Hashimoto’s disease

A

type 4 HS
autoimmune attack of thyroid gland
activation of TH1 -> lymphocyte + macrophage damage of thyroid
causes hypothyroidism

36
Q

type 3 / 4 HS treatment

A

NSAIDs
corticosteroids - e.g. prednisolone
steroid sparing agents - e.g. aziathioprine/mycophenolate mofetil/cyclophosphamide
monoclonal antibiotics

37
Q

TB antibiotics

A

6 months - rifampicin + isoniazid

2 months - pyrazinamide + ethambutol

38
Q

allergen

A

any substance stimulating production of IgE or a cellular immune response

39
Q

sensitisation

A

the production of IgE antibodies (detected by serum IgE assay) after repeated exposure to antigen

40
Q

allergy

A

a hypersensitivity (type 1) reaction initiated by specific immunological mechanisms
IgE mediated - e.g. peanut allergy
non-IgE mediated - e.g. milk allergy

41
Q

atopy

A

tendency to produce IgE antibodies in response to ordinary exposure to potential allergens
normally triad of asthma, eczema, allergic rhinitis (hayfever)

42
Q

anaphylaxis

A

a serious allergic reaction with bronchial, laryngeal and cardiovascular involvement that is rapid in onset and can cause death

43
Q

food allergy subdivisions

A

IgE mediated - immediate (5-30 min)

non-IgE mediated - delayed onset (hrs-days), occurs in infancy or early childhood

44
Q

food allergy

IgE mediated presentation

A

skin - pruritis, erythema, acute urticaria, facial angioedema
GI - nausea + vomiting
resp - wheeze, dysponea
CVS (rare) - pallor, drowsiness, hypotension

45
Q

food allergy

IgE mediated foods

A
milk + eggs (can resolve before adulthood)
peanuts
tree nuts
fish
shelfish
fruit/vegetables
pollen food syndrome
46
Q

food allergy

non-IgE mediated presentation

A

skin - pruritis
GI - food refusal, abdo pain, diarrhoea/constipation, blood/mucus in stool
proctocolitis
enterocolitis
eosinophilic oesophagitis
food protein induced enterocolitis syndrome

47
Q

proctocolitis

A

non-IgE mediated

mucus + blood stained stools in otherwise asymptomatic infants (breast milk allergy)

48
Q

enterocolitis

A

non-IgE mediated

multiple GI symptoms (milk/egg/wheat allergy)

49
Q

eosinophilic oesophagitis

A

non-IgE mediated

oesophageal inflammation and scarring, dysphagia, vomiting, reflux and food impaction (milk/egg/wheat allergy)

50
Q

food protein induced enterocolitis syndrome

A

non-IgE mediated
infants
profuse vomiting leading to pallor, lethargy and possibly shock +/- diarrhoea (milk/soya/wheat/rice/meat allergy)

51
Q

food allergy

non-IgE mediated foods

A
milk
soya
wheat
rice
oats
can resolve by school age
52
Q

milk allergy

presentation

A

always presents by 12 months old, symptoms can be present weeks after ingestion
immediate/IgE mediated (40%) - presents with typical allergy symptoms (wheeze, urticaria, diarrhoea, vomiting) but can cause anaphylaxis
delayed/non-IgE mediated (60%) - presents with mainly GI symptoms and can be misdiagnosed as GORD/colic

53
Q

milk allergy

treatment

A

extensive hydrolysed formula (based on milk, can help tolerance)
2nd line - amino acid or soya formula, then at 9-12 months begin milk reintroduction

54
Q

food allergy

diagnosis

A

serum specific IgE
skin prick tests (response of skin mast cells to allergens)
oral food challenge (small amounts of allergen ingested in controlled environment)
level of IgE in blood or response to skin prick test predicts likelihood of allergy, it DOESN’T correlate with severity of allergy

55
Q

food allergy

management

A

dietary exclusion
allergy action plan
2 x EpiPens (carry)

56
Q

autoimmunity

A

an immune response against the host due loss of immunological tolerance of self antigen

57
Q

autoimmune disease

A

disease caused by tissue damage or disturbed physiological responses due to an autoimmune response

58
Q

types of autoimmune disease

A

organ specific - one or multiple self antigens within one single organ or tissue
non organ specific - widely distributed self antigens throughout body

59
Q

hypersensitivity is autoreactive T cell driven

A

cytotoxic T cells + macrophages

60
Q

types of autoantibody driven

A

primary autoantibodies
secondary autoantibodies
IgG transfer

61
Q

primary autoantibodies

A

rare/pathogenic

e.g. anti-TSHR in Graves / anti-acetylcholine receptor in myasthenia gravis / anti-anti-GBM antibodies in Goodpastures

62
Q

secondary autoantibodies

A

appear later in disease
e.g. anti-nuclear antibodies in SLE / anti-gastric parietal cells in pernicious anaemia / anti-thyroid peroxidase in Hashimotos / anti-RF in rheumatoid arthritis

63
Q

non-organ specific autoimmune diseases

A

autoimmune haemolytic anaemia - red blood cells antigens
rheumatoid arthritis - rheumatoid factor (Fc portion of the IgG antibody)
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) - double stranded DNA (dsDNA) + other nuclear proteins (histones)
Sjogren’s syndrome - nuclear antigens (Ro and La)

64
Q

autoimmunity occurs due to

A

breakdown of central tolerance (thymus fails to delete autoreactive T cells)
breakdown of peripheral tolerance (regulatory T cell defects / altered self antigens / impaired immunoglobulin)
activation of autoreactive B cells

65
Q

autoimmunity triggered by

A

genetics (increased risk with MHC variation)
hormonal factors = increased risk if female/post puberty
infection e.g. strep pyogenes to rheumatic fever
drugs e.g. D. pencillamine to myasthenia gravis, SLE + anti GBM

66
Q

autoimmunity

treatments

A

plasmapheresis - myasthenia gravis / anti GBM / graves disease
immunosupressive drugs - e.g. ciclosporin / methotrexate
anti-inflammatory drugs
replacement therapy
surgery - e.g. thyroidectomy / splenectomy
monoclonal antibodies e.g. tocilizumab

67
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

type IV hypersensitivity reaction
anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies (secondary autoantibodies) lead to hypothyroidism
presentation - fatigue, bradycardia, constipation, weight gain, hoarse voice
diagnosis - low T3/T4, high TSH, presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies
treatment - levothyroxine (yearly TSH monitoring)

68
Q

Graves disease

A

type II hypersensitivity
thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin bind to TSH receptor
hyperthyroidism
presentation - fatigue, weight gain, exophthalmos, heat intolerance
diagnosis - high T3/T4, low TSH, presence of thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI)
treatment - antithyroid drugs, plasmapheresis or radioactive iodine/surgery

69
Q

Addison’s disease

A

type II-IV hypersensitivity reaction (involving antibody + cell mediated destruction)
steroid-21-hydroxylase antibodies alongside cytotoxic T cells attack adrenal cortex -> adrenal insufficiency
presentation - fatigue, hyperpigmentation, depression, sexual dysfunction, hypoglycaemia
diagnosis - high ACTH, presence of steroid-21-hydroxylase antibodies
treatment - lifelong glucocorticoid replacement
(ACTH triggers cortisol release from adrenal cortex)

70
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

type II hypersensitivity reaction
ACh receptor antibodies attack ACh receptors at NMJ
skeletal muscle weakness
treatment - acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, immunosupressants

71
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

A

type IV hypersensitivity reaction
rheumatoid factor antibodies -> inflammation and joint destruction
presentation:
joint - pain, stiffness, swelling (worse in morning)
malaise / weight loss
treatment - DMARDs + steroids

72
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

A

type III hypersensitivity reaction
antibodies to dsDNA and histones -> multisystem disease
RF - female, FHx, Afro-carribean>south Asian>caucasian
presentation:
hands - Raynauds, joint pain + swelling
head - alopecia, malor rash
trunk - myalgia, pericardial pain, pleuritic chest pain, photosensitivity
other - renal abnormalities, neurological symptoms (e.g. depression)
treatment - patient education + DMARDs (e.g. hydroxychloroquine) + steroids (e.g. prednisolone)
severe cases - IV cyclophosphamide (chemotherapy / suppress immune system)