Imaging in Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

What can be used to image the pituitary gland?

A

MRI = midline structure, anterior and posterior parts

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2
Q

Where is the pituitary gland found?

A

In the sella turcica, connected to brain via pituitary sinus and is closely related to the sphenoid sinus

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3
Q

What are some anatomical relationships of the pituitary gland?

A

Inferior to optic chiasm, carotid arteries laterally, inferior to hypothalamus

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4
Q

Where may pathology occur that causes vision loss?

A

Eye, optic nerve, chiasm, optic tract, brain

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5
Q

Where does peripheral vision information strike?

A

Medial retina and crosses optic chiasm

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6
Q

What do lesions of the optic chiasm cause?

A

Bilateral peripheral vision loss

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7
Q

What can be used to image the thyroid gland?

A

Well visualised on CT and US, also imaged using Nuc Med

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8
Q

What is the anatomy of the thyroid gland?

A

Right and left lobes joined by isthmus, located deep to strap muscles of the neck

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9
Q

What are the anatomical relationships of the thyroid gland?

A

Anterior to trachea and oesophagus, medial to common carotid arteries and internal jugular vein
Inferiorly = sternum, great vessels, aortic arch

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10
Q

What structures can be damaged in surgery of the thyroid gland?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerves and parathyroid glands

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11
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for midline neck masses?

A

Enlarged thyroid, enlarged lymph nodes

Thyroglossal cysts and cystic hygromas are rare outside childhood

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12
Q

What is the aim of imaging midline neck masses?

A

To differentiate between diffuse and focal causes = achieved with combination of radioisotope studies and US

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13
Q

What are the benefits of thyroid ultrasounds?

A

Safe, no ionising radiation, well-tolerated, can be combined with fine needle aspiration

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14
Q

What patients get thyroid ultrasounds?

A

Euthyroid patients with goitre or palpable nodules

Hyperthyroid patients with focal masses or radioisotope uptake

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15
Q

What are some features of thyroid scintigraphy?

A

I-123 or Tc 99m, Tc 99m used locally (injected IV, image after 20mins), images assessed for pattern and quantity of tracer uptake

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16
Q

What result of a thyroid scintigraphy indicates Grave’s disease?

A

Homogenously increased tracer uptake, >3% total tracer in gland

17
Q

How does thyroiditis present on a thyroid scintigraphy?

A

Homogenously reduced tracer uptake

18
Q

What does a multinodular goitre with a dominant nodule cause in a thyroid scintigraphy?

A

Focal uptake of the right upper pole

19
Q

What are some features of the adrenal glands?

A

Two lines = medial and lateral
Right adrenal lies posterior to IVC
Left adrenal lies lateral to aorta and left of diaphragmatic crus

20
Q

What is a phaeochromocytoma?

A

Uncommon tumour of adrenal gland, said to follow 10% rule = 10% extra-adrenal, 10% bilateral, 10% found in children, 10% familial, 10% not linked to hypertension

21
Q

What kind of ossification do long bones undergo?

A

Endochondral ossification = starts as cartilage, osteoblasts replace cartilage with osteoid, which mineralises to form bony trabeculae

22
Q

How are trabeculae arranged in long bones?

A

Loosely packed in the medulla but condense towards the cortex

23
Q

Where do cartilaginous bones ossify?

A

Firstly within the diaphysis then secondly within the epiphysis (intramembranous ossification)

24
Q

How is bone girth increased?

A

Cells derived from the periosteum lay down circumferential new bone on the periphery of the existing cortex

25
Q

How is bone length increased?

A

Cartilage proliferation occurs at growth plates between the metaphysis and epiphysis = this cartilage then ossifies

26
Q

What does diffuse mean when applied to bone abnormalities?

A

Affects lots of bones = bones are all too soft/brittle

Osteoporosis, Ricket’s, Paget’s, osteomalacia

27
Q

What are some features of focal bone abnormalities?

A

Affect single area = traumatic, neoplastic (lytic, sclerotic), inflammatory, degenerative

28
Q

What are some features of osteoporosis?

A

Brittle bones prone to fractures, reduction in trabecular density, common in post menopausal women

29
Q

Where are some common fracture sites in patients with osteoporosis?

A

Proximal femur, sacrum, pubic rami, thoracolumbar vertebrae, distal radius

30
Q

What are some secondary causes of osteoporosis?

A

Steroids, early menopause, anorexia

31
Q

What is Ricket’s?

A

Vitamin D deficiency causing non-ossification of soft osteoid = bone deformity, pain, growth abnormality, widened growth plate, irregular flared metaphyses

32
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Vitamin D deficiency causes non-ossification of soft osteoid = bone deformity, pain, tendency to partial fractures, poor cortico-medullary differentiation

33
Q

What is Paget’s disease?

A

Increased bone turnover with unknown cause = single or multiple bones affected

34
Q

What occurs in Paget’s disease?

A

Initial lytic phase results in well-defined Lucency

Later sclerotic phase with enlarged bone, increased density and coarse trabecular pattern

35
Q

What occurs in lytic bone destruction?

A

Medullary Lucency and loss of trabeculae and inner cortex, complete loss of cortex and cortices

36
Q

What occurs in sclerotic bone destruction?

A

Subtle medullary density and loss of trabeculae, spreading zone of density which excludes cortex, featureless white bone

37
Q

What occurs as a result of lytic and sclerotic bone destruction?

A
Lytic = pathological fracture
Sclerotic = expansion beyond normal bone limits with cortical destruction and pathological fracture