Images Flashcards

1
Q

What pathology is seen in the images above?

(normal is below)

A

Acute Amnionitis due to Amnionic Fluid Infection (Ascending)

Gross: dull, opaque membranes with yellow-green discoloration

Histo: numerous neutrophils indicative of acute inflammatory response — result of the maternal response to infection of the amniotic fluid.

**These features are seen in association with ascending infection. In hematogenous (transolacental) infection, you will see acute villitis.

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2
Q

What pathology is seen in this placenta (top - gross, bottom - histo)?

A

Gross image shows 2 recent infarcts.

These are seen in histo slide beneath.

Left = Coagulative necrosis / ischemic tissue

Middle = Blue-ish area = margin of inflammation

Right = Viable parenchyma

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3
Q

What pathology is seen here?

Is this due to solely local effects or also systemic?

A

Severe Preeclampsia

The attempt to increase pressures to meet placental demand results in endothelial shearing and fibrinoid necrosis (*) of the decidual vessels (decidual vasculopathy).

This endothelial injury appears to be mediated not only by local pressures but systemic factors as well. This is why endothelial injury (& subsequent intravascular coagulation) can be seen in other organs (kidney, liver, brain), leading to the hemolysis, thrombocytopenia, proteinuria, transaminitis, and (in eclampsia) seizures seen in this disease.

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4
Q

What is Placenta Abruption (abruptio placenta)?

A

Complication of Placenta pre via - results when the placenta starts separating from the uterus before labor. This results in accumulation of blood between the placental disc and uterus. The clot that collects lifts the placental disc off the uterus and can result in compression of the placental parenchyma.

This parenychmal compression could also damage the villi in this region and lead to fetal distress.

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5
Q

This ultrasound is seen in the 2nd trimester of pregnancy. What is the diagnosis?

A

Molar pregnancy (anucleate ovum fertilized – no fetus)

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6
Q

The following histology is seen on biopsy of an aborted fetus. What is the Dx?

A

Molar pregnancy

Description: Swollen (edematous) villi, with circumferential trophoblastic proliferation & nuclear atypia

(would also see “bunch of grapes” on gross appearance, seen here)

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7
Q

Endometrial Hyperplasia:
Classify each example shown.

A

Left = Simple

Right = Complex, Atypical

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8
Q

Label A - D

A

A. Surface Epithelium

B. Cortex

C. Medulla

D. Corpus Luteum (granulosa cells)

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9
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Ovarian Endometriosis

Ovary surface with endometriosis (“power burns” appearance)

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10
Q

Dx?
Benign Serous Cystadenoma
or
Serous Borderline Tumor
or
Serous Cystadenocarcinoma (malignant)?

A

Benign: Serous Cystadenoma

Unilocular or multilocular cyst lined by serous epithelium

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11
Q

Dx?
Benign Serous Cystadenoma
or
Serous Borderline Tumor
or
Serous Cystadenocarcinoma (malignant)?

A

Serous Borderline Tumor:

cyst with areas of papillary excrescences

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12
Q

Dx?
Benign Serous Cystadenoma
or
Serous Borderline Tumor
or
Serous Cystadenocarcinoma (malignant)?

A

High Grade Serous Carcinoma (Malignant)

(aka Serous Cystadenocarcinoma)

Cystic and solid, papillary growth, necrosis, hemorrhage

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13
Q

Dx?

  • Precursor for a subset of serous carcinoma
  • Positive for p53
A

Serous Tubal Intraepithelial Carcinoma

Top arrow = STIC: highly atypical cells

Bottom arrow = Normal fallopian tube lining

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14
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Mucinous Cystadenoma

Gross: large cyst filled with viscous fluid

Microscopic: mucinous epithelial lining

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15
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Ovarian Clear Cell Carcinoma

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16
Q

Which endometriosis-ass’d cancer is this?

A

Ovarian Endometrioid Adenocarcinoma

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17
Q

Dx = PID

Pathogen?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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18
Q

Dx = PID

Pathogen?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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19
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Neonatal HSV

Localized to skin, eyes, mouth – 45%

CNS infection – 30%

Disseminated disease – 25%

Mortality: approx 30%

Long term CNS sequelae : approx 20%.

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20
Q

What is the arrow pointing to?

A

Zona pellucida

“Developing oocyte surrounded by granulosa with zona pellucida (arrow)

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21
Q

What are the arrows pointing to?

A

Top = Theca cells

Bottom = Granulosa cells

“Mature (“Antral”) follicle surrounded by differentiated follicular cells, containing a horseshoe-shaped central antrum of fluid and the oocyte in the center”

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22
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Intraductal Papilloma

  • Papillomatous growth within the lumen of large or small lactiferous ducts
  • Grow from the wall of a cyst into it’s lumen
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23
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Mild Ductal Hyperplasia

A proliferation of cytologically benign epithelial cells fills and distends the duct. The nuclei vary in size, shape, and placement. The spaces within the duct are also variable in size and contour

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24
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Florid Ductal Hyperplasia

25
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Atypical Ductal Hyperplasia

Atypical ductal hyperplasias are lesions that have some of the architectural and cytologic features of low-grade DCIS, such as nuclear monomorphism, regular cell placement and round regular spaces, in at least part of the involved space. The cells may form tufts, micropapillations, arcades, bridges, solid, and cribiform patterns. A second cell population with features similar to those seen in usual ductal hyperplasia is also typically present

26
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Atypical Lobular Hyperplasia

The acini of this lobule contain a proliferation of small uniform cells, which are dyshesive, and are identical to the cells that comprise lobular carcinoma in situ. However, the acini are not distended by this cellular proliferation

27
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Mucinous (Colloid) Carcinoma

** Islands of tumor cells are seen floating in lakes of extra-cellular mucin (arrow)

28
Q

Diagnosis?

Label each arrow

A

Medullary Carcinoma

Top Left = Stromal Lymphocytes

Bottom Left = Tumor Cells

Top Right = Tumor Edge

29
Q

Type of Metaplastic CA?

A

Bone Forming

30
Q

Type of Metaplastic CA?

A

Spindle Cell

31
Q

Type of Metaplastic CA?

A

Squamous Cell

32
Q

IDC- Usual Type (NOS)

Which is High-grade & which is Low-grade?

A
33
Q

Immunohistochemical stain for high molecular weight cytokeratin shows _____ cells around normal prostatic glands.

A

basal

34
Q

Diagnosis?

A

BPH

Left = Stromal hyperplasia
Right = Glandular hyperplasia

35
Q

Diagnosis?

A

DCIS

(microcalcifications)

36
Q

Diagnosis?

A

DCIS (comedo-type)

37
Q

Diagnosis?

A

DCIS (cribriform type)

38
Q

Diagnosis?

A

DCIS (solid type)

39
Q

Diagnosis?

A

ILC

(Single file arrangement)

40
Q

Diagnosis?

A

ILC

(Targetoid growth around ducts)

41
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Invasive Ductal CA

(no special type)

42
Q

Diagnosis?

A

LCIS

43
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Medullary CA

44
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Mucinous CA

45
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Paget’s Disease

(intraepidermal malignant cells from underlying DCIS)

46
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Paget’s Disease

(here’s another pic)

47
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Spermatocytic Seminoma

48
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Acute Bacterial Prostatitis

  • Sheets of neutrophils with abscess formation
  • Ducts packed with neutrophils and necrotic debris
49
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Chronic Bacterial or Non-bacterial Prostatitis

(both look the same)

Lymphocytes in the stroma and prostatic glands

50
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Mixture of histocytes, lymphocytes, plasma cells, eosinophils, neutrophils, and giant cells arranged in sheets without formation of discrete granulomas

51
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Post-Transurethral Resection Granulomatous Prostatitis

  • Resemble rheumatoid nodules.
  • Central zone of fibrinoid necrosis.
  • Rim of palisaded epithelioid histocytes.
  • Variable numbers of multinucleated giant cells.
52
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Post-BCG Prostatitis

  • Diffuse, discrete granulomas
  • With or without caseating necrosis
  • Acid-fast bacilli can be identified (rarely)
53
Q

Diagnosis?

A

High-grade PIN

Note the large glands w/ proliferation of atypical epithelium (tufted & micropapillary patterns)

54
Q

Diagnosis?

A

High grade PIN (High Magnification)

Note the cytological atypia with the nuclear enlargement
and prominent nucleoli.

55
Q

Prostate Carcinoma:
which arrow is pointing to malignant vs. benign glands?

A

Top right = Malignant

Bottom Left = Benign

*Malignant glands are small and medium in size.

56
Q

Gleason Grade?

A

Gleason Grade 1

  • Circumscribed nodule with closely packed, uniform glands in transition zone
  • Very uncommon pattern
57
Q

Gleason Grade?

A

Gleason Grade 2

  • Less circumscribed nodule with loosely packed, less uniform (branching and irregularity) glands.
  • Uncommon in peripheral zone.
58
Q

Gleason Grade?

A

Gleason Grade 4

Fused glands without intervening stroma.