Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 > IM > Flashcards

IM Flashcards

1
Q

Creat of normal kidney, CRF, and ESRD

A
  1. 8
  2. 0
  3. 0 (need dialysis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Urinalysis of prerenal AKI

A

Una<10
FEna<1% or FEurea <35%
BUN:Cr >20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Signs of AKI

A

Elevated creat or decreased urine output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Causes of prerenal AKI

A

Anything in front of the heart: CHF, MI, diarrhea, dehydration, aggressive diuresis, cirrhosis, gastritis, FMD/RAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Causes post-renal AKI

A

Anything behind the kidney: cancer/stones in the ureter, bladder, urethra
BPH, foley, neurogenic bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Dx post-renal AKI

A

CT: stones, US: hydronephrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most common causes of post-renal AKI

A

BPH, neurogenic bladder, kinked catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Most common place of bladder obstruction

A

Ureter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Muddy casts indicate

A

ATN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

WBC casts or eosinophils indicate

A

AIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

RBC casts indicate

A

GN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Next step if RCB casts are seen in UA

A

R/O nephrotic syndrome:

  • proteinuria >3.5g/day
  • increased cholesterol
  • edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Phases of ATN

A

Prodrome: elevated creat, normal urine output
Oliguric: elevated creat, urine output drops
Polyuric: increased urine output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Avoid contrast ATN in existing renal damage

A

Tons of IVF, n-acetyl-cysteine, stop ACEI/ARBs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Indications for dialysis

A 
Acidosis
Electrolytes
Ingestion (SLIME)
Overload
Uremia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Definition of CKD

A

> 3 decreased GFR (creat ~2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

GFR in renal failure/ESRD

A

<15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DM drug contraindicated in CKD?

A

Meformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Secondary complications of CKD

A

Anemia (decreased EPO)
HyperPTH (increased phosphate and decreased Ca)
Volume overload
Acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How to correct moderate vs severe hyper and hypo natreamia?

A

Moderate (both): IV NS

Severe hyper: IV D5W/ hypo: IV hypertonic (3%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Max Na correction per hour and day?

A

0.25 mmol/hr

4-6/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Equation to measure serum osmoles

A

Serum osmoses = (2*Na) + (glucose/18) + (bun/2.8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Causes of hypertonic hyponatremia

A

Elevated glucose, BUN or sugar alcohols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How to correct Na for elevated glucose

A

For every 100mg glucose above 100, add 1.6 to Na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Causes of euvolemic hyponatremia

A

RTA
Addisons
Thyroid
SIADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Treatment for hypercalcemia

A

IVF (can add furoside after fluids)

Calcitonin if severe, bisphosphonates for chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Sx of hypercalcemia

A

Boans, stones, groans, moans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When would you see elevated PTH-rp

A

Squamous cell of lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Sx of hypocalcemia

A

Perioral tingling, Trousseau and Chvostek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Treatment for hypocalcemia

A

IV Ca if severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Next step of Asx hypocalcemia

A

Check albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Order of EKG changes with elevated K?

A

Peaked T wave, prolonged PR, wide QRS, sine wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Normal K

A
  1. 5-5.5

4. 0-5.5 in hospital/cardiac patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Sx of hyperkalemia

A

Areflexia, flaccid paralysis, paresthesias (decreased motor and sensation) and EKG changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Treat hyperkalemia

A
  1. IV Ca gluconate
  2. Insulin/glucose or bicarb
  3. Kayexalate (aka sodium polystyrene sulfonate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Radiolucent kidney stones

A

Uric acid and cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Radioopaque kidney stones

A

Calcium and struvite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Diagnostic test for kidney stones

A

U/A first then non-con CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Treatment of kidney stones

A

<5mm: IVF and pain
<7mm: CCB (amlodipine) or terazosin
<1.5cm: lithotripsy or ureteroscopy
>1.5cm: exlap or perc anterograde nephrolithotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Classic triad of RCC

A

flank pain, hematuria, flank mas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Factors that increase risk of RCC

A

Smoking, ESRD, VHL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How does RCC spread?

A

Hematogenously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Common complications of RCC

A

Renal vein thrombosis, anemia/polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Normal serum pH?

A

7.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Normal ABG CO2?

A

40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Causes of respiratory acidosis

A

Hypoventilation: Opiates, COPD/asthma/OSA, decreased muscle strength (GB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Next step after determining metabolic acidosis?

A

Anion gap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Normal value and equation for serum anion gap?

A

12
Na-Cl-Bicarb
>12 = anion gap acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Causes of +anion gap acidosis?

A 
Methanol
Uremia
DKA
Propylene glycol
Iron and INH
Lactic acidosis
Ethylene glycol
Salicylates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Next step of -anion gap acidosis?

A

Urine anion gap; Na+K-Cl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What causes +urine anion gap acidosis?

A

RTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What causes -urine anion gap acidosis?

A

Diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Causes of respiratory alkalosis?

A

Hyperventiliation: Pain, anxiety, hypoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Next step after determining metabolic alkalosis and its normal value?

A

Urine Cl; 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Metabolic alkalosis with urine Cl <10

A

Volume responsive aka contraction alkalosis

Diuretics, dehydration, emesis, NG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Metabolic alkalosis with urine Cl >10

A

Not volume responsive; look for HTN
+ Hyperaldosterone (renal arter stenosis or Conn’s)
- Genetic (Barter, Gitelman)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the Diamond Classification and what are the components?

A

IDs risk of CAD based on sx
Substernal chest pain, worse with exertion, better with NTG
Typical is 3/3, atypical is 2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When should nitrates be avoided in treatment of angina?

A

Right sided infarct (II, III, aVF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Why do we give B-blockers for angina?

A

Reduce myocardial work, prevent ventricular arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When do you do a CABG?

A

Left main stem or 3 vessel disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Causes of systolic heart failure?

A

“cant push blood forward”

Leaky valves, dilated cardiomyopathy, dead muscle, “floppy” muscle (EtOH, HTN, drugs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Causes of diastolic heart failure?

A

“cant relax/fill”

Hypertrophy or infiltration (tamponade, effusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Most common cause of heart failure?

A

Hypertension: increases systemic vascular resistance, hypertrophies and then fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Classic triad of CHF

A

Exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Sx of left sided heart failure

A

Orthopnea, crackles, rales, exertional dyspnea, S3 (overly compliant), PND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Sx of right sided heart failure

A

Hepatosplenomegaly, JVD, peripheral edema, exertional dyspnea, increased JVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is BNP used for?

A

To determine if the patient is volume overloaded or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How do you diagnose CHF?

A

BNP
2D echo: systolic failure (EF<55%) or diastolic (nml EF)
Nucelar study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Treating CHF class I-III

A

Reduce preload and afterload
Reduce preload: reduce fluid by restricting salt (<2g/day) and PO fluids (<2L); add furosemide/nitrates at class II
Reduce afterload: ACE-I or ARBs; add spironolactone or hydralazine at class III
Beta-blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Treating CHF class IV

A

Same drugs as I-III

Add ionotropes: dobutamine and prepare for transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When is an AICD considered in CHF?

A

EF <35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When do you need to work up a murmur?

A

Diastolic, symptomatic or > grade 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Murmur of mitral stenosis?

A

Diastolic opening snap followed by decrescendo murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What indicates the severity of mitral stenosis?

A

Earlier snap = worse stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How do you treat mitral stenosis?

A

Preload reduction

Balloon valvotomy/replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Sequelae of mitral stenosis

A

CHF sx, Afib (atrial stretch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What causes mitral stenosis?

A

Rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What causes aortic stenosis?

A

Calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Murmur of aortic stenosis

A

Crescendo-decrescendo at the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Sx of aortic stenosis

A

Angina, especially with exertion

Syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Sequela of aortic stenosis

A

CHF (bad prognosis, 1-3 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Treatment of aortic stenosis

A 
Decrease preload
Replace valve (also will require CABG dt loss of ostia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Murmur of mitral regurg

A

Holosystolic radiating to axilla

High-pitched, blowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Sequelae of mitral regurg

A

Afib (atrial stretch), Pulmonary congestions/CHF, cardiogenic shock (decreased forward flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Causes of acute mitral regurg

A

Ruptured papillary muscle or chordae, endocarditis, trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Causes of chronic mitral regurg

A

2/2 ischemia or MVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Sx of mitral regurg

A

Exertional dyspnea, fatigue, CHF

88
Q

Murmur of aortic insufficiency

A

Decrescendo murmur heard best aortic valve

89
Q

Cause of aortic insufficiency

A

Floppy valve 2/2 ischemia or infection

90
Q

Presentation of aortic insufficiency

A

Dilated heart failure (chronic) cardiogenic shock (acute)

91
Q

Murmur of MVP

A

Mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic rumble

92
Q

Cause of MVP

A

Usually congenital

Also seen in pregnant women

93
Q

Treat MVP

A

Expand intravascular volume

94
Q

Murmurs that improve with leg raise (and worsen with valsalva)

A

HCOM and MVP

*all the rest are the opposite

95
Q

Result of leg raise vs valsalva

A

Leg raise: increases venous return

Valsalva: decreases venous return

96
Q

Types of cardiomyopathy

A

Dilated, Hypertrophic, Restrictive

97
Q

Mechanism in dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Decreased contractility -> systolic heart failure

98
Q

Cause of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Ischemia, valve disease, infections, metabolic, EtOH, etc

99
Q

Cause hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

AD mutation in sarcomeres

Asymmetric hypertrophy of septal wall

100
Q

What causes improvement in murmur/sx of HCM?

A

Increased preload (increased volume moves the hypertrophied tissue out of the way)

101
Q

Population of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Sudden death of young athelete

102
Q

Treatment of HCM?

A

Hydration and B-blockers (or CCB) (increase in ventricular filling)

103
Q

Mechanism of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Heart cant relax -> diastolic failure

104
Q

Causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Sarcoid, amyloid, hemochromatosis, Cancer, fibrosis

105
Q

Treatment of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Diuresis and HR control

Eventual transplant

106
Q

Cause of concentric cardiomyopathy and sequelae

A

HTN

Diastolic CHF

107
Q

Sx of pericarditis

A

Pleuritic and positional CP (better with leaning forward)

Friction rub

108
Q

EKG of pericarditis

A

Diffuse ST elevation and PR segment depression (pathognomonic)

109
Q

Treatment of pericarditis

A

NSAIDS and colchicine

110
Q

Sx of chronic pericardial effusion

A

Looks like CHF: exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, PND

111
Q

Sx of acute pericardial effusion/tamponade

A

Becks triad: JVD, hypotension, distant heart sounds

Pulsus paradoxus

112
Q

Treatment of tamponade

A

Pericardiocentesis

113
Q

Pericardial knock indicates what?

A

Constrictive pericarditis (fibrosis)

114
Q

Neuro cause of syncope

A

Vertebrobasilar insufficiency

115
Q

What is second line to statins?

A

Fibrates

116
Q

What makes an arrhythmia unstable?

A

CP, SOB, AMS, systolic bp <90

117
Q

First line treatment for unstable arrhythmias

A

electricity

118
Q

Fast + unstable rhythm vs slow + unstable rhythm treatment

A

Shock

Pace

119
Q

Treatment for fast + narrow + stable arrhythmia

A

Adenosine

120
Q

Treatment for fast + wide + stable arrhythmia

A

Amiodarone

121
Q

Treatment for acute afib

A

Rate control first (BB or CCB)

122
Q

When do you shock in cardiac arrest?

A

Only vtach or vfib

123
Q

Age related sick syndrome

A

Dry eyes and mouth
Higher risk in women, w/ DM or thyroid disorders
Exocrine atrophy

124
Q

Labs in Pagets

A

Ca, Serum phosphorus normal

Alkaline phosphatase and urine hydroxyproline high

125
Q

Treatment for Pagets

A

Bisphosphonates

126
Q

Factors associated with increased prevalance

A

PPV (up) and NPV (down) in a higher prevalence population

127
Q

Pain with walking that is relieved by bending forward

A

Osteoarthritis/spinal stenosis

128
Q

Main difference between SJS and TEN

A

<10% BSA: SJS (also has basal cell degeneration on bx)

>30% BSA: TEN (full thickness epidermal necrosis)

129
Q

Most common type of kidney stone

A

calcium oxalate

130
Q

Cause of pronator drift

A

UMN/pyramidal or corticospinal tract dysfunction

131
Q

Sx of basal ganglia dysfunction

A

Extrapyramidal sx: resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, choreiform movements

132
Q

Sx of cerebellar dysfunction

A

Ataxia, intention tremor, impaired rapid alternating movements

133
Q

Sx of Huntington’s

A

Chorea, delayed saccades, depression, decreased executive function, motor impersistance

134
Q

Sx of SAH (besides HA)

A

Meningeal irritation (n/v, photophobia)

135
Q

Pure motor hemiparesis

A

Lacunar infarct in the internal capsule

Will see microatheroma and lipohyalinosis of small vessels

136
Q

Elevated homocysteine levels is related to

A

Decreases folate, B6 and B12

137
Q

EKG of pericarditis

A

Diffuse ST elevations with depression in aVR

138
Q

Common abnormalities associated with MG?

A

Thymic: thymoma or thymic hyperplasia

139
Q

Cause of achalasia and sx?

A

Degeneration of neurons in the myenteric plexus

Gradual dysphagia to solids and liquids

140
Q

Mechanism of PAH in SS?

A

Hyperplasia of the intimal smooth muscle layer

141
Q

Cross sectional study set up

A

Compare two groups; see if they have risk factors and then see if they have the dz

142
Q

Histone ab

A

Drug induced lupus

143
Q

ds-DNA ab

A

Lupus + renal

144
Q

Smooth muscle ab

A

autoimmune hep

145
Q

mitochondrial ab

A

PBC

146
Q

Centromere ab

A

CREST

147
Q

RO/LA ab

A

Sjorgrens

148
Q

CCP or RF ab

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

149
Q

Jo ab

A

Polymositis

150
Q

Topoisomerase ab

A

Systemic scleroderma

151
Q

Classic RA presentation

A

Symmetric arthritis of 3+ joints that spares the DIPs

152
Q

CREST

A

Collagen replaces smooth muscle; skin tightness in hands/face
Spares heart and kidneys; effects skin and GI
anti-centromere

153
Q

Systemic sclerosis

A

Diffuse disease with cardiac and renal involvement

Anti-scl (topoisomerase 1)

154
Q

Treatment for scleroderma

A

Treat sx: CCB, penicillamine, steroids, ACE-I

155
Q

Difficulty rising from chair but intact grip strength

A

Polymyositis/dermatomyositis/inclusion body myositis

156
Q

Gottron’s papules

A

Scaly area over major joints -> myositis

Will be seen with photosensitivity, heliotrope rash and proximal muscles weakness

157
Q

Presentation of ankylosing spondylitis

A

Back pain, morning stiffness, improved with exercise/use; can have achilles tendon inflammation
Associated with IBD but independent of course

158
Q

Presentation of reactive arthritis

A

Asymmetric b/l arthritis of low back and hands

159
Q

Presentation of psoriatic

A

Symmetric PIP and DIP, pitting of nails

160
Q

Enteropathic arthritis

A

Symmetric, b/l, non-deforming, peripheral and migratory

Hx of diarrhea

161
Q

Increase risk for which bugs with immunosuppression following transplant?

A

CMV and Pneumocystis

162
Q

Dx for proximal muscle weakness

A

myositis vs Eaton Lambert

163
Q

What is the ice pack test for?

A

MG

164
Q

XR findings of OA

A

Joint space narrowing, osteophytes and subchondrol sclerosis/cysts

165
Q

Cancers associated with Lynch syndrome

A

Colorectal, endometrial, ovarian

166
Q

Feltys syndrome

A

RA + neutropenia + splenomegaly

167
Q

Part of the spine affected in RA?

A

Cervical only

168
Q

Complications of PBC

A

Nutrient deficiencies, hepatocellular carcinoma, metabolic bone disease

169
Q

CT of diffuse axonal injury

A

Minute punctate hemorrhages with blurring go gray-white interface
Often seen in sudden deceleration

170
Q

Hemoptysis + hematuria

A

Goodpasture

171
Q

Asthma + hematuria

A

Churg Strauss

172
Q

Hemineglect indicates a lesion where?

A

Non-dominant (usually right) parietal lobe

173
Q

Presentation of dacrocystitis

A

Infection of lacrimal sac

Sudden onset pain and redness over medial canthal region; can have purulent discharge

174
Q

Presentation of episcleritis

A

Inflammation of the episcleral tissue between the conjunctiva and sclera

175
Q

Hordeolum

A

Abscess over upper or lower eyelid

176
Q

First line for symptomatic PVCs

A

BB or CCB (increase dose if already on)

177
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris

A

Autoimmune against desmoglein; ab on epithelial cells throughout lesion
Between epithelial cells; blister is thin (+ Nikolsky)
Life threatening, involves mucosa, 30-50s

178
Q

Bullous pemphigoid

A

Autoimmune against hemidesmosomes (basement membrane); intact epithelium detached from BM; ab at dermal-epidermal junction
Rigid blister; not life threatening/no mucosal involvement/70-80s

179
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis

A

IgA against translutaminase
Ab-antigen complex deposition
Multiple, small, vesicular eruptions; pruritic
Seen on butt, legs, extensor surfaces

180
Q

Porphyria Cutanea Tarda

A

Bullae on sun-exposed areas

Dx with coral red urine under Wood’s lamp

181
Q

Seborrheic dermatitis

A

Fungal infection in areas of hair

182
Q

Pityriasis Rosea

A

Herald patch: flat, oval, salmon-colored scaling lesion -> multiple similar appearing lesions with trailing scale
Spares palms and soles if self-limiting
Can be initial presentation of syphillis; will have hands and feet

183
Q

Lichen planus

A

Intensely pruritic pink or purple flat topped papule with a reticulated network of white lines
Can be caused by lichenoid drug eruption

184
Q

Atopic dermatitis

A
  • Dry, red, itchy rash

- Associated with 3As: asthma, allergies, atopy

185
Q

What type of HS is contact dermatitis?

A

IV

186
Q

Statsis dermatitis

A

Chronic LE edema
Edema, erythema, brown discoloration with scaling
Might look like cellulitis but will be b/l

187
Q

Urticaria

A

Type I HS
Crosslinking of IgE on mast cells -> histamine
-Annular, blanching red papule

188
Q

Drug reaction

A

Pink, morbilliform rash 7-14 days after exposure

Widespread, symmetric, pruritic

189
Q

Erythema-Multiforme

A

Cutaenous drug reaction
Target shaped lesion on palms and soles
Self-limited

190
Q

Differentiate SSSS and TEN

A

SSSS doesnt have mucosal involvement

191
Q

Nevi

A

Bening hyperplasia of melanocytes

Wise excesional bx

192
Q

Seborrheic keratosis

A

Large, brown, greasy, crusted mole; stuck on

193
Q

Actinic keratosis

A

Premalignant -> SCC
Erythematous with sandpaper-like yellow to brown scale
Cryosurgery; 5-FU for diffuse lesions

194
Q

SCC

A

Invasive malignancy of keratinocytes that can met

Fleshy, erythematous, crusted or ulcerated

195
Q

Keratoacanthoma

A

Looks like SCCC but will regress spontaneously

196
Q

Erysipelas

A

S. pyognes

Dark red, well demarcated, indurated lesions that outline the lymphatics “climb up the extremity”

197
Q

Medial knee pain/pain at top of tibia

A

pes anserinus

Treatment: strengthen quads

198
Q

Anterior knee pain

A

patellofemoral syndrome

199
Q

Muscle weakness following an asthma exacerbation

A

Possible hypokalemia; SE of B2 agonist

200
Q

Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura

A

Thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, renal insufficiency, neuro changes, fever
Treat with plasma exchange

201
Q

Most common cause of constrictive pericarditis in developing countries

A

TB

202
Q

Required to dx malignant HTN

A

papilledema/retinal hemorrhages

203
Q

Mixed connective tissue disease

A

Scleroderma, RA, myositis, SLE mix

Anti-U1

204
Q

Widened pulse pressure

A

aortic regurg

205
Q

Sx of acute angle-closure glaucoma

A

Severe eye pain, halos, injection, poorly responsive to light, tearing, headache
Treat: acetazolamide, BB, steroid

206
Q

Gonococcal vs non-gonococcal septic arthritis

A

Gonococcal tends to be multi joint

207
Q

Metabolic alkalosis + low urine Cl

A

Vomiting or previous diuretic use

208
Q

Serum changes in diarrhea vs vomiting

A

Vomiting leads to alkalosis; diarrhea leads to acidosis

209
Q

Nerve that gives corneal sensation

A

Trigeminal

210
Q

Best measurement of response to treatment in DKA?

A

Serum anion gap (monitor resolution of ketonemia)

211
Q

Hyponatremia, hypotension and hyperkalemia

A

Adrenal insufficiency

212
Q

Treatment for prostatitis

A

Acute: TMP/SMX or quinolone
Chronic: quinolone

213
Q

Rhabdo

A

RBC in UA -> ATN/Rhabdo

214
Q

Most common cause of nosocomial blood stream infections

A

Central venous catheter (regardless of what the culture shows)

215
Q

Treat acute pericarditis

A

NSAIDs and colchicine

216
Q

Type I cryoglobulinemia

A

Assoc w/lymphoproliferative or hematologic diseases

Asymptomatic, hyerviscosity, livedo reticularis

217
Q

Type II/III cyroglobulinemia

A

Assoc w/ HCV, HIV, SLE
Arthralgias, glomerulonephritis, HTN, palpable purpura
Low C4

Step 2 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions